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Interview technical prep > ATL > Flashcards

ATL Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of holding entries?

A

Direct, parallel, teardrop

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2
Q

What is the standard holding pattern time below 14k? Above 14k?

A

Below, 1 minute. Above, 1.5 minutes.

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3
Q

What are the speed restrictions in Class B?

A

250 knots.

Below Class B or in Class C or D, 200 knots.

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4
Q

What are the Part 91 VFR takeoff minimums?

A

1000 ft and 3 miles

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5
Q

What are the Part 121 VFR takeoff minimums?

A

1000 feet and 1 mile day. 1000 feet and 2 miles night.

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6
Q

What is balanced field length?

A

Where accelerate stop distance and accelerate go distance is the same. Field length where the distance to accelerate and stop is equal to the t/o distance of an a/c experiencing an engine failure at the critical engine failure recognition speed (V1).

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7
Q

Define V1.

A

Decision speed. Engine failure below this speed abort. Above this speed continue takeoff.

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8
Q

Define Vr.

A

Rotation speed. Recommended speed to start applying back pressure on the yoke.

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9
Q

Define V2.

A

Takeoff safety speed. Also best climb gradient speed with the most critical engine inop. Minimum speed to be maintained until at least 400 ft AGL

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10
Q

Define Vmcg

A

Min speed necessary to maintain directional control following an engine failure during the T/O roll while still on the ground (without nosewheel steering)

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11
Q

Define Vmca

A

Min control speed with critical engine inop out of ground effect in the air. Most critical eng inop and windmilling, 5 degrees bank toward operative engine, takeoff power on good eng, gear up, flaps up; most rearward CG

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12
Q

Where is icing usually encountered?

A

In visible moisture between 5 C and -20C or colder

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13
Q

What is considered known icing?

A

Any mention of icing conditions during a weather brief

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14
Q

When is an AIRMET issued for icing?

A

At the first indication of moderate ice

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15
Q

When is a SIGMET issued for icing?

A

For areas of severe icing

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16
Q

What is rule #1 of ice in regards to takeoff?

A

Takeoff clean with no ice, snow or frost on the aircraft

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17
Q

How can ice be avoided vertically in flight?

A

By avoiding the freezing level 3000ft below, 8000ft above or clear of clouds

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18
Q

Where is 90% of ice encountered?

A

Within a 3000 ft vertical area

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19
Q

How does icing affect the aircraft?

A

Ice adds weight, increases drag, cruise speed drops, stall speed increases and fuel consumption increases dramatically

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20
Q

What is a collection of very small, supercooled water droplets that freeze on contact?

A

Rime ice. Milky or opaque associated with stratus clouds and relatively smooth air.

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21
Q

What is a collection of large, close to freezing droplets that flow back across the wing before freezing that is hard, glossy and heavy?

A

Clear ice. Associated w/ large cumulus clouds and turbulence.

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22
Q

What indicates warmer temperatures above?

A

Freezing rain

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23
Q

Where can freezing rain typically be located?

A

Ahead of a winter warm front or slowly moving cold front

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24
Q

What is usually the most severe type of icing?

A

Freezing rain

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25
Q

What indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?

A

Ice pellets

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26
Q

What is holdover time?

A

estimated length of time fluid will prevent accumulation. Begins when final application starts and ends when it loses its effectiveness.

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27
Q

Define a wet runway

A

Any runway that is not dry

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28
Q

What is not authorized on a wet runway?

A

LAHSO operations

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29
Q

When should you not takeoff on a contaminated runway?

A

When standing water, slush or wet snow is greater than half an inch

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30
Q

When is the runway surface considered cluttered?

A

Standing water 1/8 in or greater, dry snow 1 in or greater, wet snow 1/4 inch or greater and slush 1/8 in or greater

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31
Q

What is SLOP?

A

Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures are common for North Atlantic Ocean (NAT) track system. All reports made based on ATC cleared track versus offset. Your choice of either centerline, 1NM or 2NM right of centerline.

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32
Q

How does the FAA define a stabilized approach?

A

Pilot establishes and maintains a constant angle glide path towards a predetermined point on the landing rwy.

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33
Q

As an example, what is Emirates definition of a stabilized approach?

