Asthma, COPD and Respiratory Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?

A

1) O2 in (external environment) for metabolism (cells and tissues) 


2) Co2 (from cells) to external environment

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2
Q

What are the phases of respiration?

A

1) External (Ventilation)

- Ventilation (breathing) 



2) Internal (Diffusion, Transport, Diffusion)

- Pulmonary gas exchange

- Gas transport 

- Systemic gas exchange



3) Cellular 

- Metabolism

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3
Q

What is external respiration?

A

Ventilation (breathing) ≈ air moved into/out of lungs in GE from atmosphere to alveoli 
- Respiration rate regulated to balance removal of CO2 (metabolic waste) and O2 and (from the external environment)

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4
Q

What is the internal phase of respiration?

A

Pulmonary GE + Gas transport + Systemic gas exchange

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5
Q

What is the hierarchical structure of bronchioles and alveoli?

A

Trachea —> 1º bronchi —> 2º bronchi —> 3º bronchi —> bronchioles —> Respiratory bronchioles —> Alveolar ducts —> Alveoli sacs

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6
Q

What is the role of the alveoli? How does the structure of alveoli relate to function?

A

Site of gas exchange between air in the lung and blood ≈ pulmonary gaseous exchange and gas transport 
- Thin wall (one-cell thick + not muscular) + large surface area ≈ 250um diameter ≈ surrounded by pulmonary capillaries (short gap ≈ 0.2um) ≈ excellent diffusion

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7
Q

What is the equation which relates to diffusion and could explain why gas exchange is so efficient at the alveoli?


A

Fick’s Law ≈ 


Q = D A (P2-P1) / L

  • D: diffusion co-efficient 

  • A: Surface Area
    
- (P2-P1): Partial pressure difference
    

- L: Wall thickness 

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8
Q

What are alveolar membranes composed of?

A

1) Type I Cells
• Simple squamous epithelia

2) Type II Cells
• Septal cells
• Surfactant secretin cells
• Microvilli

3) Alveolar Dust Cells
• Migrating macrophages

4) Pores of Kohn
• Collateral airflow between alveoli
• Variable number  increases in ventilated areas

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9
Q

How do you derive the diffusion co-efficient in pulmonary respiration?

A

Diffusion coefficient derived from membrane permeability and molecular weight of diffusing substance

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10
Q

What properties of the lung confer stretch?

A

1) Compliance
• ∆V/∆P
• Stretched easily with small transmural pressure gradient

Condition
• Emphysema: Destruction of Type II pneumocytes, collagen, elastin  increased compliance and reduced elasticity  increased FRC + lung volume (TLC) increases due to problem getting air out

2) Elasticity
• Elastic recoil  recoil post-stretch  quiet expiration

Condition
• Fibrosis: CT and collagen deposition  reduced elasticity and restrictive disease  reduced FRC and lung volume (TLC) reduces

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11
Q

What does elastic recoil and compliance depend on? What does elastic recoil and compliance depend on?

A
  • Fluid in alveoli: H-bonds  surface tension  alveoli inwards
  • Elastin fibers: recoil + compliance
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12
Q

What is La Place’s Law when applied to the alveoli?

What would a small alveolus experiencing an increase in pressure cause?

A

P = 2T/r ;

T = PR/2

La Place’s Law applied to alveoli: Smaller alveolus ≈small smaller radius ≈ reduced denominator ≈ increase 2T:r ≈ increase P ≈ increase % of alveolar collapse 


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13
Q

What would occur if two alveoli of unequal size connected by an airway in the absence of surfactant?

A

Without surfactant ≈ alveolus has same surface tension ≈ radius is greater in b > a ≈ reduced radius means a (P = 2T/r) > b (P = 2T/r) ≈ greater pressure in alveoli a ≈ smaller one increase % collapse 


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14
Q

Does the unequal size of alveoli lead to atelectasis in real life and why or why not?

A

Collapsing forces mitigated by surfactant + surrounding alveoli ≈ avoid atelectasis

1) Surfactant: Reduce surface tension in smaller alveoli 



2) Surrounding alveoli: Alveoli begins collapsing, surrounding alveoli resist collapse due to own elasticity ≈ interdependence

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15
Q

What is the relevance of pulmonary surfactant in the premature babies?

