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PHAR 253 - Therapeutics (2) > Asthma / COPD / Smoking Cessation > Flashcards

Asthma / COPD / Smoking Cessation Flashcards

1
Q

What is the goal of Pulmonary function Tests

A

See how much air lungs will hold
how quick breathing is

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2
Q

What is IRV,VC, TLC,FRC, RV, ERV?

A

IRV- space to breathe in more
VC= Total air that can move in lung
TLC= Total air that can be in lung
FRC= volume of air that can still in after normal expiration
RV= air that is always in lung
ERV=max air exhaled below TV

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3
Q

What is FEV1?

A

Amount of air that can be expelled in 1 second

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4
Q

What is FVC?

A

Total volume air expired as rapid as possible

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5
Q

What is a high/normal FEV1/FVC ratio mean

A

Restrictive lung disease because hard to get air in so both values are low and may appear normal.

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6
Q

What does a low FEV1/FVC ratio mean

A

Obstructive lung disease because hard to get air out= FEV1 is low

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7
Q

What do we use spirometry tests for?

A

Diagnose lung disease
Measure extent- FEV1/FVC ratio
monitor progression
most accurate- compare to their normal

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8
Q

How do you run a spirometry test?

A

Tell patient to take deepest breath possible then exhale into sensor as hard as they can for at least 6 seconds.

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9
Q

Cons of spirometry tests.

A

Need full cooperation of patient
Do NOT use in:
people with risk of infection, high cranial and thoracic pressure= post surgery

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10
Q

What increase of FEV1 indicates bronchodilator response (asthma disease)

A

12%

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11
Q

What is a peak expiratory flow rate test do?

A

Portable meter to see forced expiration

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12
Q

What are cons of peak flow?

A

Need maximum effort for accuracy
proper technique
for self monitoring

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13
Q

What do we use Carbon Dioxide diffusing capacity for?

A

When we want to see the ability of diffusion of CO2 in alveoli

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14
Q

What is the pulse oximetry test?

A

Uses light absorptive of hemoglobin to determine oxygenation.

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15
Q

If you have issues with breathing what compensation will occur to balance pH

A

Metabolic/ kidneys will retain bicarbonate.

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16
Q

Which compensation mechanism is quicker respiratory or kidney?

A

Respiratory

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17
Q

How do you calculate Anionic Gap?

A

AG= Na- (Cl+HCO3)

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18
Q

What does it mean if you have high Anionic Gap?>11

A

Metabolic Acidosis

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19
Q

What is bronchoscopy?

A

Endoscoping the airways through mouth or nose

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20
Q

Determine Abnormality pH-7.1, PaCo2= 25, HCO3= 10

A

Due to the fact that pH is low it is acidosis, to determine if metabolic we see that HCO3 is low so it is metabolic PaCO2 is low only for compensatory

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21
Q

Determine abnormality, pH 7.32, PaCO2 51, HCO3=25 , PaO2= 70 and has cystic fibrosis.

A

Acidosis due to pH and respiratory due to compensatory HCO3 is normal because it takes days.

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22
Q

True of False: The majority of people with asthma have poor control.

A

True

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23
Q

True or false: When controlled Asthmatics have the exact same QoL and lifespan.

A

True

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24
Q

When in childhood which gender is more common with asthma and why?

A

males due to their airway being smaller

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25
Q

At what age is asthma in females more common?

A

greater than 40

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26
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

genetic predisposition for development of IgE which causes hyper-responsive airways

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27
Q

What is a long term complication of asthma if left untreated or poorly controlled?

A

remodelling which can become irreversible.

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28
Q

Which type of WBC is correlated with asthma?

A

eosinophils

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29
Q

What is the difference between Type 1 asthma and type 2?

A

Type 2- atopy= allergies and eosinophils
Type 1- obesity, smoke related

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30
Q

What FEV1/FVC will asthmatics have?

