ATI Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The function of RNA eukaryotic cells is to:
A. transmit hereditary information to new cells
B. direct the synthesis and assembly of new organelles
C. provide the template for protein synthesis
D. produce energy for metabolic process within the cell

A

C. provide the template for protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
Chewing tobacco and cigarettes both contain nicotine, which constricts blood vessels. Smoking also involves the inhalation of tar, information, which of the following health problems is likely to be common to chewing tobacco and cigarettes?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Heart disease
D. Emphysema
A

C. Heart disease

Rationale: Nicotine, which is present in both chewing tobacco and cigarettes, constricts blood vessels, which decreases blood flow to the heart muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following explains why evidence for transitional forms with intermediate characteristics between groups of organisms is not often seen?
A. Transitional changes are only seen in DNA.
B. Transitional forms are long lived.
C. Transitional forms do not all fossilize.
D. Transitional forms are generally microscopic.

A

C. Transitional forms do not all fossilize.

Rationale:Not all organisms fossilize.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Two researchers not that when Weeds A and B grow next to each other, the roots of Weed A stop growing when they enter the root zone of Weed B. Since activated charcoal is known to absorb organic compounds, the researchers apply activated charcoal to the soil around Weed B. They note that the roots of Weed A then grow into the root zone of Weed B. Which of the following hypotheses is being tested by the addition of activated charcoal to the soil?
A. Weed A absorbs activated charcoal, which enhances root growth for weed A.
B. Weed B grows best in soil that contains few organic compounds.
C. Weed A is attached to soil that contains activated charcoal.
D. Weed B produces an organic compound that inhibits root growth for Weed A.

A

D. Weed B produces an organic compound that inhibits root growth for Weed A.

Rationale: Since activated charcoal is known to absorb organic compounds, its use indicates that the hypothesis being tested is that Weed B produces an organic compound that inhibits root growth for Weed A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
Which of the following electrolytes controls water balance in the human body?
A. Phosphorus
B. Sodium
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium
A

B. Sodium

Rationale: Sodium controls the osmosis of water by increasing or decreasing osmolarity and therefore controls water balance in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
In a chemical reaction, a metal will become:
A. a cation by losing electrons.
B. a cation by gaining electrons.
C. an anion by losing electrons.
D. an anion by gaining electrons.
A

A. a cation by losing electrons.

In chemical reactions, metals lose electrons and become positively charged cations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A student notices that a colleague has one green eye and one blue eye. Which of the following possibilities is correct?
A. The genotype of one parent is green eyes, and the genotype of the other is blue eyes.
B. The phenotype indicates variability in the genotype of each eye.
C. The phenotype of each eye cannot be inferred from the visible genotype of the eye.
D. The phenotype shows one green-eye gone and one blue-eye gene on the DNA.

A

B. The phenotype indicates variability in the genotype of each eye.

Rationale: Phenotype is the external manifestation of the alleles, and constitute the genotype. The colleague’s eye color indicates variability in the genotype of each eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
Which of the following is the function of the spleen in a healthy adult human?
A. It stores bile produced in the liver
B. It produces white blood cells.
C. It degrades aged red blood cells
D. It is a vestigial organ
A

C. It degrades aged red blood cells

Rationale: A healthy spleen degrades RBC’s & produces lymphocytes (hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
The concentration of hydrogen ions in water with a pH of 7 is:
A. 10 (+7) M
B. 7M
C. 0.7M
D. 10 (-7)M
A

D. 10 (-7) M

Rationale: The formula for pH is -log[H+]. A pH of 7 translates to 10 -7M of hydrogen ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A scientist wants to know if the temperature of the soil varies at different depths. He assumes that the temperature will remain the same as depth increases. To best test this assumption, the scientist should perform;

A. single trails at the surface and at 10, 30, 50, 70, and 90 cm depths.

B. single trails at the surface and at 90 cm.

C. repeated trials at the surface and at 90 cm.

D. repeated trials at the surface and at 10, 30, 50, 70, and 90 cm depths.

A

D. repeated trials at the surface and at 10, 30, 50, 70, and 90 cm depths.

Rationale: The best experimental procedure includes multiple samples taken from each of a range of depths.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following options explains why surface temperatures of the Earth are higher in the summer than in winter?
A. The Moon reflects the Sun’s energy toward the Earth in the summer
B. The Sun’s radiation energy fluctuates seasonally.
C. The Sun’s rays strike closer to perpendicular to the Earth’s surface in summer.
D. Solar radiation is partially blocked from Earth by Mercury and Venus in the winter.