A

All briefing and checklist items actioned, a/c is in planned landing configuration, a/c is on correct flight path, and a/c speed not > final approach speed +10 and no < Vref.

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34
Q

What is minimum fuel?

A

advisory that an emergency is possible should any undue delay occur. Does not imply need for traffic priority.

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35
Q

What is emergency fuel?

A

The point at which, in the judgement of PIC it is necessary to proceed directly to the airport of intended landing due to low fuel. Explicit statement that priority handling by ATC is required and expected.

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36
Q

What are the basic lost comm procecures?

A

remember AVEF MEA Route : Assigned, vectored, expected or filed. Altitude: higher of Minimum IFT alt (think MSA, MOCA, etc), expected, assigned. Squawk 7600

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37
Q

What is a hotspot?

A

hot spot is defined as a location on an airport movement area with a history or potential risk of collision or rwy incursion and where heightened attention by pilots and drivers is necessary.

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38
Q

What are the weather requirements for LAHSO?

A

1000 ft and 3 miles vis

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39
Q

What is CRM?

A

Crew Resource Management- a set of training procedures for use in environments where human error can have devastating effects. Used for improving aviation safety and focuses on interpersonal communication, leadership and decision making in aircraft cockpits.

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40
Q

What is TEM?

A

Threat and Error Management- overarching safety concept regarding aviation operations and human performance.

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41
Q

How is threat defined?

A

Threats- events or errors that occur beyond the influence of the aircrew. Increases operational complexity and which must be managed to maintain the margins of safety.

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42
Q

How are errors defined?

A

Errors- actions or inactions by the aircrew that lead to deviations from organizational or operational intentions or expectations.

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43
Q

What is transition level?

A

The lowest flt lvl available for use above the transition altitude.

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44
Q

What is transition altitude?

A

The alt at or below which the vertical postion of an a/c is controlled by reference to altitudes. A published height above sea level at which pilots, climbing to their cruising level change their barometric altimeter from regional pressure setting to international standard setting

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45
Q

What are the domestic IFR fuel requirements?

A

Fly to destination, shoot and approach go on to the (most distant) alternate and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruise.

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46
Q

What are the international fuel requirements (flag jet)?

A

fly to and land at airport to which released. Then, fly for a period of 10% additional time above. Then, fly and land at most distant airport specified in flt release. Then, to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above airport under std temp conditions. If alt not specified, must have additional 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

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47
Q

What are the circling speeds for a Class A aircraft?

A

TERPS 90

ICAO 100

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48
Q

What are the circling speeds for a Class B aircraft?

A

TERPS 120

ICAO 135

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49
Q

What are the circling speeds for a Class C aircraft?

A

TERPS 140

ICAO 180

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50
Q

What are the circling speeds for a Class D aircraft?

A

TERPS 165

ICAO 205

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51
Q

What color are the runway edge lights?

A

White. Last 2000 ft or halfway is yellow

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52
Q

How far apart are the runway edge lights?

A

200 feet

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53
Q

What color are the runway centerline lights?

A

White until the last 3000 feet. Alt red and white for next 2,000 ft and are red for last 1k ft

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54
Q

How far apart are the centerline lights?

A

50 ft intervals

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55
Q

How far apart are taxiway lights?

A

normally 200 ft apart on straight aways. 100 ft apart if on single edges

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56
Q

Where does the TDLZ extend to?

A

3k ft or midpoint of runway

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57
Q

What lights indicate LAHSO?

A

row of pulsing white lights

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58
Q

What is RWSL

A

rwy status light system. Monitors rwy and provides rwy entrance lights (REL) and T/O Hold lights (THL)

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59
Q

What does V2 gaurantee?

A

35 ft above threshold dry and 15 feet above threshold wet

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60
Q

What is factored runway distance?

A

Actual landing distance X 1.67 dry or X 1.97 wet (to account for the 15% additional rwy requirement).

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61
Q

When do you have positive rate of climb?

A

Both altimeter and VSI

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62
Q

What are four segments of T/O climb?

A

Liftoff, gear up to 400 ft, level accel to flap ret and climb speed, 400-1500 climb until clear of obstacle

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63
Q

Define critical engine

A

Engine that, in the event of failure, would most adversely affect the performance or handling abilities of an a/c.

