ATI Pharmacology Practice A Flashcards
A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client who has gout. The nurse discovers that an error was made during the previous shift and the client received atenolol instead of allopurinol. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- Obtain the client’s blood pressure
- Contact the client’s provider.
- Inform the charge nurse.
- Complete an incident report.
Obtain the client’s blood pressure
Atenolol
Allopurinol
A nurse is teaching a client about cyclobenzaprine. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective?
- “I will have increased saliva production.”
- “I will continue taking the medication until the rash disappears.”
- “I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it.”
- “I will report any urinary incontinence.”
“I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it”
The client should taper off cyclobenzaprine before discontinuing it to prevent abstinence syndrome or rebound insomnia.
cyclobenzaprine
- Sip on water to prevent dry mouth
- Treatment of muscle spams
- Taper to prevent abstinence syndrome or rebound insomnia
- Client should report any urinary RETENTION due to anticholinergic effects
Cefazolin IV
Anticholinergic vs Cholinergic
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to begin taking oxybutynin for urinary incontinence. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? (select all hit apply.)
- Dry mouth
- Tinnitus
- Blurred vision
- Bradycardia
- Dry Eyes
Dry mouth - Anticholinergic
Blurred vision - Due to increase IOP
Dry Eyes - Anticholinergic
Dry mouth is correct. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause dry mouth.
Tinnitus is incorrect. Oxybutynin can cause several sensory adverse effects including increased intraocular pressure. The nurse should instruct the client to report eye pain, seeing colored halos around lights, and a decreased ability to perceive light changes. However, tinnitus is not an adverse effect associated with oxybutynin administration.
Blurred vision is correct. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause blurred vision due to an increase in intraocular pressure.
Bradycardia is incorrect. Oxybutynin can cause several cardiovascular adverse effects such as a prolongation of the QT interval, palpitations, hypertension, and tachycardia.
Dry eyes is correct. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause dry eyes and mydriasis, or pupil dilation.
A nurse is preparing to administer PO sodium polystyrene sulfonate to a client client who has hyperkalemia. Which of the following action should the nurse plan to take?
- Hold the client’s other oral medications for 8 hr post administration.
- Inform the client that this medication can turn stool a light tan color.
- Keep the client’s solution in the refrigerator for up to 72 hours.
- Monitor the client for constipation
Monitor the client for constipation
The nurse should monitor the client for the adverse effect of constipation and report it to the provider because this can lead to fecal impaction.
A nurse is preparing to administer PO sodium polystyrene sulfonate to a client client who has hyperkalemia. Which of the following action should the nurse plan to take?
- Hold the client’s other oral medications for 8 hr post administration.
- Inform the client that this medication can turn stool a light tan color.
- Keep the client’s solution in the refrigerator for up to 72 hours.
- Monitor the client for constipation
Monitor the client for constipation
The nurse should monitor the client for the adverse effect of constipation and report it to the provider because this can lead to fecal impaction.
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2-in) radius of the umbilicus
- Aspirate for blood return before injecting
- Rub vigorously after the injection to promote absorption.
- Place a pressure dressing on the injection site to prevent bleeding.
Administer the medication outside the 5cm (2in) radius of the umbilicus.
The nurse should administer the heparin by subcutaneous injection to the abdomen in an area that is above the iliac crest and at least 5 cm (2 in) away from the umbili
A nurse is teaching a client who is to begin taking tamoxifen for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
- Hot flashes
- Urinary Retention
- Constipation
- Bradycardia
Hot flashes
The estrogen receptor blocking action of tamoxifen commonly results in the adverse effect of hot flashes.
Tamoxifen
A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia graves and is taking neostigmine. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect?
- Tachycardia
- Oliguria
- Xerostomia
- Miosis
Miosis
Miosis, which is pupillary constriction, is a common adverse effect of neostigmine due to the excessive muscarinic stimulation that causes difficulty with visual accommodation
Causes: Bradycardia, urinary urgency, Increased salvation
A nurse on the acute care unit is caring for a client who is receiving gentamicin IV. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider as an adverse effect of the medication?
- Constipation
- Tinnitus
- Hypoglycemia
- Joint pain
Tinnitus
Aminoglycosides = ototoxic manifest as tinnitus & deafness.
Gentamicin IV
Medication Reconciliation
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. For which of the following client outcomes should the nurse administer chlordiazepoxide?
- Minimize diaphoresis
- Maintain abstinence
- Lessen craving
- Prevent delirium tremens
Prevent delirium tremens
The client should take chlordiazepoxide to prevent delirium tremens during acute alcohol withdrawal.
