Astronomy flashcards 2

1
Q

which of the following has your “address” in the correct order?

A

you, earth, solar system, Milky Way, local group, local supercluster

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2
Q

roughly how many stars are in the Milky Way galaxy?

A

100 billion

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3
Q

which scientist played a major role in overturning the ancient idea of an earth-centered universe, and about when?

A

Copernicus, Kepler, and Galileo; about 400 years ago.

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4
Q

what is an astronomical unit?

A

the average distance from Earth to the sun.

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5
Q

which of the following statements about the celestial sphere is not true?

A

The “celestial sphere” is just another name for our universe.

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6
Q

which of the following about the celestial equator is true at all latitudes?

A

It represents an extension of Earth’s equator onto the celestial sphere.

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6
Q

what is the ecliptic?

A

the sun’s apparent path along the celestial sphere.

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6
Q

which of the following correctly describes the meridian in your sky?

A

a half-circle extending from your horizon due north, through your zenith, to your horizon due south.

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7
Q

how many arcseconds are in 1°?

A

3,600

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7
Q

what is a circumpolar star?

A

A star that always remain above your horizon

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8
Q

which of the following is not a phase of the moon?

A

half moon

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9
Q

If the moon is setting at 6 A.M., the phase of the moon must be

A

full.

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10
Q

which of the following never goes in retrograde motion?

A

The sun

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11
Q

How did Eratosthenes estimate the size of Earth in 240 B.C.?

A

by comparing the maximum altitude of the sun in two cities at different latitudes.

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12
Q

why did Ptolemy have the planets orbiting Earth on “circles upon circles” in his model of the universe?

A

to explain the fact that planets sometimes appear to move westwards, rather than eastward, relative to the stars in our sky.

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13
Q

where was the sun in Ptolemy’s model of the universe?

A

between the orbits of venus and mars.

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14
Q

the controversial book of this famous person, published in 1543 (the year of his death), suggested that Earth and other planets orbit the sun.

A

Copernicus

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14
Q

He discovered that the orbits of planets are ellipses

A

Kepler

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15
Q

He discovered that Jupiter has moons.

A

Galileo

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16
Q

From Kepler’s third law, an asteroid with an orbital period of 8 years lies at an average distance from the sun equal to

A

8 astronomical units

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16
Q

what is meant by a hypothesis?

A

an explanation for a phenomenon that makes a prediction.

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17
Q

if your mass is 60kg on Earth, what would your mass be on the Moon?

A

60 kg

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17
Q

what would happen if the space shuttle were launched with a speed greater than Earth’s escape velocity?

A

it would travel away from Earth into the solar system.

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18
Q

the movement of a pool ball, rolling on a table at a constant velocity, is an example of

A

Newton’s first law of motion.

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18
Q

The force of gravity is an inverse square law. this means that if you double the distance between two large masses, the gravitational force between them

A

weakens by a factor of 4

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19
Q

According to the universal law of gravitation, if you double the masses of both attracting objects, then the gravitational force between them will

A

increase by a factor of 4

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19
Q

how are wavelengths, frequency, and energy-related to photons of light?

A

longer wavelength means lower frequency and lower energy.

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19
Q

From the lowest energy to the highest energy, which of the following correctly orders the different categories of electromagnetic radiation?

A

radio, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, x-rays, gamma rays

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20
Q

the mass of Jupiter can be calculated by

A

measuring the orbital period and distance of once Jupiter’s moons.

20
Q

if a material is highly opaque, then it

A

absorbs most light

20
Q

At which lunar phases are tides most pronounced (the highest tides)?

A

both new and full moons

21
Q

An atom is an excited state contains more of what type of energy than the same atom in the ground state?

A

electric potential energy

21
Q

the wavelength of a wave is

A

the distance between two adjacent peaks of the wave

22
Q

when an atom loses an electron, it becomes

A

ionized

23
Q

when an electron in an atom goes from a higher energy state to a lower energy state, the atom

A

emits a photon of a specific frequency

23
Q

if two objects are the same size but one object is 3 times hotter than the other object, the hotter object emits

A

81 times more energy

23
Q

the spectra of most galaxies show redshift. this means that their spectral lines

A

have wavelengths that are longer than normal

23
Q

telescopes operating at this wavelength must be cooled to observe faint astronomical objects.