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64
Q

How does an a/c turn?

A

Losing horizontal component of lift on one side

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65
Q

Define coffin corner?

A

Point at which the flight envelope boundary defined by a high incidence stall intersects with that defined by the critical mach number. In other words, a/c has climbed to an altitude where speed differential between the onset of low speed stall buffet and the onset of high speed mach buffet approaches zero.

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66
Q

Might get an EP where you are min fuel and told to go around?

A

Go around

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67
Q

What to do if a door light comes on enroute?

A

Follow checklists, move FA and pax away from door, start descent, change pressurization to higher cabin alt.

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68
Q

If on a STAR and hear descend via?

A

Comply with alt altitude and speed restrictions

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69
Q

Who jointly shares success w/ PIC for success and safety of flight?

A

Dispatcher

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70
Q

Where is 00 N 180W

A

somewhere in Pacific Ocean. 180W is International Dateline

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71
Q

What alt for one pilot to war oxygen mask?

A

Part 121 FL 410

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72
Q

Where is Prime Meridian?

A

Goes through Greenwhich England

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73
Q

How many lines of latitude between equator and North Pole?

A

90

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74
Q

How many miles between lines of latitude?

A

60 nm

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75
Q

Obstacle Clearance Height for MOCA?

A

kft mountainous, 1.5kft if terrain 3-5kft or 1000 ft everywhere else.

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76
Q

Where is RVSM airspace?

A

290-410

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77
Q

On ground what can the discrepancy on the altimeter be between Capt and FO? In air?

A

75 feet ground, 200 air (in rvsm must check every hour on the hour)

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78
Q

When is mayday called?

A

Life threatening. International distress signal, indicates imminent and grave danger and immediate assistance is requested. Absolute priority over all other communications and commands radio silence.

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79
Q

When is pan called?

A

urgent situation. International urgency signal, indicates uncertainty or alert and warns other stations not to interfere with urgency transmissions. Urgency communications have priority over all other communications except distress.

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80
Q

What is CAVOK?

A

5kft and 10Km or 6 SM vis. No CB or TCU and no cloud below 5kft or MSA (whichever is >) No significant wx at or in the vicinity of the aerodrome.

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81
Q

How long is a tempo issued?

A

30 mins, not to exceed an hour

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82
Q

What do you do if you hear Terrain Terrain in your current a/c?

A

King Air- 1. Autopilot off 2. Wing level 3. Power- max allowable 4. Pitch increase- initial pitch 20-25 degrees up and adjust to avoid buffet or stall warning until reaching 125 KIAS 5. Gear and Flaps up 6. Continue climb until terrain clearance is assured.

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83
Q

What does $ in a METAR mean?

A

in automation means maintenance required.

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84
Q

What does A02 in a METAR mean?

A

has precip sensor

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85
Q

What does A01 in a METAR mean?

A

no precip sensor

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86
Q

Describe a High Level Significant wx prognostic chart

A

FL 250-630, 24 hour forecast, no icing or clouds but CBs are depicted.

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87
Q

What does XXX in a high level prog chart indicate?

A

CB starts below 25k ft

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88
Q

How is turbulence depicted on high level prog chart?

A

Yellow dashed lines and intensity

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89
Q

What does a double hatch on a jet stream indicate?

A

A change of 20 knots more in speed

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90
Q

How far out does MSA go?

A

25 NM

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91
Q

If wx goes below minimums and you are outside FAF?

A

Can not continue

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92
Q

Inside FAF?

A

Can continue

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93
Q

When can you continue below DH?

A

Approach lights insight can go to 100 ft above TDZE, then must have landing environment in sight

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94
Q

What to do if trying to depart and wx is below landing mins?

A

I need T/O alt, Is rwy legal? Is a/c approved for lower t/o mins? Is it in my Op Specs? Have we been trained? For Atlas the lowest they can do is 5-5-5.

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95
Q

When is a point on a STAR compulsory?

A

When shaded in

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96
Q

Solve a time and distance problem. You need to descend from 30k to 20k on a 3 degree

A

0k ft X 3 = 30 NM plus some buffer (either 10% or whatever you like) say 35 NM

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97
Q

T01941067?

