AT Flashcards

0
Q

What is the max range for the M136?

A

2100m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is the Max effective range for the M136 AT-4?

A

300m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the M136 AT-4

A

A lightweight, self-contained, anti-armor weapon consisting of a free-flight, fin-stabilized, rocket-type cartridge packed in an expendable, one-piece, fiberglass-wrapped tube.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

From what shoulder exclusively can the M136 AT-4 be fired from?

A

Right shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the the minimum range for the AT-4 in combat?

A

10m = 11yd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the minimum range of the AT-4 in training?

A

30m = 33yd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the arming range for the AT-4?

A

10m = 11yd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the minimum required dimensions for a room to fire an M136 AT-4 out of it?

A

17 x 24 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the dimensions for backblast for the M136?

A

100m x 90 degree arc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the minimum required dimensions for a room to fire the AT-4 CS ASM-2 out of it?

A

3 x 3m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the dimensions for the AT-4 CS ASM-2 backblast?

A

20m x 50 degree arc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the max effective range for the AT-4 CS ASM-2?

A

200 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does HE stand for?

A

High Explosive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does FAE stand for?

A

Fuel Air Explosive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does HEAT stand for?

A

High Explosive Anti-Tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does HESH stand for?

A

High Explosive Smash Head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does HEDP stand for?

A

High Explosive Dual Purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are key characteristics of HE rounds?

A

Mainly anti-personnel or for engaging soft skinned vehicles.
Lack capability to penetrate modern armor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the main characteristics of FAE rounds?

A

Designed to destroy light vehicles and combat field fortifications.
The explosive warhead is composed of a highly volatile fuel that will bond with oxygen particles in the air, saturating a small space.
Requires atmospheric Oxygen.
VERY LITTLE FRAGMENTATION.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the main characteristics of HEAT rounds?

A

True anti armor threat.
Designed under MONROE Effect of directional charges.
Highly lethal JET torch that penetrates steel (temp well over 2750 F, 1500 C).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the main characteristics of HESH rounds?

A

Functions under sledge hammer principle.
Steel nose impact debilitates and crushes armor, causing chipping from inside.
NOT Anti-armor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the main characteristics of Tandem rounds?

A

Counter ERA protection.
The precursor charge penetrates or detonates the ERA block, then the primary shaped charge will follow through and penetrate the base armor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does ERA stand for?

A

Explosion Reactive Armor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the main characteristics of Thermobaric rounds.

A

Updated form of FAE round.
Differs from the FAE in that it consists of a fuel rich in mono propellant and energetic particles (ie, powdered fluorinated aluminum).
Explosion results in intense fireball with high blast over pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 3 types of fuzes?

A

Point detonating
Base detonating
Point initiating base detonating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where is the fuze located in point detonating round?

A

In the nose.

Can be an impact type or time fuse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where is the fuse located in a base detonating round?

A

In the base of the round explosive composition.

Firing pin strikes hammer and then explosive train begins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does the fuze operate in a point initiating base detonating round?

A

Upon impact, one piezo crystal inside the nose is crushed, generating about 12-50 V that excites the solenoid, causing it to release the firing pin to initiate the explosive train.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does MACLOS stand for?

A
MAnual
Command
Line
Of
Sight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does SACLOS stand for?

A
Semi
Automatic 
Command
Line 
Of
Sight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does ACLOS stand for?

A
Automatic 
Command 
Line 
Of 
Sight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the max effective range for the FGM-148 Javelin?

A

65-2500 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the weight of the CLU?

A

14.99 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of battery does the CLU use?

A

BA-5590

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long is the life duration on the BCU?

A

4 minutes once missile charged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What type of round does the Javelin fire?

A

Tandem.

Defeats all know armor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the dimensions for the back blast area for the Javelin?

A

25m x 60 degree arc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the weight of the launch tube assembly with missile and BCU?

A

35.14 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the flight time for the FGM-148 Javelin missile?

A

14.5 sec at 2500m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

On the left grip of the CLU, what does the middle button do?

A

Adjusts focus of picture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CLU left grip left button function?

A

Activates ezoom

In conjunction with far right button on right grip = menu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CLU left grip, right button function?

A

Toggle WFOV/NFOV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CLU left trigger function?

A

Wakes missile
Starts BCU 4 min
Engages Seeker Mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

CLU right grip left button function?

A

CLU mode = adjust picture brightness/contrast

Seeker mode = adjust tracker gates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

CLU right grip, right button function?

A

CLU mode = change polarity

Seeker mode = change attack mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CLU right trigger function?

A

Fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

During a hang fire, how long are you supposed to keep the round pointed at the target?