A

extreme infrared

24
Q

From laboratory measurements, we know that a particular spectral line formed by hydrogen appears at a wavelength of 121.6 nanometers. the spectrum of a particular star shows the same hydrogen line appearing at a wavelength of 121.8 nm. what can we conclude?

A

the star is moving away from us.

24
Q

which of the following statements best describes the two principal advantages of a telescope over eyes?

A

telescope can collect far more light with far better angular resolution.

24
Q

Suppose the angular separation of to stars is smaller than the angular resolution of your eyes. how will the star appear to your eyes?

A

the two stars will look like a single point of light

25
Q

what two forces are balanced in what we call gravitational equilibrium?

A

outward pressure and gravity

25
Q

which of the following is not an advantage of the Hubble space telescope over ground-based telescopes?

A

it is closer to the stars.

25
Q

what is the average temperature of the surface of the sun?

A

6,000 k

26
Q

which layer of the sun do we normally see?

A

photosphere

26
Q

at the center of the sun, fusion converts hydrogen into

A

helium, energy, and neutrinos

26
Q

in what part of the electromagnetic spectrum do the biggest telescopes on earth operate?

A

radio

27
Q

the core of the sun is

A

hotter and denser than the surface

27
Q

what is granulation in the sun?

A

another name for the way sunspots look on the surface of the sun

28
Q

approximately, what basic compositions are all stars born with?

A

3 quarter hydrogen, 1 quarter helium, and no more than 2 percent heavier elements

28
Q

since all stars begin their lives with the same basic composition, what characteristic most determines how they will differ?

A

mass they are formed with.

29
Q

a star’s luminosity is the

A

the total amount of light that the star radiates over its entire lifetime.

30
Q

if the distance between us and a star is doubled, with everything else remaining the same, the luminosity

A

remains the same, but the apparent brightness is decreased by a factor of 4

31
Q

suppose that you measure the parallax angle for a particular star to be 0.5 arcseconds. the distance to this star is

A

2 parsecs

32
Q

the spectral sequence sorts stars according to

A

surface temperature

33
Q

which of the following terms is given to a pair of stats that appear to change position in the sky, indicating that they are orbiting one another?

A

visual binary

34
Q

on a Hertzsprung-Russel diagram, where would we find stars that are cool and dim?

A

lower right

34
Q

on a Hertzsprung-Russel diagram, where on the main sequence would we find stars that have the greatest mass?

A

upper left

35
Q

the spectral sequence in order of decreasing temperature is

A

OBAFGKM

36
Q

which of the following best describes the axes of a Hertzsprung-Russel diagram?

A

surface temperature on the horizontal axis and luminosity on the vertical axis.

37
Q

the typical size of an interstellar dust grain is

A

1 micrometer

38
Q

if you wanted to observe a molecular cloud, in what wavelength of light would you most likely observe?

A

infrared

39
Q

what is the likely reason that we cannot find any examples of first-generation stars?

A

The first-generation stars were all very massive and exploded as supernovas

40
Q

what happens to the surface temperature and luminosity when gravity first assembles a protostar from a collapsing could?

A

its surface temperature and luminosity increases

41
Q

what is the smallest mass a newborn star can have?

A

80 times the mass of jupiter

42
Q

what happens when a star exhausts its core hydrogen supply?

A

its core contacts, but the outer layer expands and the star becomes bigger and brighter.

43
Q

compared to the star it evolved from, a red giant is

A

cooler and brighter

44
Q

how many helium nuclei fuse together when making carbon?

A

3

45
Q

what is a planetary nebula?

A

the expanding shell of has that is no longer gravitationally held to the remnant of a low-mass star

46
Q

which of the following sequences correctly, describes the stages of life for a low-mass star?

A

protostar, main-sequence, red giant, white dwarfs