A

Premature neonates (under 7 months ≈ 28 weeks) ≈ underdeveloped type II pneumocytes ≈ pulmonary surfactant ≈ respiratory effort to inflate non-compliant lungs + lungs collapse in expiration≈ may die of exhaustion + hypoxia

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16
Q

What three pressures are of relevance in ventilation?

A
  • Atmospheric: Pressure from atmosphere –> 760mmHg
  • Intra-alveolar Pressure: Pressure in alveoli –> 760mmHg
  • Intrapleural Pressure: Pressure in pleural sac (outside lungs within thoracic cavity –> 756mmHg
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17
Q

What is the transmural pressure gradient across the thoracic wall?

A

Atmospheric - intrapleural pressure

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18
Q

What is the transmural pressure gradient across the lung wall?

A

Intra-alveolar pressure - intrapleural pressure

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19
Q

What are the muscles of ventilation divided into and why?

A

1) Inspiration: Contract (Inspiration) + Passive expiration
• Diaphragm
• External intercostal muscles

2) Accessory Muscles of Inspiration
• Sternocleidomastoid
• Scalenus

3) Active Expiration Muscles
• Internal intercostal muscles
• Abdominal muscles

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20
Q

How does respiration occur?

A

1) Contraction of external intercostal muscles ≈ ribs elevated ≈ up and out ≈increase lateral thoracic cavity diameter ≈reduce pressure ≈ air in 


2) Contraction of diaphragm ≈ increase vertical (superoinferior) diameter

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21
Q

What is the process (steps) of inspiration?

A
  • Contraction of diaphragm + external intercostal muscles
  • Chest wall and lungs stretched + ribs up and out
  • Increased size –> increased volume –> intra-alveolar pressure falls –> Boyle’s Law
  • Air enters lungs down pressure gradient until intra-alveolar pressure
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22
Q

What is the process (steps) of inspiration?

A
  • Contraction of diaphragm + external intercostal muscles
  • Chest wall and lungs stretched + ribs up and out
  • Increased size –> increased volume –> intra-alveolar pressure falls –> Boyle’s Law
  • Air enters lungs down pressure gradient until intra-alveolar pressure
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23
Q

What is the process of expiration?

A
  • Relaxation of inspiratory muscles –> passive
  • Chest wall + stretched lungs recoil –> return to pre-inspiratory size due to elastic properties
  • Intra-alveolar pressure rises as molecules contained in smaller volume
  • Air leaves lungs down pressure gradient until intra-alveolar pressure –> atmospheric pressure
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24
Q

State the equation for Boyle’s Law.

A

P1 V1 = P2 V2

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25
Q

What pathology may alter the transmural pressure gradient and how?

A

Pneumothorax (air in pleural space) ≈ Spontaneous or Traumatic pneumothorax ≈ intrapleural pressure increases = lung = reduce transmural pressure gradient across lung wall ≈ collapsed lung which fails to inflate due to changes in pressure 


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26
Q

How do you determine the lung volume of a patient?

A

Spirometry

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27
Q

List the values produced by a spirometer, present on a spirogram.

A
  • TV = 0.5L
  • IRV = 3L
  • IC (TV + IRV) = 3.5L
  • ERV = 1L
  • RV = 1.2L
  • FRC (ERV + RV) = 2.2L
  • VC (IC + ERV) = 4.5L
  • TLC (IC + FRC) = 5.7L
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28
Q

What is the IRV?

A

TLC - (TV+ ERV + RV)

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29
Q

What is IC?

A

TV + IRV

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30
Q

What is VC?

A

IRV + TV + ERV

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31
Q

What is RV?

A

TLC - (IRV + TV + ERV)

OR

FRC - ERV

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32
Q

What is FRC?

A

TV + ERV

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33
Q

In a restrictive lung disease, what may occur in ventilation?

A

Restrictive lung disease ≈ reduced inspiration ≈ reduced inspiratory volume ≈ reduced VC + reduced TLC + reduced IRV 


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34
Q

Describe the changes seen in lung capacity in restrictive lung disease. State examples of restrictive lung diseases which may cause this.

A

Restrictive Lung Diseases (Sarcoidosis, Asbestosis, Pulmonary fibrosis)
• Reduced compliance ≈ reduced inspiration ≈ reduced inspiratory volume ≈ reduced VC + reduced TLC + reduced IRV

• FEV/FVC < 0.7

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35
Q

Describe the changes seen in lung capacity in obstructive lung disease. State examples of restrictive lung diseases which may cause this.

