ATI Pharmacology Practice A Flashcards
A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client who has gout. The nurse discovers that an error was made during the previous shift and the client received atenolol instead of allopurinol. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- Obtain the client’s blood pressure
- Contact the client’s provider.
- Inform the charge nurse.
- Complete an incident report.
Obtain the client’s blood pressure
Atenolol
Allopurinol
A nurse is teaching a client about cyclobenzaprine. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective?
- “I will have increased saliva production.”
- “I will continue taking the medication until the rash disappears.”
- “I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it.”
- “I will report any urinary incontinence.”
“I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it”
The client should taper off cyclobenzaprine before discontinuing it to prevent abstinence syndrome or rebound insomnia.
cyclobenzaprine
- Sip on water to prevent dry mouth
- Treatment of muscle spams
- Taper to prevent abstinence syndrome or rebound insomnia
- Client should report any urinary RETENTION due to anticholinergic effects
Cefazolin IV
Anticholinergic vs Cholinergic
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to begin taking oxybutynin for urinary incontinence. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? (select all hit apply.)
- Dry mouth
- Tinnitus
- Blurred vision
- Bradycardia
- Dry Eyes
Dry mouth - Anticholinergic
Blurred vision - Due to increase IOP
Dry Eyes - Anticholinergic
Dry mouth is correct. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause dry mouth.
Tinnitus is incorrect. Oxybutynin can cause several sensory adverse effects including increased intraocular pressure. The nurse should instruct the client to report eye pain, seeing colored halos around lights, and a decreased ability to perceive light changes. However, tinnitus is not an adverse effect associated with oxybutynin administration.
Blurred vision is correct. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause blurred vision due to an increase in intraocular pressure.
Bradycardia is incorrect. Oxybutynin can cause several cardiovascular adverse effects such as a prolongation of the QT interval, palpitations, hypertension, and tachycardia.
Dry eyes is correct. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause dry eyes and mydriasis, or pupil dilation.
A nurse is preparing to administer PO sodium polystyrene sulfonate to a client client who has hyperkalemia. Which of the following action should the nurse plan to take?
- Hold the client’s other oral medications for 8 hr post administration.
- Inform the client that this medication can turn stool a light tan color.
- Keep the client’s solution in the refrigerator for up to 72 hours.
- Monitor the client for constipation
Monitor the client for constipation
The nurse should monitor the client for the adverse effect of constipation and report it to the provider because this can lead to fecal impaction.
A nurse is preparing to administer PO sodium polystyrene sulfonate to a client client who has hyperkalemia. Which of the following action should the nurse plan to take?
- Hold the client’s other oral medications for 8 hr post administration.
- Inform the client that this medication can turn stool a light tan color.
- Keep the client’s solution in the refrigerator for up to 72 hours.
- Monitor the client for constipation
Monitor the client for constipation
The nurse should monitor the client for the adverse effect of constipation and report it to the provider because this can lead to fecal impaction.
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2-in) radius of the umbilicus
- Aspirate for blood return before injecting
- Rub vigorously after the injection to promote absorption.
- Place a pressure dressing on the injection site to prevent bleeding.
Administer the medication outside the 5cm (2in) radius of the umbilicus.
The nurse should administer the heparin by subcutaneous injection to the abdomen in an area that is above the iliac crest and at least 5 cm (2 in) away from the umbili
A nurse is teaching a client who is to begin taking tamoxifen for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
- Hot flashes
- Urinary Retention
- Constipation
- Bradycardia
Hot flashes
The estrogen receptor blocking action of tamoxifen commonly results in the adverse effect of hot flashes.
Tamoxifen
A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia graves and is taking neostigmine. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect?
- Tachycardia
- Oliguria
- Xerostomia
- Miosis
Miosis
Miosis, which is pupillary constriction, is a common adverse effect of neostigmine due to the excessive muscarinic stimulation that causes difficulty with visual accommodation
Causes: Bradycardia, urinary urgency, Increased salvation
A nurse on the acute care unit is caring for a client who is receiving gentamicin IV. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider as an adverse effect of the medication?