A

Training = 5 min
Combat = 60 sec
Afterword OFF OFF OFF ON ON ON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the 4 major limitations of AT employment?

A

Slow Rate of Fire
Security
Launch signature
Noise signature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the three types of kills?

A

Catastrophic
Mobility
Firepower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the 4 types of target engagement in AT employment?

A

Single firing
Sequence firing
Pair firing
Volley firing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Single firing

A

1 shooter, 1 shot, 1 target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Sequence firing

A

1 shooter, multiple shots, 1 td at a time, 1 target.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pair firing

A

2 or more shooters, multiple shots, 1 rd at a time, 1 target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Volley firing

A

Multiple shooters, firing simultaneously, 1 target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How many times is a soldier allowed to fire the AT-4 in a 24 hour period?

A

3 times standing
2 times sitting
1 time in prone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the 2 types of misfires?

A

Misfire - mechanical fault

Hang fire- functions in intended way, but in delayed manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What power is the day magnification on the CLU?

A

4x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the power on the night sight WFOV on the CLU?

A

4.2x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the power of magnification in night sight NFOV?

A

9.2x old

12x new

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What power of magnification is the ezoom in night sight mode?

A

2x making it
18x old
24x new

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the max effective range, or the max sight range for the SPG-9?

A

Direct fire: 1300 m

Indirect fire: 4500 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What type of round does the SPG-9 Fire?

A

73 mm HEAT or HE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the minimum boresight range for the SPG-9?

A

800 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What mounted optic can be used with the SPG-9?

A

PGO-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How is the temperature setting broken down on the SPG-9?

A

-40 to 14 = -
14 to 50 = 0
50 to 120 = +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

At what minimum range will SPG-9 rounds self-destruct?

A

1300 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What cartridge type does the MK 19 use?

A

40 x 53mm High Velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the source of feed on the MK 19?

A

32 & 48 rd FED MLB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Locking system for MK 19?

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Operating system for the MK 19?

A

Blowback, Auto Only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Max effective range for the MK 19?

A

1500 m point

2212 m area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Applied safety on MK 19?

A

Blocks seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

PPF on the MK 19?

A

Bolt sear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Backblast dimensions on the SPG-9?

A

30 m x 90 degree arc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Upon misfire on SPG-9 how long must you wait to open breech?

A

1 minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How many degrees does AG turn the round upon a misfire after waiting 1 min?

A

45 or 90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the weight of the entire javelin system?

A

49.5 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Type of rd for the MK 47?

A

40x53 mm high velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Type of feed for MK 47?

A

32 and 48 rd FED MLB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Locking system on MK 47?

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Operating system on MK 47?

A

Blowback, recoil operated auto only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Practical range for MK 47?

A

1700 m point

2212 m area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Applied safety for MK 47?

A

Blocks trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

PPF on MK 47?

A

Manual sear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Weight of MK 47 gun?

A

39 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Weight of entire MK 47 system?

A

89 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Minimum safe distance of MK 47?

A

Training 310 m

Combat 75 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Max range of MK 47?

A

2300 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Minimum arming range of MK 47?

A

18 - 30 m

89
Q

Laser range on MK 47?

A

40 - 3800 +/- 2 m accuracy

90
Q

Boresight Range that will give point of aim/point of impact?

A

1200-1500 m

91
Q

Boresight range that gives an 11 inch difference between aim point and impact point?

A

40 m

92
Q

Weight of M3 unloaded?

A

20 lb

93
Q

Sight magnification on M3?

A

3x

94
Q

Backblast on M3?

A

100 m x 90 degree arc

95
Q

What are the 3 parts of the Venturi locking lever on M3?

A

Stopping, locking, safety

Projections

96
Q

Operating system on M3?

A

Laterally percussion fired

97
Q

PPF on M3?

A

Safety projection rod

98
Q

Function on safety projection rod on M3?

A

Prevents full travel of the firing rod

99
Q

Applied safety on M3?

A

Blocks sear

100
Q

How long does gunner wait to have AG remove misfired round?

A

2 minutes

101
Q

What are round types for M3?

A
ADM 401 (Area Denial Munition)
HE 441D (High Explosive)
HEAT 551C (High Explosive Anti Tank)
HEAT 751 - Tandem rd 
HEDP 502 (High Explosive Dual       Purpose)
ILLUM 545C
SMOKE 469C
Sub-calibre Adapter 553B
TP 551 (Training Projectile)
TPT 141 (Training Proj Tracer)
ASM 509 (Anti Structure Munition)
MT 756 (Multi Target)
102
Q

What is the max effective range of the ADM 401?

A

100m

103
Q

Max range of ADM 401?