A

Obstructive Lung Diseases (COPD, asthma, bronchiectasis, bronchitis)
• Reduced elasticity ≈ reduced expiration ≈ reduced expiratory volume ≈ increased TLC due to increased RV

• FEV/FVC «< 0.7

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36
Q

What is dead space?

A

Not all inspired air gets to alveoli and partakes in gas exchange thus part remains in conducting airways where no gas exchange occurs ≈ anatomical dead space ≈ airway dead space ≈ 150mL ≈ volume of conducting airways

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37
Q

What is the amount involved in tidal volume?

A

500mL 


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38
Q

How much of the amount of air in each breath (tidal volume) participates in gas exchange and why?

A

500mL breathed per tidal volume but only 350mL reaches site of gas exchange

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39
Q

What is expected regarding dead space and physiological or anatomical in patients with lung pathology?

A

Volume of physiological dead space likely to be higher in subjects with lung disease

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40
Q

What is the difference between pulmonary and alveolar ventilation? Give the equation for each.

A

Pulmonary Ventilation
• Volume of air breathed in and out in 1 minute

  • PV = TV x RF
  • 6L/min = 500mL x 12bpm

Alveolar Ventilation
• Volume of air exchanged between atmosphere and alveoli per minute

  • AV = (TV-DS) x RF
  • 4.2L/min = (500-150mL) x 12bpm
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41
Q

How is PV affected by increased TV?

A

Increase pulmonary ventilation

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42
Q

How is PV affected by increased RF?

A

Increase pulmonary ventilation

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43
Q

How is AV affected by increased TV?

A

Increase alveolar ventilation

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44
Q

What would occur if DS increased and TV stayed the same with regards to AV?

A

Alveolar ventilation would decrease

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45
Q

What yields a greater proportional increase in alveolar ventilation, increasing RF or TV (if DS remains constant)?

A

Increasing tidal volume

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46
Q

List the mucosal tissues of the human body.

A
  • Conjunctiva
  • Respiratory tract: Oral/Sinus/Middle ear/Trachea/Lungs
  • GI tract: Oesophagus/Stomach/Intestine
  • Urogenital tract: Kidney/Ureter/Uretus/Bladder/Vagina
  • Mammary gland
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47
Q

What are mucosal membranes?

A

Epithelial layers line organs/surfaces exposed to external world ≈ delicate and protected on external mucosal surfaces (mucous secretions, AMPs and dimeric IgA) + submucosal layer (lamina propria ≈ loose CT)

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48
Q

How does IgA protect mucosal surfaces/membranes and give an example of where this happens?

A
  • Plasma cells secrete dimeric IgA
  • IgA binds BL surface @ PIgR (polymeric Ig Receptor)
  • Endocytosis
  • Transcytosis  apical
  • Release of IgA at apical epithelial cell
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49
Q

List the immune cells of the sub-epithelial lamina propria and when would they be involved?

A
  • Innate Lymphoid Cells: Direct response
  • Mast cells: IgE
  • Eosinophils: IgE
  • Macrophages: Phagocytosis and APC
  • Dendritic cells: APC
  • T lymphocytes: Memory
  • Plasma Cells: IgA, IgG, IgM and IgE
  • Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT): upregulation  iMALT
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50
Q

What is the micro-anatomical structure of the respiratory mucosa?

A

1) Airway Surface Liquid
• Gel layer
• Periciliary fluid layer
• Cilia

2) Epithelium 
•	Cuboidal epithelial layers 
•	Goblet cells
•	Basal cells
•	Basement membrane
3) Lamina Propria 
•	Smooth muscle 
•	Connective tissue
•	Blood vessels 
•	Lymph vessels 

4) Cartilaginous Layer
• Cartilage

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51
Q

What is MALT?

A
  • Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT) = accumulation of lymphoid tissue ordered by lymphoid follicles and germinal centers can be upregulated
  • Submucosal dendritic cells carry processed antigen to MALT/BALT –> present to Th2 lymphocytes –> IL-4, IL-5, IL-13 –> Eosinophils –> IgA, IgG, IgE –> hypersensitivity
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52
Q

What is BALT? What are the two types and their features?