A

<75-80%

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31
Q

What two questions about difficulty of breathing should be asked in order to assess?

A

If it is occurring at night or is worse at night due to cortisol levels
if exercise makes it worse drop of FEV1 of >15%

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32
Q

True or false GERD can be correlated with Asthma

A

True

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33
Q

Which URTI are correlated with asthma?

A

Viral= RSV, influenza, rhinovirus

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34
Q

How does NSAIDS trigger asthma?

A

COX inhibition= more bronchoconstrict leukotrienes

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35
Q

What change to Expiration ratio would we see for asthmatics after bronchodilator?

A

> 12% increase (increase of 200ml)

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36
Q

What is the positive challenge test?

A

asses hyperactivity after doses of methacholine
asthmatics will respond to a greater degree

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36
Q

How often should a HCP monitor?

A

After diagnosis 3-6 months
after is 1-2 years

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37
Q

For diagnosis what is the different criteria for adult vs children

A

Adult= <0.75 and >12% increase (and 200ml)
Child= <0.8 and >12%

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38
Q

What lab tests can we do for asthmatics?

A

CBC
Eosinophil count
IgE []

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39
Q

What is the definition of asthma control? CTS

A

Daytime sx<2 days/week
Night sx<1/weak
SABA use <2 doses/week

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40
Q

Give me some example of endogenous stimuli of asthma.

A

GERD, stress, hormones, rhinitis

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41
Q

What is the mechanism of SABA?

A

peak in 5 minutes and selectively acts on B2 adrenergic receptors

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42
Q

What are the side effects of SABA? And why?

A

It can also act on B1 receptors= CVD side effects
tachycardia, tremor, insomnia, BP, BG, arrhythmias tachyphylaxis

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43
Q

What is the selectivity of salbutamol and terbutaline on B1?

A

1

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44
Q

What are are the DI of SABA?

A

Beta blockers= oppose action of SABA
diuretics that increase hypokalemia
TCA= increase s/e
QT prolongers

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45
Q

Give me the most common LABA’s

A

Salmeterol, formoterol, vilanterol and indacaterol

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46
Q

What is special about formoterol

A

quick onset, can be used as reliever

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47
Q

True or false SABA and LABAs have exact same MOA, S/E, and DI

A

True

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48
Q

What is the most effective treatment for asthma?

A

Steroids because DUHHHH ANTI INFLAMMATORY

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49
Q

What are the inhaled corticosteroids?

A

Fluticasone, budesonide, ciclesonide

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50
Q

What is special about budesonide?

A

Preffered product for pregnant women.

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51
Q

CARD JUST TO REMIND THAT IDK IF I WANT TO PUT SPECIFIC DOSING ON

A
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52
Q

What type of dose do we generally want for maintenance? DUH

A

Low dose

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53
Q

When starting out is it more effective to give moderate or low dose

A

moderate

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54
Q

Where is the line for the best benefit of fluticasone and budesonide?

A

200/d-fluticasone
400/d-budesonide

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55
Q

What is special about ciclesonide?

A

it is a prodrug and can reduce thrush s/e

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56
Q

General side effects of ICS?

A

harshness, irritation, cough, URTI, Thrush, growth retard (prob not),

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57
Q

True or false: Everyone should use a spacer

A

True- would make it more effective but usually only for kids or elderly.

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58
Q

Which corticoid is preferred for oral or IV when needed?

A

Oral= prednisone
IV= dexamethasone

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59
Q

When is oral corticoids used?

A

When severe asthma= may be long term
or acute distress= taper not needed.

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60
Q

What is the mechanism of action of LTRA?

A

stop leukotrienes from eosinophils to reduce inflammation

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61
Q

What are some side effects of LTRA’s?