A

First 0 indicates positive so 19.4 is temperature. Then 1 is negative so dewpoint is -6.7

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98
Q

May a/c be fueled with pax onboard?

A

No

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99
Q

What is used in conjunction with SIDS and RNAV SIDS to reduce phraseology by eliminating the need for the controlled to restate restrictions at the remaining waypoints and fixes along the departure?

A

“Climb via”

100
Q

Climb via is clearance for the pilots to navigate how?

A

navigate laterally and vertically at the pilots discretion so as to comply with airspeed and altitude restrictions published as a SID

101
Q

If assigned a SID, what altitude must a pilot comply with that may not be given by ATC?

A

the top altitude. May differ between runways, must reference the SID publication

102
Q

Does a filed or expected altitude affect a SID?

A

No, unless communications are lost

103
Q

What altitude should a pilot be at if vectored off route to another waypoint and there is not an assigned altitude at that waypoint?

A

ATC will provide an altitude

104
Q

What must you have to accept a SID or a STAR?

A

A description of the procedure

105
Q

On a Jepp chart, what numbers identify a SID? Star?

A

• A SID is identified with a -3, a STAR or profile descent is identified with a -2

106
Q

What is a SID named for?

A

the last common point in the departure prior to the transitions

107
Q

What is considered a standard climb gradient?

A

200’ per NM with 35’ clearance at the end of the runway

108
Q

What do bold lines on a SID indicate?

A

Bold lines on the chart indicate primary departure route lines

109
Q

What do dashed lines on a SID indicate?

A

Dashed lines are used to connect the SID to transition routes. Enroute airways or jet routes.

110
Q

What does a line of arrowheads indicate?

A

Radar vectoring

111
Q

When will a lost comms box be present on the chart?

A

When the procedures differ from part 91

112
Q

What is a published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment

A

A max authorized altitude (MAA) assures adequate reception of navigation symbols

113
Q

Where can you find a MAA?

A

will be above MEA on chart and designated as MAA

114
Q

Based on an approach chart, when is DME required?

A

When DME is included in the procedure name

115
Q

How can you tell a straight in approach is not applicable on an approach plate?

A

The app is identified with a letter and only circling mins are provided

116
Q

What is the highest usable landing surface on the airport?

A

Airport elevation

117
Q

What is the difference between airport elevation and touchdown zone elevation?

A

TDZE is the highest elevation in the first 3000 feet

118
Q

What does the MSA provide?

A

1000 feet of obstacle clearance

119
Q

What is the standard radius of MSA?

A

25 nm, a different distance will be noted otherwise

120
Q

When might the MSA be based on a waypoint instead of a VOR?

A

Sometimes on RNAV approaches, usually designated as the MAWP

121
Q

Is the MSA the same for each approach at an airport?

A

No, because it will be based on different points or nav aids

122
Q

What is the effective time for an effective date on an approach plate?

A

After 0901Z

123
Q

What is the symbol for an NDB

A

concentric dotted circles

124
Q

What is the symbol for a VOR?

A

compass rose

125
Q

What is the symbol for a TACAN or DME?

A

serrated circle

126
Q

What is the symbol for a VOR/DME?

A

compass rose and serrated circle combined

127
Q

What is the symbol for LOC/ILS/SDF/LDA?

A

half feathered arrow

128
Q

What is the symbol for an ILS backcourse?

A

half solid arrow

129
Q

What does it mean when a nav information box is shadowed?

A

it is part of the final approach segment

130
Q

What does it mean if there is a D in the nav information box?

A

the facility is capable of DME

131
Q

What does it mean if there is a T in the VOR information box?

A

The VOR is a terminal class facility. H is high, L is Low

132
Q

What does a plus or minus symbol mean next to an obstacle on an approach chart?

A

The obstacle has not been accurately surveyed

133
Q

What will point to the highest reference point in the plan view?

A

A bold arrow

134
Q

When will terrain information be displayed in the plan view?

A

When terrain exceeds 4000 feet above the airport elevation, or 2000 feet if with 6nm

135
Q

What does a solid line on the final approach segment indicate?

A

The course for a precision approach

136
Q

What does a dashed line on the final approach segment indicate?