A
  • Bronchial associated lymphoid tissue = BALT
  • iBALT (inducible) vs cBALT (constitutive)

iBALT
• Upregulated
• Less ordered
• Intraepithelial lymphocytes, lymphoid follicle and marginal T cell zone

cBALT
• Constitutive
• Ordered
• Regional lymph node with defined areas: Paracortical region (T) and 1º lymphoid follicle (B) and medulla

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53
Q

What are the distinctive features of the mucosal immune system? How may these be divided up?

A

1) Anatomical Features
• Mucosal vs Lymphoid tissues
• Discrete compartments of diffuse lymphoid tissue vs organised structures: Peyer’s Patches, Isolated lymphoid follicles and tonsils
• Specialised antigen-uptake: M cells –> Peyer’s Patches; IgA via PIgR

2) Effector Mechanisms
• T cells
• IgA secretion
• Microbiota

3) Immunoregulatory Environment
• Down-regulation of immune responses
• Up-regulation of immune responses
• Inhibitory macrophages and tolerance-inducing dendritic cells

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54
Q

How is a foreign allergen detected by a B cell?

A

Specific soluble antigen binds Naive B cells and travels in circulation to lymph nodes ≈ present processed antigen to T follicular helper cells (CD4+ T helper cells) in MHC Class II molecules ≈Activated T follicular helper cell recognises specific antigenic peptide with MHC class II ≈ cytokine secretion (IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-9, IL-10, IL-13) ≈ mediate B cell proliferation (of B cell with that BCR) and class switching ≈ plasmablasts form 1º focus ≈ further differentiation proceed to germinal centre ≈ memory cells or antibody-secreting

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55
Q

What antibody mediates asthma?

A

Asthma is an IgE-mediated lower respiratory allergic reaction ≈ hypersensitivity reaction (Type I)

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56
Q

What are the common stimuli for asthma? Route of entry?

A

Stimuli:

- Dander (cat) 

- Pollens 

- HDM 



Route of entry: 

- Respiratory tract inhalation ≈ contact with mucosal lining of lower airways 




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57
Q

List 4 pathophysiological responses to allergens in asthma.

A
Response: 

- Bronchial constriction (C)

- Increased mucus production (M)

- Airway inflammation (I)

- Bronchial hyper-reactivity (H)


Mnemonic: CHIM
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58
Q

What is allergic asthma?

A

Reversible airway inflammation with heterogeneous aetiology: allergens (foreign antigens that cause hypersensitivity: plant, fungal, HDM, Der p 1, cat dander, cockroach…)–> activation of submucosal mast cells and basophils of LRT –> degranulation ≈ bronchial constriction + increased mucous secretion –> wheeze, dyspnoea, tightness, cough and variable expiratory airflow limitation

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59
Q

List 3 common types of asthma.

A
  • Allergic
  • Exercise-induced
  • Neutrophil predominant
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60
Q

What is atopy?

A

Genetic tendency to produce IgE to common environmental proteins (allergens) to mediate a hypersensitivity reaction, developing classic allergic diseases: atopic dermatitis, allergic rhinitis and asthma

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61
Q

List the atopic triad.

A
  • Dermatitis
  • Allergic Rhinitis
  • Allergic Asthma
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62
Q

List the three hallmarks of asthma.

A
  • Reversible airway inflammation of heterogeneous origin
  • Sx: Wheeze, SOB, Tightness, Cough
  • Variable expiratory airflow limitation
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63
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of allergic asthma.

A

Allergens (HDM, dander, cockroaches, pollen, mold) enters respiratory tract –> phagocytosis by dendritic cells –> taken to a naïve T-lymphocyte in the Paracortical area of lymph node –> APC to mediate Th-2 response –> IL-4, IL-5, IL-9, IL-13 –> Mast cell and Eosinophil degranulation via IgE –> Inflammatory mediators released –> Mucous production; Bronchial inflammation; Bronchoconstriction; Hypersensitivity of airways

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64
Q

List categories of substances produced by mast cells in response to allergen uptake. Outline their actions.

A
Enzymes: Remodel CT (layer 4) 
•	Tryptase 
•	Chymase
•	Cathepsin G
•	Carboxypeptidase

Toxic mediator: Toxic to parasites; Increase vascular permeability; Anticoagulation; Smooth muscle contraction
• Heparin
• Histamine

Cytokines: Inflammation; Cytokine production; Promote eosinophil and innate immune cell production
• IL-4
• IL-5
• IL-13

Chemokines: Chemoattractant for monocyte, macrophages and neutrophils
• CCL3
• CXCL9

Lipid Mediator: SMC contraction; Increased vascular permeability; Stimulate mucous permeability; Bronchoconstriction ||| Attract leukocytes; amplify production of lipid mediators; activate platelets 
•	PDG2
•	PDGE2
•	LTC4
•	LTD4
•	LTE4
•	Platelet-activating factors (PAF)
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65
Q

Outline the transition to chronic severe asthma.