A

headache, dizzy, depression, neuropsych effects

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62
Q

True or false: LTRAs are stronger than SABAs

A

FALSE
but if combo very good

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63
Q

What is our option for a LTRA

A

Montelukast

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64
Q

True or false LTRA’s are relievers

A

False they are controllers

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65
Q

What is the minimum age to get a LTRA

A

2 years old

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66
Q

What is dosing for montelukast?

A

2-5 years= 4mg QD hs
6-14 = 5mg QD hs
15+= 10 mg QD hs

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67
Q

At what age does their effect drop dramatically?

A

12 years old

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68
Q

What is LTRA’s role in care?

A

Alt to increasing ICS
no ICS wanted or used

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69
Q

Would Jeff Taylor be okay with combo medications of LABA and ICS?

A

Yes he would as it is more convenient and increases adherence

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70
Q

What is the only combo of LABA and ICS we should know

A

Symbicort (Budesonide and formoterol) as it can be used prn and daily

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71
Q

True or false theophylline is the most potent bronchodilator we have

A

False it is less effective than SABA

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72
Q

What is the use for theophylline?

A

add on BUT BAD SIDE EFFECTS= tachycardia, diarrhea, anorexia

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73
Q

What is MOA of theophylline?

A

inhibit PDE4= bronchodilator

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74
Q

What is MOA and age range for Omalizumab

A

> 6 if bad control on high ICS
Anti IgE antibody

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75
Q

When could we consider tiotropium(LAMA)?

A

add on for people >12 and severe uncontrolled asthma despite ICS/LABA

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76
Q

What is the role of macrolide in asthma?

A

can lower exacerbations in people >18 BUT bad ototoxicity and increasing resistance

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77
Q

True or false: Using SABA a lot is absolutely fine

A

Tricky question while nothing wrong medicinal wise, overuse of SABA can lower ICS usage = higher mortality, less control and more remodelling

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78
Q

True or false: using sedatives during an exacerbation is okay

A

False

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79
Q

What is the criteria to be high risk of exacerbation?

A

current smoker
> 2 inhalers a year
poor control per CTS
history

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80
Q

What is the base therapy for asthma ALWAYS?

A

SABA or bud/form PRN AND ICS

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81
Q

If we need to step up from base therapy what is our options?

A

if 1–11 years old= increase to medium dose ICS
>12 = add LABA

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82
Q

What is our option if the patient DOES NOT or CANNOT take a ICS?

A

LTRA

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83
Q

If base therapy was Symbicort PRN what is our step up?

A

Symbicort PRN and QD

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84
Q

After the first step up what is the next option if still not controlled?

A

6-11 years= add LABA OR LTRA
>12= Add LTRA and/or tiotropium

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85
Q

If high risk of exacerbation what should their base therapy be

A

Daily ICS and SABA prn

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86
Q

If in severe asthma territory what therapy is needed?

A

High dose of ICS and second controller (LAMA,LABA,LTRA) or systemic CS for 50% of the year

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87
Q

What do we do if high ICS and other controllers don’t help for severe asthma?

A

consider mabs, macrolides, anti-IL5

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87
Q

If asthma is uncontrolled what is the first thing you should do as a pharmacist?

A

Check use of inhaler
asses adherence

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88
Q

How often should pregnant asthmatic be reviewed?

A

4-6 weeks

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89
Q

When should we step down?

A

when >3 month control

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90
Q

If we step down what must we ensure with the patient?

A

See if they consent
choose a good time
have a plan inlace
HAVE ENOUGH DRUG TO GO BACK TO PREVIOUS DOSES

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91
Q

What Peak flow is considered green asthma control?

A

80-100%

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92
Q

What peak flow is considered yellow asthma control?

A

60-80%

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93
Q

What should patients do if in yellow control?

A

Increase medication to get back to green. if no improvement in 4 days go see doctor

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94
Q

What peak flow is considered red asthma control?

A

<60% USE RELIEVER AS MUCH AS NEEDED GO TO EMERGE

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95
Q

True or false: Interchanging Peak flow devices is recommended?