A

200m

104
Q

24 hour limit for ADM 401?

A

Standing 6 rd
Kneeling 3 rd
Sitting 3 rd
Prone 4 rd

105
Q

Weight of ADM 401?

A

2.7 kg

106
Q

Purpose of ADM 401 rd?

A

Close in protection in tight conditions of jungle or urban warfare

107
Q

Weight of HE 441D?

A

3.2 kg

108
Q

Arming range of HE 441D?

A

40-70 m

109
Q

Max effective range of HE 441D?

A

1250 m air burst

1300 m impact

110
Q

Purpose of 441D?

A

Troops in open, behind cover or slit trenches and soft skinned vics

111
Q

How many pellets in HE 441D?

A

800

112
Q

24 hour limit on HE?

A

Standing 4
Kneeling 6
Sitting 2
Prone 2

113
Q

What is weight of HEAT 551C?

A

3.5 kg

114
Q

Arming range of HEAT 551C?

A

24-40 m

115
Q

Max effective range of HEAT 551C?

A

700m

116
Q

Purpose of HEAT 551C?

A

Anti tank

117
Q

Max effective range for HEAT 751?

A

600 m

118
Q

Weight of HEAT 751 rd?

A

3.8 kg

119
Q

What is purpose of HEAT 751?

A

ANTI TANK.

120
Q

What type of warhead on HEAT 751?

A

Tandem warhead (spit and fist)

121
Q

Weight of HEDP 502?

A

3.3 kg

122
Q

Arming range of HEDP 502?

A

15-40m

123
Q

Max effective range of HEDP 502?

A

300 m moving target

500 m bunkers, buildings

124
Q

The HEDP 502 rd is dual fused with what?

A

Both impact and delay functions

125
Q

Purpose of HEDP 502?

A

Light armor, bunkers/buildings, field fortifications, ground personnel

126
Q

24 hr limit for HEAT 751?

A

Standing 6
Kneeling 6
Sitting 2
Prone 0

127
Q

24 hr limit on HEDP 502?

A

Standing 6
Kneeling 6
Sitting 3
Prone 2

128
Q

What round has a dual fuse for impact and delay functions?

A

HEDP 502

129
Q

Weight of ILLUM 545C?

A

3.1 kg

130
Q

Practical min range of ILLUM 545C?

A

300m

131
Q

Max effective range of ILLUM 545C?

A

2100m

132
Q

Burn time of ILLUM 545C?

A

30 sec

133
Q

Weight of SMOKE 469C?

A

3.1 kg

134
Q

24 hr limit for ILLUM 545C?

A

Standing 4
Kneeling 1
Sitting 1
Prone 0

135
Q

Max effective range of SMOKE 469C?

A

1300m

136
Q

24 hr limit on SMOKE 469C?

A

Standing 4
Kneeling 6
Sitting 4
Prone 2

137
Q

What scale on elevation scale bar used for SMOKE 469C?

A

HE, green scale

138
Q

What are the three training rd?

A

Technical Data 553B sub-calibre Adapter
TP 551
TPT 141

139
Q

Weight of TD 553B SCA?

A

3.7 kg

140
Q

Calibre of TD 553B SCA?

A

7.62 mm

141
Q

Max effective range of TD 553B SCA?

A

500m

142
Q

Weight of TP 552?

A

3.2 kg

143
Q

Max effective range of TP 552?

A

700m

144
Q

Distinguishing difference of TP 552 to other training rounds?

A

Has a rocket motor

145
Q

Weight of TPT 141?

A

2.5

146
Q

Max effective range of TPT 141?

A

300m

147
Q

24 hr limit for training rds?

A

Standing 6
Kneeling 6
Sitting 2
Prone 0

148
Q

What two rounds are SOF specific?

A

ASM 509 & MT 756

149
Q

Carry weight of ASM 509?

A

10.1 lbs

150
Q

Max effective range for ASM 509?

A

400 m

151
Q

Purpose of ASM 509?

A

Anti structure

152
Q

Arming distance for ASM 509?

A

15-50 m

153
Q

Weight of MT 756?

A

4.4 kg

154
Q

Carrying load of MT 756?

A

12.7 kg

155
Q

Max range of MT 756?

A

600m

156
Q

What kind of round is the MT 756?

A

TBX

157
Q

On fire control device, what rds use first setting?

A

HEAT 551/551C RS
TP 552
TPT 141

158
Q

What rounds use second setting?

A

HE 441B/441D RS

SMOKE 469B/C

159
Q

What rds use third setting?

A

HEDP 502 RS

160
Q

What rds use fourth setting?

A

509B ASM

MT 756

161
Q

What temps blue index used for?