A
  • Inhaled allergens mediate specific IgE allergic reactions
  • Persistent allergens (PAMPs) activate epithelial TLRs
  • Epithelium secretes IL-25 and IL-33*
  • Activation of ILC Type 2 in submucosal tissue
  • ILC Type 2  IL-4, IL-5, IL-13 ≈ enhance Th2 and IgE response
  • Increased vascular permeability + chemoattraction: mast cell degranulation + chemokines  attract innate immune cells
  • Hyper-reactivity driving IgE and other mediators of inflammation
  • Resultant pathological changes: Irreversible airway damage and remodeling
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66
Q

List the indications for requesting a CXR.

A
  • Dyspnea
  • Acute Chest Pain
  • Chronic cough (6 weeks
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67
Q

List the benefits of a CXR.

A
  • Quick
  • Accessible
  • Identify range of pathologies
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68
Q

List the limitations of a CXR.

A
  • Modest radiation dose

* Insensitive for causes of pathology

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69
Q

Outline the two views of an XR.

A
  • Anteroposterior: XR from front to back

* Posteroanterior: XR from back to front

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70
Q

List the densities seen on an XR.

A
  • Air
  • Fat
  • Water (soft tissues)
  • Bone
  • Metal
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71
Q

What factors contribute to a radiological appearance?

A
  • Biologic density
  • Thickness of object
  • Density of material surrounding it
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72
Q

What is Silhouette sign?

A
  • Object in close contact with material of same density ≈ borders obliterated ≈ difficult to distinguish.
  • Usually material more radiopaque with object appearing radiolucent and outline accentuated
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73
Q

What is Summation on an XR?

A
  • Object of same radiographic density overlap but not in contact ≈ summation
  • Summation density
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74
Q

What are Mach Bands on an XR?

A

• Adjacent areas of differing contrast ≈ edge enhancement ≈ accentuation + artifactitious difference in radiographic density between two areas

i) Positive (white) Mach Bands
ii) Negative (black) Mach Bands

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75
Q

List 3 phenomena seen on an XR at times.

A

1) Silhouette Sign
2) Summation
3) Mach bands

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76
Q

What is the crude approach for CXR Interpretation?

A
1)	ID + Orientation 
•	Who 
•	What: Orientation
•	Where
•	Why
•	When 
  • Rotation: Sternal end of clavicle equidistant
  • Inspiration: Diaphragm at 10-11 posterior ribs on left
  • Penetration: IVD of mid-thoracic spine visible
2)	Summary 
•	Cardiac monitor wires
•	Oxygen
•	Oxygen mask
•	NG tube
•	ETT 
•	Venous lines 
- IJV: trace line from arm to axilla to SVC to heart and tip of line at cavoatrial junction
- PICC: trace line from insertion (internal jugular or subclavian vein) towards heart ≈ cavoatrial junction
•	Cardiac devices 
•	Intercostal catheters 
3)	Airways 
•	Trachea position: Deviation?
•	Paratracheal masses
•	Carina: < 100º
•	Bronchi: Narrowed or Dilated
4)	Breathing 
•	Breathing: S approach in lung field 
•	Lung volume: 10 ribs bilaterally
•	Zones: Symmetry, Density 
•	Angles: Costophrenic recess (@ Costophrenic angle) and Costomediastinal recess  
•	Cardiac borders: L + R
5)	Circulation
•	Position
•	Size 
•	Shape 
•	Width 
•	Hila: Position; shape; density 

6) Disability
• Ribs
• Clavicles + shoulders
• Vertebral bodies: rectangular, space, x2 pedicles and disc space

7)	Everything Else
•	Gas under diaphragm (pneumoperitoneum) 
•	Subcutaneous emphysema 
•	Hiatus hernia 
•	Absent breast shadow 
•	Lung apexes clear 
•	Lung pathology behind liver
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77
Q

What is the primary function of pulmonary circulation?