A

The course for a non precision approach

137
Q

What are the heights given on the final approach segment in?

A

MSL, they are bold and above the line. The smaller number below is AGL

138
Q

What is the height of the glideslope antenna above the threshold if still on the glideslope?

A

Threshold crossing height (TCH)

139
Q

Do non precision approaches list TCH?

A

No

140
Q

What indicates where you may begin a normal descent from the MDA if the runway environment is in sight?

A

Visual Descent Point (VDP)

141
Q

What distances relate to the corresponding category speeds?

A 
A= 1.3
B= 1.5
C= 1.7
D= 2.3
142
Q

Where is a precision app DA based on?

A

Height above the TDZ

143
Q

Where is a non precision MDA based on?

A

Airport surface

144
Q

When are straight in mins not included on the approach plate?

A

When the final app course is not aligned within 30 degrees of the runway or when an excessive rate of descent is required

145
Q

When does the term “radar required” appear in an app chart?

A

When there is no way to navigate from the enroute structure to any initial fix without the aid of a controller

146
Q

What does a white bar across the end of a runway on a chart depict?

A

A displaced threshold

147
Q

What is the centerpoint of an airport which is located at the geometric center from all the runways?

A

Airport Reference Point (ARP)

148
Q

What is a circle with a solid black star?

A

Airport identification beacon

149
Q

What does EMAS mean?

A

Engineered materials or arresting systems

150
Q

When are takeoff alternates required?

A

When the weather conditions are below the landing minimums

151
Q

What are the takeoff alternates for an aircraft with two engines?

A

not more than one hour from the dep airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inop

152
Q

What are the takeoff alternates requirements for an airport for an aircraft with three engines?

A

not more than 2 hours from the dep airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inop

153
Q

When is a landing alternate not required domestically?

A

1 hour before to 1 hour after, ceiling at least 2000 ft, vis at least 3 SM

154
Q

When is a landing alternate not required (flag)?

A

o Flight is not scheduled for more than 6 hours, and for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA, the weather reports are:
 At least 1500 above lowest circling MDA (if circling is required)
 At least 1500 above the lowest pub IAP or 2000 above airport elevation, whichever is greater
 Vis is at least 3 miles or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable vis mins
o Or the flight is over a route approved without an available alternate for a particular destination and the aircraft has enough fuel to meet the reqs of 121.641(b) or 121.645(c)

155
Q

What is the atmospheric pressure setting will cause the alt to read zero when at the reference datum of the airfield

A

QFE

156
Q

What is the constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 used for expressing flight levels

A

QNE

157
Q

What is the atmospheric pressure setting which will cause the alt to read altitudes referenced to MSL

A

QNH

158
Q

What is an area beyond the takeoff runway within which terrain or fixed obstacles may not extend above specified limits?

A

Clearway

159
Q

What is applicable only to a non prec app with no FAF where the ac is established inbound on the final app course from the procedure turn and where the final app descent may be commenced?

A

Final approach point

160
Q

What is an alt derived by Jepp or State Authorities that provides terrain and man made structure clearance within the section outlined by lat/long lines. Does not provide for signal coverage

A

Grid MORA

161
Q

What are the clearance limits for Grid MORA?

A

o Clears all terrain and man made structures by 1000 feet when the highest elevations are 5000 or lower and non mountainous
o Clears all terrain and man made structures by 2000 feet when the highest elevations are 5001 or higher and mountainous

162
Q

What are the standard mins for ILS Cat 1?

A

200 feet and RVR 18

163
Q

What are the standard mins for ILS Cat 2?

A

100 feet and RVR 12

164
Q

What are the mins for ILS Cat 3?

A

o A- RVR 7
o B – RVR 150 feet
o C – no restrictions

165
Q

What is the lowest pub alt between radio fixes that meets obstacle clearance and assures acceptable signal coverage

A

MEA

166
Q

What is the lowest pub alt between radio fixes that meets obstacle clearance and assures acceptable signal coverage within 22 NM of VOR

A

MOCA

167
Q

What is obstruction clearance 10 nm either side of the route centerline including a 10nm radius beyond the radio fix reporting

A

MORA

168
Q

What is a statement of nav position accuracy necessary for operation within a defined airspace. Is performance based and not dependent on a specific piece of equipment.