A

NO use one type so good accuracy and compare

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96
Q

How do we treat acute severe exacerbation

A

SABA/SAMA
CS= oral is able to breathe and eat, improve in 2 hours
O2= if <90
Mag IV=potent bronchodilator
intubate

97
Q

What does IV magnesium do

A

potent bronchodilator

98
Q

What is non drug treatment of exercise induced bronchocontriction?

A

scarf
fitness

99
Q

Management of NSAID’s induced Asthma

A

LTRA

100
Q

What do we give for pregnancy asthmatics?

A

Salbutamol or LABAs, Budesonide
LTRAs fine

101
Q

Any changes to therapy for breastfeeding asthmatic?

A

All ok but prob not theophylline at high doses

102
Q

What are the pros and Cons of MDI?

A

Pros=portable
Cons= prime, coordination, no dose counters

103
Q

What are the steps for taking an MDI?

A

Shake, remove cap, exhale, breathe in slowly and press button, hold for 10 sec, exhale.

104
Q

How long to wait before second dose?

A

30 -60 seconds

105
Q

Who would benefit from a spacer?

A

EVERYONE
but mostly for kids and elderly

106
Q

IF using a spacer and you hear a whistle what does this tell you?

A

Inhaling too fast

107
Q

What do you do if you have an infant with a MDI and spacer? When do you know they have gotten the dose?

A

6 breathes

108
Q

Common errors of MDI

A

No shake
no exhale
too fast

109
Q

True or false: An issue with DPI is that people do not coordinate well enough with inhaling and pressing the release button

A

False- breathe actuated

110
Q

What DPI is low resistance? what does this mean?

A

breezhaler= don’t need a super hard breathe

111
Q

What DPIs are medium resistance?

A

Ellipta, genuair, diskus

112
Q

What DPI’s are high resistance?

A

Turbuhaler, Handihaler

113
Q

Why do DPI’s usually not work for young people <5?

A

Need a certain minimum inspiratory flow

114
Q

Pros of Turbuhaler

A

empty indicator, no taste

115
Q

Steps of using turbuhaler

A

Twist colour grip as far as it will go then twist back until click, exhale, forcefully breathe, hold for 10 and exhale

116
Q

Pros of Diskus

A

delivery is constant across air flow rates
counter
breathe activated

117
Q

How to use a diskus

A

Hold in palm with thumbs on grip and push till it clicks, slide lever as far as it will go, exhale, breathe, hold, exhale

118
Q

Uniqueness of Handihaler’s?

A

multi breathe for one capsule, capsule!!!!,

119
Q

How to use Handihaler

A

remove capsule and flip lid, flip open mouthpiece, load capsule, flip mouth piece closed (will be click), press button, exhale, breathe in (will vibrate), exhale then repeat.

120
Q

Is it okay that the Handihaler vibrates during inspiration?

A

Yes-indicates it is being used correctly

121
Q

True or false: Breezhaler does not use capsules

A

False

122
Q

What is a big no no when using a elliptic?

A

Covering the vents, and closing the cap before taking the dose as it is lost, also tipping it can make it come out the mouth piece

123
Q

Big difference of using a Genuair?

A

press down button and will lock to signal empty

124
Q

What dose red mean on the doses for Ellipta?

A

<10 doses remaining

125
Q

What is the general expired for elliptic devices?

A

6 weeks

126
Q

For genuair what does red mean on the window?

A

Not ready for inhalation

127
Q

What does a red stripe band mean for genuair?

A

Need new inhaler

128
Q

What are the pros and cons of SMI?

A

Pros= slow mist=more time, no effort, counter
Cons= spring dose (hard), no for under 5, no spacer, prime 3 days if Combivent or 7 for Spiriva

129
Q

How to use a Respimat?

A

prime, turn base 1/2 Counter clockwise, open, exhale breathe in (don’t cover vents), and click button

129
Q

What does emphysema means?