A

Conduit for carrying deoxygenated blood from rest of body via IVC + SVC into RA and out of RV via pulmonary arteries to lung parenchyma to be oxygenated via diffusion then carry oxygenated blood from lung parenchyma (alveoli) to left atrium via pulmonary veins

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78
Q

List the functions of pulmonary circulation.

A
  • Blood transport
  • Protection from thrombi and emboli
  • Metabolism of vasoactive hormones: ACE; Inactivate BK, Serotonin, PGE1, PGE2, PGF2a; PGA1 and PGA2 pass through unaltered
  • Blood reservoir
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79
Q

Compare the haemodynamic features of systemic and pulmonary circulations.

A
1)	Pulmonary Circulation: 
•	Low pressure ≈ 15mmHg
•	High flow 
•	Low resistance
•	Mesh-like capillaries 
•	Thin-walled, compliant arteries and veins
2)	Systemic Circulation: 
•	High pressure ≈ 120mmHg or MAP = 93mmHg 
•	High flow 
•	High resistance
•	Parallel capillaries
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80
Q

How does pulmonary vascular resistance change with cardiac output changes? Why do these changes occur?

A

• Pulmonary vascular resistance falls with increased cardiac output thus inverse relationship

1) Capillary recruitment
• Blood flow increasing ≈ pressure rises ≈ closed vessels open (e.g. apical lung region) ≈ resistance reduced ≈ increase GE + maintain gas exchange


2) Capillary distention
• Blood flow increasing ≈ pressure rises ≈ thin and compliant pulmonary arterioles and capillaries ≈ capillary distention ≈ fall in pulmonary vascular resistance ≈ increase GE + maintain gas exchange


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81
Q

What are the benefits of reducing pulmonary vascular resistance in times of increased cardiac output?

A
  • Maintains adequate gas exchange in times of increased demand: Opposed blood velocity tendency to speed up increased flow rate, maintaining time for pulmonary capillary blood to take up oxygen and dispose of carbon dioxide
  • Increase in capillary surface area: Increase capillary surface area ≈ increased gaseous exchange
  • Prevent pulmonary oedema: Reducing pulmonary vascular resistance ensures capillary pressure kept low ≈ prevent excess fluid leaking out from pulmonary capillaries
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82
Q

What drives fluid movement generally in the lung?

A

Fluid movement driven by hydrostatic forces which are normally weaker than colloid pressures allowing net movement of fluid into capillaries however surface tension works against this movement. Thus in diseases where deficient surfactant production occurs may result in pulmonary oedema

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83
Q

How does vascular resistance change at different lung volumes? What are the benefits of the changes in vascular resistance with lung volume?

A

High lung volume during inspiration ≈ lowering of pleural pressure (more negative) ≈ ∆ transmural pressure ≈ extra-alveolar vessel dilates + alveolar vessels compressed ≈ increase pulmonary resistance 



Benefits:
GE increased: Decreased velocity of blood flow ≈ increased time for gas exchange to occur

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84
Q

How do changes in oxygen tension (e.g. Low SpO2) in the lung affect pulmonary vasoconstriction? What is this termed as?

A

• Low oxygen tension in alveoli (hypoxia) and/or pulmonary blood (hypoxemia) ≈ pulmonary vasoconstriction (hypoxia-induced pulmonary vasoconstriction)

  • Hypoxia-induced pulmonary vasoconstriction caused by hypoxia + hypoxemia
  • Hypoxia-induced pulmonary vasoconstriction augmented by hypercapnia and acidaemia/acidosis
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85
Q

List drugs causing pulmonary vasodilation.

A

Adenosine, Acetylcholine, Prostacyclin (PGI2) and isoproterenol

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86
Q

List drugs causing pulmonary vasoconstriction.

A

Serotonin, norepinephrine, histamine

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87
Q

What are the two types of hypoxia-induced pulmonary vasoconstriction. List the features of each.

A

Alveolar Hypoxia Types:
1) Regional Hypoxia
• Hypoxia in one region of lung ≈ pulmonary vasoconstriction localised to specific region of lung ≈ diverted from poorly ventilated region ≈ minimises effect of gas exchange
• Little effect on pulmonary arterial pressure
• Alveolar hypoxia no longer exists ≈ vessels dilate and blood flow restored

2) Generalised Hypoxia
• Hypoxia in large region of lung ≈ pulmonary vasoconstriction across lung ≈ pulmonary vascular resistance increases ≈ pulmonary hypertension
• High pulmonary arterial pressure
• Pathophysiological changes: Hypertrophy + Proliferation of smooth muscle cells, narrowing of arterial lumens and change in contractile function + right heart hypertrophy

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88
Q

What is microcirculation? What is its role?