- Constipation
- Tinnitus
- Hypoglycemia
- Joint pain
Tinnitus
Aminoglycosides = ototoxic manifest as tinnitus & deafness.
Gentamicin IV
Medication Reconciliation
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. For which of the following client outcomes should the nurse administer chlordiazepoxide?
- Minimize diaphoresis
- Maintain abstinence
- Lessen craving
- Prevent delirium tremens
Prevent delirium tremens
The client should take chlordiazepoxide to prevent delirium tremens during acute alcohol withdrawal.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. For which of the following client outcomes should the nurse administer chlordiazepoxide?
- Minimize diaphoresis
- Maintain abstinence
- Lessen craving
- Prevent delirium tremens
Prevent delirium tremens
The client should take chlordiazepoxide to prevent delirium tremens during acute alcohol withdrawal.
chlordiazepoxide
Metoclopramide
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has myasthenia gravis and is in a cholinergic crisis. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- Potassium Iodide
- Glucagon
- Atropine
- Protamine
Atropine
A cholinergic crisis is caused by an excess amount of cholinesterase inhibitor, such as neostigmine. The nurse should plan to administer atropine, an anticholinergic agent, to reverse cholinergic toxicity.
Atropine
Protamine
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following finds should the nurse document to indicate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- Increased neutrophil count
- Increased RBC count
- Decreased prothrombin time
- Decreased triglycerides
Increased neutrophil count
Filgrastim stimulates the bone marrow to produce neutrophils. For clients receiving chemotherapy, the risk of infection is minimized.
risedronate
Litihium
Lithium and Ibuprofen = NO NO NO NO
A nurse is planning care for a client who is prescribed metoclopramide following bowel surgery. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- Muscle weakness
- Sedation
- Tinnitus
- Peripheral Edema
Metoclopramide has multiple CNS adverse effects, including dizziness, fatigue, and sedation.
Metoclopramide
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking acetazolamide for chronic open-angle glaucoma. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report?
- Tingling of fingers
- Constipation
- Weight Gain
- Oliguria
Tingling of fingers
The nurse should instruct the client to report the adverse effect of paresthesia, a tingling sensation in the extremities, when taking acetazolamide.
Acetazolamide
Flumazenil
Flumazenil = Antidote for diazepam
Donepezil
A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client who has a new prescription for simvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include int he teaching plan? (select all that apply)
- Report muscle pain to the provider
- Avoid taking the medication w/grapefruit juice
- Expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong
- Take the medication in the early morning
- Expect a flushing of the skin as a reaction to the medication.
- Report muscle pain to the provider
- Avoid taking the medication w/grapefruit juice
- Expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking propylthiouracil for the treatment of Graves; disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication has been effective?
- Decrease in WBC count
- Decrease in amount of time sleeping
- Increase in appetite
- Increase in ability to focus
Increase in ability to focus
A client who has Graves’ disease can experience psychological manifestations such as difficulty focusing, restlessness, and manic-type behaviors. Propylthiouracil is a thyroid hormone antagonist that decreases the circulating T4 hormone, reducing the manifestations of hyperthyroidism. An increased ability to focus indicates that the medication has been effective.
Propylthiouracil -** Important**
Capnography
Methylprednisolone
Bupropion
Atypical Anti-depressant
- Insomnia, agitation, tremors, mania and insomnia
Albuterol first before beclomethasone
Acetaminophen toxicity antidote = Acetylcysteine
A nurse is reviewing the ECG of a client who is receiving IV furosemide for heart failure. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication of hypokalemia?
- Tall, tented T-waves
- Presence of U-waves
- Widened QRS complex
- ST elevation
Answer: #2
- Tall, tented T-waves
Rationale: Indicates hyperkalemia
- Presence of U-waves
- Widened QRS complex
Rationale: Indicates hyperkalemia
- ST elevation
Rationale: Indication of ischemia
Presence of U-waves = Hypokalemia adverse effect of furosemide
Ciprofloxacin
- Tendonitis contraindication for risk of tendon rupture
- Quinolone Antibiotic
- Pt. w/sulfa allergy can take this medication
Fluoxetine
Sexual Dysfunction
Muscle twitching
MannitolImportant*
Osmotic Diuretic