A

Abnormal enlargement of airspace= destruction of walls without obvious fibrosis so low SA= hyperventalation

130
Q

What is considered chronic bronchitis?

A

Cough for >3 months for 2 consecutive years

131
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for COPD?

A

Smoke

132
Q

What genetic thingy is related to increased COPD risk?

A

1-antitrypsin deficiency as this prevents neutrophil elastase destroying elastin= elastic recoil

133
Q

What of these increases with COPD (RV,IRV,ERV,TV)

A

RV

134
Q

True or false; Excessive Mucous secretion does not effect airflow

A

True

135
Q

What are some comorbid illnesses with COPD

A

Lung HTN
muscle wasting
osteoporosis
depression

136
Q

What are the 3 cardinal symptoms of COPD

A

SOB
Cough
Phlegm-morning

137
Q

What are sx of end stage COPD

A

positions to relieve dypnsea
neck muscles to breathe
pursed lips
larger liver

138
Q

How do you calculate pack years

A

(#/d divided by 20) x #years

139
Q

HOW do we diagnose COPD?

A

Spirometry of <0.7 ratio
FEV1 is used to stage the disease

140
Q

Who should we screen for COPD?

A

smokers/ex smokers >40
persistent cough and sputum
frequency URTI
evening wheeze

141
Q

What is the MRC dypsnea Scale?

A

0- breathless after strenuous exercise
1- SOB when hurrying= mild
2- Walks slower and stops for breathe at own pace= moderate
3- Stops for breathe after 100 m=moderate
4- Too breathless to leave house=severe

142
Q

What number indicates moderate-severe on CAT

A

> 10

142
Q

What number on CAT test indicates mild

A

<10

143
Q

What is the spirometry readings to diagnose COPD?

A

Post bronchodilator FEV1<80% andRatio <0.7

144
Q

What is CTS COPD classification scale?

A

Mild= FEV1>80%
Moderate= FEV1 50-79
Severe= 30-49%
Very Severe= <30%

145
Q

What is Gold Stages of COPD

A

Mild= FEV1>80%
Moderate= FEV1 50-79
Severe= 30-49%
Very Severe= <30%

146
Q

What is Gold C?

A

_>2 exacerbations in 1 year or _>1 hospital admit
and mild COPD/CAT<10

147
Q

What is Gold D?

A

_>2 exacerbations in 1 year or _>1 hospital admit
and Moderate-Severe COPD/CAT>10

148
Q

What is Gold A?

A

<2 exacerbations and no hospital admit
and mild COPD/ CAT<10

149
Q

What is Gold B

A

<2 exacerbations and no hospital admit
and Moderate-severe COPD/ CAT>10

150
Q

Best treatment of COPD? (best risk reduction)

A

stop smoking

151
Q

Is it okay to give opioids in end of life care of patient with COPD?

A

yes- can actually help with breathing

152
Q

COPD patients need to be active. What is a general exercise RX?

A

3-5 sessions for 30 minutes, moderate intensity

153
Q

What is a preventative strategy (not daily drugs) for COPD?

A

Vaccines

154
Q

When do we want to supplement treatment of COPD with O2?

A

When <60mmHg PaO2

155
Q

The same SABAs are used in COPD BUT what are our SAMA’s?

A

ipratropium

156
Q

Which is more effective and quicker SABA or SAMA?

A

SABA

157
Q

When would SAMA’s be recommended over SABA’s?

A

If on beta blocker

158
Q

What are side effects of SAMA

A

dry mouth, constipate, no pee, glaucoma

159
Q

Which LAMA is dosed BID?

A

aclindinium

160
Q

Which is thought to be better and why/ LABA vs LAMA

A

LAMA (tiotropium), may be better tolerated and better at decreasing exacerbations

161
Q

Why DONT we want ICS in COPD

A

URTI risk as they are already at risk.