A

Portion of vascular system comprising arterioles, capillaries and venules where nutrients, water, gases, hormones and waste products exchanged between blood and cells 


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89
Q

How is microcirculation regulated?

A

Regulates blood flow to individual organs, distribution of blood within organs and diffusion distances between organ blood supply and tissues and the exchange of fluid between intravascular and extravascular compartments


1) VSM: Partially constricted ≈ control blood flow

- All micro vessels 

- Not capillaries

2) SNS: NE release by SNS ≈ myogenic mechanism intrinsic to smooth muscle 

- Change diameter ≈ change vascular resistance 


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90
Q

What are the myogenic and metabolic mechanisms contributing to autoregulation of blood flow?

A

1) Myogenic regulation: ∆ contraction or dilation based on microvascular pressure 

• Fast
• High pressure ≈ stretched VSM ≈ activate SAICs contract rapidly

2) Metabolic regulation: Driven by metabolic products
• Increased BMR + low [O2] ≈ vasodilation of arterioles ≈ increased blood flow

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91
Q

List the substances causing vasodilation of arterioles.

A
  • Low O2
  • Low ATP
  • Increased adenosine
  • Increased CO2
  • Increased H+
  • Increased NO: NO Synthase metabolises L-arginine to NO ≈ activates GC ≈ cGMP
  • Lactic Acid
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92
Q

List the substances causing vasoconstriction of arterioles.

A

• Endothelin

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93
Q

Outline the mechanism by which Endothelin causes vasoconstriction.

A

Endothelin binds Type B endothelia receptors (GPCR) ≈ PLC ≈ PIP2 ≈ DAG + IP3 ≈ PKC activation + Bind channels ≈ constriction

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94
Q

Which 2 additional forces act in the lung regarding fluid transport/exchange?

A
  • Alveolar surface tension: Pulls inwards ≈ draws fluid into interstitial space
  • Alveolar pressure: Compress interstitial space ≈ push fluid out of alveoli
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95
Q

How may the myogenic response be useful in oedema?

A

• Myogenic arteriolar constriction in negative feedback ≈ lowers arterial pressure ≈ reduced elevation of hydrostatic capillary pressure ≈ reduced risk of oedema

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96
Q

What is the mechanism of flow-mediated vasodilation?

A

High flow ≈ higher shear stress from blood against endothelial cells ≈ open potassium channels ≈ endothelial cell hyper polarisation ≈ increase calcium entry via electrical gradient ≈ elevated [Ca++] activates NO synthase ≈ increased NO ≈ blood vessels dilate

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97
Q

What is reactive hyperaemia?

A

Blood flow stopped/reduced by vascular compression ≈ absence of blood ≈ hypoxia (low [O2]) ≈ vasodilatory chemicals accumulate + myogenic stimulation (low intravascular pressure driven) ≈ compression removed ≈ blood flow increased for a few minute as vasodilation following stoppage of flow

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98
Q

What is a capillary. List the 3 types.

A

• Endothelial tube surrounded by basement membrane composed of dense connective tissue

1) Continuous
• Basal membrane completely surrounds capillary 

• Impermeable

2) Fenestrated
• Windows
• Bulk fluid exchange, permeable

3) Discontinuous
• Absent regions of basement membrane
• Exchange of large molecules

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99
Q

What is the difference between diffusion-limited and flow-limited transport? Give examples of molecules which may diffuse by either.

A

a) Diffusion-limited: Large molecules diffuse more slowly so rely on fenestrated or discontinuous capillaries



b) Flow-limited transport: Small molecules diffuse rapidly and therefore depend on rate of reaching exchange surface

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100
Q

What is oedema? How can it be caused?

A

Oedema (excessive fluid accumulation in interstitial spaces)

Causes of oedema:
•	Hypoalbuminemia (< 2.5g/100mL) 

•	Burns: destroy capillary integrity ≈ increased permeability and loss of albumin through damaged vessels 

•	Venous obstruction 
•	Lymph channel obstruction
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101
Q

What is the role of the lymphatic system in preventing oedema?