A

C. The Sun’s rays strike closer to perpendicular to the Earth’s surface in summer.

Rationale: Surface temperatures are higher in the summer because the Sun’s rays strike Earth more directly due to the tilt of the Earth axis toward the Sun.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following explains what happens in the circulatory system during hyperventilation?

A. Alveloar exchange does not occur efficiently, causing the oxygen level and blood pH to drop.
B. The carbon dioxide level in the blood increases, causing tissues to suffer from increasingly acidic blood pH.
C. The carbon dioxide level decreases and the blood pH increases, causing constriction of blood vessels and hypoxia.
D. High oxygen levels cause rapid cell respiration, and carbon dioxide is released, re-establishing homeostasis

A

C. The carbon dioxide level decreases and the blood pH increases, causing constriction of blood vessels and hypoxia.

Rationale: Blood vessel constriction occurs due to the increased alkalinity of blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Which of the following conditions might help a species to escape extinction in the face of changing environmental conditions, such as habitat destruction?
A. Extreme specialization
B. Small populations
C. Ecological niches
D. Generalized distrubution
A

D. Generalized distribution

Rationale: A wide distribution will allow some members to survive detrimental changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between genes and chromosomes?

A. Genes are DNA sequences found on chromosomes.
B. Chromosomes contain genes composed of amino acids.
C. Chromosomes are DNA sequences found on genes.
D. Genes contain chromosomes comprised of amino acids

A

A. Genes are DNA sequences found on chromosomes.

Rationale: Genes are linear sequences of DNA on chromosomes, and they encode hereditary information that is transmitted to offspring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following describes the type of chemical bonds found within a molecule of ammonia, NH3?

A. Nonpolar covalent bonds
B. Polar covalent bonds
C. Iconic bonds
D. Hydrogen bonds

A

B. Polar covalent bonds

Rationale: Nitrogen is more electronegative than hydrogen, leading to an unequal sharing of electrons, which is the definition of polar covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following organelles are involved in the separation of chromosomes during the process of eukaryotic cell division?

A. Plasmodesmata
B. Plastids
C. Centrioles
D. Telomeres

A

C. Centrioles

Rationale: Centrioles produce spindle fibres that pull chromatids apart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following terms describes the bonding together of smaller molecules to form larger molecules?

A. Anabolism
B. Catalysis
C. Catabolism
D. Anaphylaxis

A

A. Anabolism

Rationale: Anabolism describes the endothermic process by which bonds are formed between molecules to make larger molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ca+H2SO4
Which of the following statements correctly describes the outcome of the reaction above?

A. Calcium is oxidized to Ca 2+.
B. Sulfuric acid is decomposed to hydrogen sulfide.
C. Sulfuric acid is neutralized to calcium sulfate.
D. Hydrogen is oxidized to hydrogen gas.

A

A. Calcium is oxidized to Ca 2+

Rationale: Calcium is oxidized to Ca 2+ in calcium sulfate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
Which of the following enzymes breaks down complex carbohydrates?
A. Amylase
B. Pepsin
C. Lactase
D. Lipase
A

A. Amylase

Rationale: Amylase breaks down starch, which is a complex carbohydrate, into maltose, a simple disaccharide.

20
Q

During vertebrate embryogenesis, the central nervous system originates from which of the following germ layers?

A. Ectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Archenteron

A

A. Ectoderm

Rationale: Both the skin and nervous systems originate from this layer.

21
Q

In a liquid state, the arrangement and motion of molecules can be described as:

A. closely packed in a random pattern with constant rapid motion.
B. widely separated in a regular pattern with vibrational motion.
C. widely separated in a random pattern with constant rapid motion.
D. closely packed in a regular pattern with virational motion.

A

A. closely packed in a random pattern with constant rapid motion

Rationale: In liquids, molecules are closely packed but are not confined to any pattern. They are in constant rapid motion due to their thermal energy.

22
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to physical changes of state?

A. Evaporation is an endothermic process.
B. Condensation is an endothermic process.
C. Vaporization is an exothermic process
D. Sublimation is an exothermic process

A

A. Evaporation is an endothermic process.

Rationale: An endothermic process absorbs energy; therefore, evaporation, the change of state from liquid to gas, is endothermic.

23
Q

The use of an electron microscope would most benefit the study of:

A. the structure of the electron cloud
B. the structure of cellular organelles.
C. the structure of skeletal joints.
D. chemical bonds in ADP and ATP.

A

B. the structure of cellular organelles.

Rationale: Electron microscopy has significantly improved the ability to see and understand the workings of these organelles because electron wavelengths are short enough to resolve the structure of organelles.