A

Below 32* F

162
Q

What temp is the white index used for?

A

From 32 to 86 degrees F

163
Q

What temp is the red index used for?

A

Above 86 degrees F

164
Q

How is the M3 boresighted?

A

Set drum to 0, aim at fixed object at range of 200 m or greater.

165
Q

Fm that covers US light anti-armor weapons?

A

FM 3-23.25

166
Q

Max effective range of M72A2 LAW?

A

200 m stationary

165 m moving

167
Q

Max range of M72A2 LAW

A

1000 m

168
Q

Backblast of LAW?

A

40 m x 90* arc

169
Q

How was the LAW issued by the Army?

A

As a round of ammunition

170
Q

Fire mechanism of the LAW?

A

Percussion

171
Q

Arming range of LAW?

A

10 m

172
Q

What’s the chance of hitting target with the LAW outside the Max effective range?

A

Less than 50%

173
Q

Weight of LAW?

A

5.1 lb

174
Q

Caliber of LAW?

A

66 mm HEAT

175
Q

Penetration for LAW?

A

Armor 12+ in
Earth 6ft
Reinforced concrete 2 ft

176
Q

Weight of LAW HEAT rocket?

A

2.2 lbs

177
Q

How is the rocket ignited?

A

Percussion

178
Q

How does the older M72 differ from newer ones?

A

New ones have rocket motor

179
Q

What is Max effective range of the M72E10 ASM LAW?

A

150 m

180
Q

Carry weight of M72E10 ASM LAW?

A

9.5 lbs

181
Q

What kind of round does the SMAW D use?

A

HEDP

182
Q

What is diameter of SMAW D rocket, M141 BDM?

A

83 mm

183
Q

Max effective range of SMAW-D?

A

500 m

184
Q

Minimum arming range of SMAW D rocket?

A

15 m

185
Q

Backblast of SMAW D?

A

100 m x 90* arc

186
Q

SMAW D battle sight?

A

150m

187
Q

SMAW D weight?

A

15.7 lbs

188
Q

How is the SMAW D issued?

A

As a complete round of ammunition.

189
Q

With what hand SMAW D fired?

A

Right hand

190
Q

Max effective range of RPG 7 with PGO-7V?

A

300 m moving

500 m stationary

191
Q

Locking system of RPG 7?

A

Friction

192
Q

Boresight range of RPG 7?

A

HE 300 m

HEAT 900 m

193
Q

How far from obstruction/wall must gunner be when firing RPG 7?

A

2 m

194
Q

When do RPG 7 rounds detonate after firing?

A

4.5 s

195
Q

Applied safety of RPG 7?

A

Blocks trigger

196
Q

Caliber of RPG 7?

A

40 x 85 mm

197
Q

During misfire of RPG 7 how long does gunner wait before ensuring round seated, rechecking backblast area, recocking and attempting to fire?

A

30 s

198
Q

Backblast for RPG?

A

25 m x 45* arc

199
Q

On M3 what iridescent line is used for HEAT 551/751, TP 552, TPT 141?

A

1st

200
Q

Iridescent line for HE 441B/441D, ADM 401 or SMOKE 469B/C?

A

2nd

201
Q

Iridescent line for HEDP 502 RS?

A

3rd

202
Q

Iridescent line for ASM 509B and MT 756?

A

4th

203
Q

Cartridge type of M320, M203, M-79, M32?

A

40x46 mm

204
Q

Type of feed on M320, M203 and M79?

A

Single shot, breech loaded

205
Q

Locking system on M203, M79?

A

Breech lock

206
Q

Locking system on M320?

A

Barrel release lever

207
Q

System of operation on M320, M79?

A

Break open, single shot

208
Q

System of operation on M203?

A

Manual pump

209
Q

Practical range of M320, M203, M79, M32?

A

150 pt

350 area

210
Q

Applied safety on M320, M203 and M79?

A

Blocks trigger

211
Q

PPF on M320?

A

Barrel release lever

212
Q

PPF on M203?

A

Barrel extension and cocking lever

213
Q

PPF on M79?

A

Breech lock

214
Q

Cartridge type for GP-25/30?

A

30 x 28 mm

215
Q

Type of feed for GP 30?

A

Single shot

216
Q

Locking system on GP 30?

A

None

217
Q

System of operation on GP 30?

A

Manual pump

218
Q

Practical range of GP 30?

A

50 m pt

400 m area

219
Q

Type of feed on M32?

A

Six shot, breech loaded

220
Q

Operating system on M32?

A

Gas actuated, rotating cylinder

221
Q

Applied safety on M32?

A

Blocks trigger