A

RNP

169
Q

What is a containment value expressed as a distance in nm from the intended position within which flights would be for at least 95 percent of the total flying time

A

RNP Type

170
Q

What is a defined rectangular area at the end of the take off run in which the aircraft can be stopped in case of abort

A

Stop way

171
Q

What provides guidance and control for information and advice necessary for pilots or drivers to find their way on the airport when RVR is 1200 or less (low vis operations)

A

Surface movement guidance and control system (SMGCS)

172
Q

How is the primary airport for an arrival identified?

A

The airport is a shaded gray area

173
Q

How are other airports which are served by an arrival around the primary airport identified?

A

Blue text

174
Q

What is sometimes found under the arrival name in the top right corner?

A

Specified qualifying statement

175
Q

What does “T” after an altitude on a segment denote?

A

MOCA

176
Q

What are the speed restrictions of 14 CFR 91.117?

A

o Below 10000, 250 kts
o At or below 2500 within 4 nm of primary class c or D airport, 200 knots
o Under class b, 200 knots
o Exceptions apply if the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed stated above. There is no need to notify ATC when the speed limit is exceeded for this reason

177
Q

What does a pilot do when initially given a speed restriction and then cleared for a STAR descent?

A

When there are no upcoming speed restrictions, issuance of a “proceed direct (WP name), descend via…” cancels a previously issued speed adjustment and authorizes speed at pilot’s discretion for the appropriate phase of flight

178
Q

What happens to speed if vectored off a STAR segment where published speed applies?

A

the published speed is cancelled and speed is at pilot’s discretion unless ATC has assigned a speed

179
Q

Why is there a speed limit?

A

Traffic avoidance and bird strike risk

180
Q

What are the holding speed limits 6000 MSL and below?

A

200 knots

181
Q

What are the holding speed limits 6001-14000?

A

230 knots

182
Q

What are the holding speed limits above 14001?

A

265 knots

183
Q

What is the speed limit in Class E airspace?

A

250 knots below 10k MSL

184
Q

What is the speed limit in Class G?

A

250 knots below 10k MSL

185
Q

What does - mean in a METAR?

A

Light

186
Q

What means moderate in a METAR?

A

There is no symbol

187
Q

What does + mean in a METAR

A

Heavy

188
Q

What does VC mean in a METAR?

A

In the vicinity

189
Q

MI

A

Shallow

190
Q

PR

A

Partial

191
Q

BC

A

Patches

192
Q

DR

A

Low drifting

193
Q

BL

A

Blowing

194
Q

SH

A

Showers

195
Q

TS

A

Thunderstorm

196
Q

FZ

A

Freezing

197
Q

DZ

A

Drizzle

198
Q

RA

A

Rain

199
Q

SN

A

Snow

200
Q

SG

A

Snow grains

201
Q

IC

A

Ice

202
Q

PE

A

Ice pellets

203
Q

GR

A

Hail

204
Q

GS

A

Small Hail

205
Q

UP

A

Unknown precip

206
Q

BR

A

Mist

207
Q

FG

A

Fog

208
Q

FU

A

Smoke

209
Q

VA

A

Volcanic Ash

210
Q

DU

A

Widespread dust

211
Q

SA

A

Sand

212
Q

HZ

A

Haze

213
Q

PY

A

Spray

214
Q

PO

A

Well developed dust/sand swirls

215
Q

SQ

A

Squalls

216
Q

FC

A

Funnel Cloud/Tornado/Water spout

217
Q

SS

A

Sandstorm/Dust storm

218
Q

CIG007V013

A

ceiling was variable between 700 and 1300 feet

219
Q

SLP177

A

indicates the sea-level pressure in millibars (1017.7 mb).

220
Q

P0015

A

is the hourly liquid precipitation (in hundredths of an inch). In this case, 0.15 inches of rain fell in the hour ending at 12Z.

221
Q

60056

A

represents the three- or six-hour liquid precipitation (in hundredths of an inch). In this case, 0.56 inches of rain fell in the six-hour period ending at 12Z. for the record, six-hour totals appear at 00Z, 06z, 12Z and 18Z. Three-hour totals appear at 03Z, 09Z, 15Z and 21Z. 60000 translates to a trace of liquid precipitation during the three- or six-hour period.