24
Q

The cause of cell differentiation is that different cells:

A. encode different DNA
B. have different chromosomes
C. contain similar protein information
D. express alternate genetic information.

A

D. express alternate genetic information.

Rationale: Different cell types express different subsets of genes.

25
Q

Which of the following cellular organelles contains its own unique genetic material and carries out protein synthesis separate from the cytoplasm?

A. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticlum
C. Lysosome
D. Chlorplast

A

D. Chlorplast

Rationale: The chloroplast contains DNA and protein synthesis machinery, and some chloroplast proteins are made here.

26
Q

A pregnant chain smoker has just been diagnosed with lung cancer. Her biggest concern is that she has passed on the lung cancer mutation to her unborn child. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this situation?

A. Children do not use their lungs until they are born, so the mutation will only pass on after the child starts breathing at birth.
B. The mutation could pass from mother to child through blood, but anti-cancer medications can prevent the child from developing cancer.
C. If the pregnant mother undergoes treatment for lung cancer, both she and the child can be cured of the mutation.
D. Mutations that happened in body cells other than egg and sperm cells will not transmit to the child.

A

D. Mutations that happened in body cells other than egg and sperm cells will not transmit to the child.

Rationale: Only germline mutations are transmitted, so this lung cancer mutation will not be passed to the child.

27
Q

The most inclusive taxonomic category smaller than class is the:

A. phylum
B. order
C. family
D. genus

A

B. Order

Rationale: Order is the next most inclusive taxonomic category after class.

28
Q

Which of the following halogens reacts most readily with the metal sodium?

A. Iodine
B. Bromine
C. Chlorine
D. Astatine

A

C. Chlorine

Rationale: Chlorine is the smallest of the listed halogens. Therefore, it reacts most readily with sodium

29
Q

In which of the following areas of the body is glycogen stored?

A. Pancreas
B. Bone tissue
C. Liver
D. Gallbladder

A

C. Liver

Rationale: The pancreas does not store glycogen; it is involved in insulin production and digestive enzyme secretions.

30
Q

The bands in muscle sarcomere are formed by actin and which of the following other proteins?

A. Myosin
B. Dynein
C. Keratin
D. Laminin

A

A. Myosin

Rationale: Myosin contains “heads” that contact actin and pull the actin fibers together in an ATP-dependent mechanism that causes muscles to contract.

31
Q

Mg(OH)2+HCL=
Which of the following choices shows the correct molar products of the neutralization reaction above?

A. 2MgCl2+H20
B. 2MgCl2+2H20
C. MgCl2+H20
D. MgCl2+2H20

A

D. MgCl2+2H20

Rationale: The products of a neutralization are always salt and water, and the molar ratio is correctly shown.

32
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the organisms in which photosynthesis and oxidative respiration occur?

A. Photosynthesis occurs only in plants whereas oxidative respiration occurs in all life forms.
B. Photosynthesis occurs in many prokaryotes and some eukaryotes whereas oxidation respiration occurs only in aerobic eukaryotes.
C. Photosynthesis occurs only in plants whereas oxidative respiration occurs only in animals.
D. Photosynthesis occurs in many prokaryotes and eukaryotes whereas oxidative respiration occurs only in aerobic prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

A

D. Photosynthesis occurs in many prokaryotes and eukaryotes whereas oxidative respiration occurs only in aerobic prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

Rationale: Photosynthesis occurs in bacteria, certain, protist and plants, and oxidative respiration does not occur in all life forms.

33
Q

Which of the following explains what happens in the circulatory system during hyperventilation?

A. Alveolar exchange does not occur efficiently, causing the oxygen level and blood pH to drop.
B. The carbon dioxide level in the blood increases, causing tissues to suffer from increasingly acidic blood pH.
C. The carbon dioxide level decreases and the blood pH increases, causing constriction of blood vessels and hypoxia.
D. High oxygen levels cause rapid cell respiration, and carbon dioxide is released, re-establishing homeostasis.

A

C. The carbon dioxide level decreases and the blood pH increases, causing constriction of blood vessels and hypoxia.

Rationale: Blood vessel constriction occurs due to the increased alkalinity of blood.

34
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a property of the ion of Aluminum-27?

A. It has an electric charge of -3
B. It has a mass number of 14
C. It has an electric charge of +3
D. It has a mass number of 24

A

C. It has an electric charge of +3

Rationale: This ion contain 13 protons and 10 electrons, losing 3 electrons given the ion a charge of +3. The mass number (27) is the sum of protons and neutrons.