162
Q

Which LABAs and LAMAs work in minutes

A

LABA- formoterol, indacterol, olodaterol, vilanterol
LAMA- glycopyrronium

163
Q

What is dosing for prophylactic azithromycin for COPD?

A

250mg OD for 1 year

164
Q

What is MOA of N-acetylcysteine?

A

mucolytic agent= better for cough phenotype

165
Q

What is Roflumilast MOA?

A

PDE4 inhibitor

166
Q

Side effects of Roflumilast

A

diarrhea, weight loss, depression

167
Q

RX for Mild COPD

A

LAMA OR LABA

168
Q

Rx for Low acute risk/ moderate COPD

A

LAMA/LABA
OR
LAMA/LABA/ICS

169
Q

Rx for high risk and severe COPD?

A

LAMA/LABA/ICS
or those and macrolide, PDE4,Mucolytic

170
Q

When do we do lung reduction surgery?

A

survival Is <2 years and FEV1<25%

171
Q

Do we ever step down in COPD

A

generally no, BUT if ICS has side effect you can taper and try other agent

172
Q

Dose of systemic steroids during acute exacerbation of COPD

A

30-50 pred

173
Q

When should antibiotics be given for COPD in acute exacerbation?

A

2/3 of the following, sputum purulent, increase sputum volume, increased dyspnea

174
Q

How many AECOPD events are infections and relatively how many are viral?

A

50% and this is mostly viral

175
Q

What is antibiotic of choice for AECOPD if needed and low risk

A

amox, 5-7 days doxy if needed due to allergy

176
Q

What is antibiotic of choice for AECOPD if needed and high risk

A

amoxiclav, for 5-10 days or cefuroxime

177
Q

When are COPD patients good to be discharged?

A

no SABA more frequently than every 4 hours
can walk, and sleep, and eat
stable for 1 day

177
Q

True or false: Sacred tobacco is just as bad for you as cigarettes.

A

FALSE

178
Q

What is age of the average smoker and the amount of cigarettes a day?

A

24 years
14 cigs/day

179
Q

What does it indicate to use if a smoker lights up within 30 minutes of waking?

A

Very addicted and chances of quitting is reduced by 40%.

180
Q

What is the rule of 3’s

A

3 minutes is duration of a Nic fit
3 days for a Nic addiction
3 weeks for psych addiction

181
Q

How much weight loss Is expected when quitting

A

5 kg in first 3 months

182
Q

What types of drugs can cigarets induce metabolism on?

A

methadone
psychotropic
some oncology agents

183
Q

What is main cessation method?

A

cold turkey

184
Q

True or false Gimmick (potentially scam) products help with cessation)

A

usually just fidget item and could help if patient says so. if they act as crutch= good

185
Q

Is e cigs a good alternative/

A

no still getting too fast of a Nic hit

186
Q

What is lobelia plant?

A

its a nicotine like substance that can take the edge off
sort of like prechampix

187
Q

What is the number one NRT product

A

Gum

187
Q

How does silver acetate work

A

if used with smoke there will be a bitter taste
smokerette lozenges

188
Q

When do we give 4 mg gum compared to 2 mg

A

4 mg- >25 cigs or within 30 min of waking
2 mg- <25 cigs and later in morning

189
Q

How do all NRT options absorb?

A

buccal

190
Q

How do you control the release of gum and lozenges?

A

depends on how much you chew or suck

191
Q

How do you use gum or lozenge?

A

chew/suck then park and repeat for 30 minutes

192
Q

How does acidic/coffee effect NRT?

A

lowers absorption but just take more/suck or chew more

193
Q

How long to give NRT after MI?

A

2 weeks

194
Q

Which is better prn or schedule NRT?

A

schedule

194
Q

How do you dose gum vs how many cigs a person takes

A

of gum= # of cigs

195
Q

What’s the general taper with gums?