222
Q

70066

A

indicates the total 24-hour liquid precipitation ending at 12Z (in hundredths of an inch). In this case, 0.66 inches fell at Concord from 12Z on May 12 to 12Z on May 13

223
Q

T00890072

A

indicates the hourly temperature and dew point to the nearest tenth of a degree Celsius. The “0” after the “T” indicates that the temperature and dew point are higher than 0 degrees Celsius (a “1” will follow the “T” when the dew point temperature and /or the temperature is / are less than 0 degrees Celsius). In this case, the 12Z temperature at Concord was 8.9 degrees Celsius and the dew point was 7.2 degrees Celsius

224
Q

10094

A

represents the highest temperature, in tenths of a degree Celsius, during the six-hour period ending at 12Z (in this case). If the digit following the “1” is a “0”, then the temperature is higher than 0 degrees Celsius. So the highest temperature at Concord between 06Z and 12Z on May 13, 2006, was 9.4 degrees Celsius.

225
Q

20089

A

indicates the lowest temperature during the six-hour period ending at 12Z (in this case). If the digit following the “2” is a “0”, then the temperature is higher than 0 degrees Celsius. the lowest temperature at Concord between 06Z and 12Z on May 13, 2006, was 8.9 degrees Celsius.

226
Q

53018

A

indicates the pressure tendency (the “5 group”). The digit following the “5”, which can vary from 0 to 8, describes the behavior of the pressure over the past three hours

227
Q

Describe how to convert required climb gradient to climb ft/min

A

If a climb gradient of 200 ft per nautical mile is required and our ground speed in the climb is 90 knots we will need a rate of climb of 300 feet per minute.

90 Nautical Miles Per Hour divided by 60 minutes per hour = 1.5 nautical miles per minute. 1.5 nautical miles per minute times 200 feet per nautical mile = 300 feet per minute.

228
Q

What are the standard takeoff mins for an aircraft with two engines? three or more?

A

2 = 1 sm, 3+=1/2 sm

229
Q

What percentage is ISOL CB?

A

Less than 1/8th

230
Q

What percentage is OCNL CB?

A

1/8 to 4/8

231
Q

What percentage is FRQ CB?

A

More than 4/8ths

232
Q

What does EMBD CB mean?

A

CB concealed by other cloud layers, haze, dust, etc

233
Q

In a high level prog, what do XXX below an altitude mean?

A

The lower layer is below the chart layers (below 250)

234
Q

What is a yellow dashed line in a prog chart?

A

Turbulence

235
Q

What is one carrot in terms of turbulence?

A

Moderate

236
Q

What is two carrots in terms of turbulence?

A

Severe

237
Q

How are jet streams depicted?

A

Green line >80 knots

238
Q

Where are the heights of a jet stream located?

A

In a box below the green line

239
Q

What does it mean where there are two additional altitudes below the primary altitude of a jet stream depiction

A

The core of the jet stream, only depicted when greater than 120 knots

240
Q

How is the tropopause depicted?

A

Altitude in a box

241
Q

What does a L or H in a tropopause box mean?

A

Center of low or high tropopause

242
Q

What is the difference between a tropical storm and hurricane?

A

Tropical storm not a sold circle

243
Q

How are squall lines depicted?

A

Red scalloped area with V inside. Indicates lines of CB with 5/8 coverage or greater

244
Q

How are sandstorms depicted?

A

S with a line through it, has altitude that shows vertical extent

245
Q

How are volcanoes depicted?

A

Fez Hat with the name

246
Q

Why might an airport have a ground metering frequency?

A

used to prevent congestion on ramps and taxiways. When ready for push back from the gate, pilots call metering. The metering controller will typically either give them permission to push with a ground frequency to call when ready for taxi, or they will tell them to monitor a particular ground frequency for permission to push. They may even tell the pilots to stay on the gate and call back after a specified delay.

247
Q

Why is knowing where the tropopause is important?

A

It indicates where the temperature becomes constant with increasing altitude. This is relevant to performance and fuel calculations.

Interview technical prep (1 decks)

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