35
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the color change and substance properties for acid-base indicator testing?

A. Blue litmus turns red, indicating the presence of a base with a pH>7.
B. Red litmus turns blue, showing the presence of an acid with a pH>7.
C. Blue litmus turns red, indicating the presence of an acid with a pH

A

C. Blue litmus turns red, indicating the presence of an acid with a pH

36
Q

During transcription of the eukaryotic genetic code of DNA into RNA, certain regions are removed from the mature transcript. These regions are called:

A. introns
B. exons
C. operons
D. alleles

A

A. introns

Rationale: Intron are sequences that interrupt open reading frames, and they are removed after transcription.

37
Q

Which of the following describes the energy changes when a stationary penny is dropped from a 1-store building?

A. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy and then lost as heat
B. Potential energy is changed to heat and then converted to kinetic energy.
C. Kinetic energy is charged to heat and then converted to potential energy.
D. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy and then lost as heat.

A

D. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy and then lost as heat.

Rationale: Potential energy (energy of location) is first converted to kinetic energy (energy of motion) and then lost as heat on impact with the ground.

38
Q

“Dark matter” is a form of energy proposed to explain the repulsive forces between matter in the universe. It has never been observed directly. Which of the following is the best rationale for my scientist’

A. It serves as a working hypothesis to explain real observations in the universe.
B. A basic scientific principal is to consider everything possible until proven otherwise.
C. Since light energy exists in the universe, dark energy must also exist.
D. Light energy from distant starts is very faint because it is absorbed by dark energy.

A

A. It serves as a working hypothesis to explain real observations in the universe.

Rationale: Often scientist will make such a working hypothesis and assume as entity that fits the observed data. This strategy allows for experimental testing.

39
Q

Which of the following are involved with respiration?

A. Intercostals
B. Pectorals
C. Vertebral
D. Deltoids

A

A. Intercostals

Rationale: The intercostals are rib muscles that expand and contract the rib cage during respiration.

40
Q

On an imaginary planet called Alpha Vega, purple eyes (F) are dominant over pink eyes (f). Which of the following combinations will produce only offspring with pink eyes?

A. FF x ff
B. Ff x Ff
C. FF x ff
D. ff x ff

A

D. ff x ff

Rationale: Since there is no F, all the offspring will have pink eyes.

41
Q

Anxiety about an upcoming final exam causes a student to experience an increase in blood pressure, dilation of a pupils, and a dry mouth. Which of the following nervous system responses is responsible for these symptoms?

A. Voluntary
B. Sympathetic
C. Limbic
D. Congnitive

A

B. Sympathetic

Rationale: Sympathetic responses are involuntary physiological response, often provoked by stress.

42
Q

Which of the following halogens reacts most readily with the metal sodium?

A. Iodine
B. Bromine
C. Chlorine
D. Astatine

A

D. Astatine

43
Q

The specific stage of meiosis during which a cell’s chromosome number is reduced by half is:

A. prophase I.
B. anaphase I
C. prophase II
D. anaphase II

A

B. anaphase I

Rationale: During prophase II, chromosomes condense into tightly wound structures; therefore, during anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes separate and thus the number of chromosomes (ploidy) is reduced by half.

44
Q

When an ezyme is degraded into its monomeric structural units, the monomers will be

A. monosaccharides
B. fatty acids
C. nucleotides
D. amino acids

A

D. amino acids

Rationale: Amino acids are constituents of proteins, and enzymes are proteins

45
Q

A patient who has a mutation that causes type 1 diabetes mellitus is trying a therapy that will use his own stem cells to restore his insulin production. Before his stem cells can be used for therapy, which of the following should be done?

A. The cells should be treated with UV radiation.
B. The damaged gene should be repaired before therapy.
C. He should be counseled about passing on genetically altered cells to offspring.
D. He should be tested to ensure that his body will not reject the stem cells.

A

B. The damaged gene should be repaired before therapy.

Rationale: The client’s insulin genes are damaged and a new insulin gene should be placed into the cells with the aim of integrating the gene into the DNA without causing damage to other genes.

46
Q

Which of the following is a chemical property, as opposed to a physical property, of water?

A. Ice is less dense than, and floats on, liquid water.
B. Water can be decomposed into hydrogen and oxygen gas.
C. Water has a high surface tension due to hydrogen bonding.
D. Bonds between water molecules can be broken by heating.

A

B. Water can be decomposed into hydrogen and oxygen gas.

Rationale: Making and breaking of bonds between atoms in a molecule indicate a chemical reaction.