A

decrease by half every month

196
Q

What percentage can get hooked on gum

A

5%

197
Q

Can you smoke on NRT?

A

yes

198
Q

S/e of gum

A

irritation, nausea, jaw fatigue

199
Q

How much nicotine in a patch?

A

114 mg= DISPOSE CAREFULLY

200
Q

How much drug distribute in 24 hours with patch?

A

21mg

201
Q

Can you shower with patch on?

A

Yes but do not put new one on after because hydration increases absorb

202
Q

S/e of patch

A

local irritation, nausea, sleep dreams (take patch off)

203
Q

If bad dreams but smoker lights early in the morning what’s the solution?

A

push through? or other NRT

204
Q

What are the steps with patches?

A

1=21 mg for week 1-6
2=14 for 7-8
3= 7mg for 9-10
length doesn’t matter**

205
Q

What is <100 lbs, CVD risk, or less than 10 sigs with patch?

A

start at step 2

206
Q

Can you combo patch with other NRT

A

yes

207
Q

What is min/max for cartridges for inhaler for cessation?

A

6-12 then reduce by 1-2 cartridges a day at week 14

208
Q

When to use 1 mg lozenge vs 2 mg?

A

1- <1 pack
2- > 1 pack

209
Q

What is the general scheduling of lozenges/

A

1 lozenge every 1-2 hours then decrease time in between

210
Q

What are we more concerned about? Under or over dosing?

A

under, they won’t quit or have bad experience if under dose

210
Q

What’s special about mini-lozenges?

A

3 x faster and last 10 minutes

211
Q

What is the fastest NRT product we have?

A

quick mist

212
Q

What shouldn’t we do for 15-30 minutes after NRT product?

A

eat/drink

213
Q

Dosing schedule of quick mist?

A

1-2 sprays every 1/2 hour

214
Q

What is use of Bupropion?

A

antidepressant so for those that depression is a factor, reduce craving because it increases NA, DA

215
Q

S/e of bupropion?

A

seizure, lower weight, insomnia, dry mouth

216
Q

What is dosing schedule of bupropion?

A

150 mg OD for 4 days then BID, stop smoking at 1 week (add NRT)

217
Q

True or false nortriptylline works for cessation?

A

true

218
Q

True or false SSRIs works for cessation?

A

NO

219
Q

MOA of varenicline?

A

nicotine agonist

220
Q

NRT with varenicline?

A

doesn’t make sense but data is conflicting

221
Q

Dosing with Champix/

A

day 1-3= 0.5 OD
4-7= 0.5 BID
8= 1 BID

222
Q

S/e of Champix

A

depression, nausea, insomnia, headache

223
Q

What is cytisine?

A

basically champ lite
OTC

224
Q

Questions to ask when a smoker wants to quit?

A

WHAT HAVE THEY TRIED,
what worked
health status (CVD,Depressed), how many, what time of day
preference

225
Q

Smoker doesn’t want to gain weight, what product we giving?

A

bupropion

225
Q

Can you combo bupropion and NRT

A

yes

226
Q

Can you combo bupropion and champix?

A

yes but s/e worrisome

227
Q

What for pregnant people?

A

if they are going to continue to smoke NRT for sure even though no nicotine is best
NO patch, IR only

228
Q

WE have good products but what must the smoker have to be successful?

A

MOTIVATION

229
Q

What are the stages of change?

A

precontemplation
contemplation
preparation
action
maintenance

230
Q

Is bupropion as effective as champ or combo NRT?

A

NO

231
Q

Is Bupropion 300mg better than 150?

A

No just as efffective

232
Q

How do you effectively utilize quit days?

A

anything to make smoking less enjoyable 2 weeks before quit day

233
Q

How frequent is smokers cough and what characteristics does it have?

A

40%
minimal sputum in morning

234
Q

What happens to cough after quitting?

A

worsens for 3 months

235
Q
A

PHAR 253 - Therapeutics (2) (8 decks)

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