A
  • Prevent fluid build-up: Mechanically collect fluid from tissue fluid (interstitial fluid) to prevent fluid accumulation and oedema
  • Collect proteins: Prevent exudate and water moving out of intravascular compartment to interstitium
  • Transport lymphatic fluid: Compression-relaxation cycle facilitating uptake and flow of fluid from interstitium into and down lymphatic channels
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102
Q

What is the effect on net, trans capillary water movement of disease conditions such as heart failure?

A

In heart failure, heart is failing as a pump ≈ CO reduced + arterial under-filling ≈ reduced renal perfusion≈ reduced GFR ≈ sodium/electrolyte retention in interstitium ≈ water drawn out of intravascular volume into interstitium ≈ net driving force across the capillary ≈ fluid accumulation in the interstitium

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103
Q

What clinical condition can be explained by altered fluid exchange across the pulmonary capillaries?

A

Pulmonary Oedema
Pulmonary oedema is caused by an abnormal increase in capillary pressure, capillary permeability or alveolar surface tension or a decrease in plasma colloidal osmotic pressure

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104
Q

What are the main pathophysiological causes of pulmonary oedema?

A

Causes of Pulmonary Oedema:

1) Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
- E.g. High pulmonary venous pressure from mitral stenosis, left heart failure or heart attack

2) Increased capillary permeability
- Pulmonary vascular injury from oxidant damage, inflammatory reaction or neurogenic shock

- Excess fluid and plasma proteins flooding interstitial paces and alveoli ≈ water drawn by osmosis into interstitial spaces

3) Increased alveolar surface tension
- High surface tension lowering interstitial hydrostatic pressure ≈ increase in capillary fluid entering interstitial space

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105
Q

Two types of pulmonary oedema regarding aetiology?

A

1) Cardiogenic

2) Non-Cardiogenic

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106
Q

What are the blood flow distribution zones in the lungs?

A

1) Zone 1: PA > Pa > Pv
• Alveoli exceeds arterial pressure
• Apex of lung
• Occurs only in abnormal conditions whereby alveolar pressure increased (positive pressure ventilation), arterial pressure decreased (gravitational pull whilst standing or takeoff from spacecraft)

2) Zone 2: Pa > PA > Pv
• Gravity causes lungs to be underperfused at apex and over perfused at base
• Blood flow depends on difference between Pa
• Blood flow greater at bottom cf top

3) Zone 3: Pa > Pv > Pa
• Blood flow determined by arterial-venous pressure difference
• Increase in blood flow primarily due to capillary distension

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107
Q

What effect does exercise have regarding the gravitational effects of blood flow in an upright person?

A

Exercise offsets gravitational effects in upright person: CO increases ≈ increased pulmonary arterial pressure ≈ capillary recruitment + distension in lung’s apex ≈increased blood flow and minimising regional differences in blood flow in lungs

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108
Q

What effect does gravity cause on the regional ventilation and blood flow in the lungs?

A

Gravity causes V:Q mismatching between ventilation and perfusion in the lungs

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109
Q

What is physiological dead space and how does it arise?

A

Air on side of alveolar-capillary membrane which does not partake in gaseous exchange ≈ wasted air ≈ physiological dead space

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110
Q

What is physiological shunting and how does it arise?


A

Blood on alveolar-capillary membrane which does not partake in gaseous exchange ≈ total amount of wasted blood (venous admixture) ≈ physiological shunt

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111
Q

List the investigations relevant for a suspected case of asthma.

A

• PEF: Absolute values

  • PEF Comparison  Standardisation for height, age, sex
  • PEF Diary: variability; Diurnal variations (Better at night)

• Spirometry: Scalloping of expiratory flow volume loop; FEV1/FEVC < 0.7
- Airway inflammation –> obstruction –> lower FEV but FVC remains similar thus reduced ratio

  • Bronchodilator-response spirometry: Inhaled corticosteroid or ß2 agonist yields reversibility (12% improvement in FEV1 or FVC)
  • Bronchial provocation tests (BPT): Inhaled Mannitol (indirect) or Methacholine (PD20; Provocation Dose for 20% reduction) (direct) shows FEV1 decreased (15-20%)
  • Fractional Expired Nitric Oxide (FeNO) test: Elevated (> 50ppb; normal ≈ 25ppb)
  • Approximation of NO produced by eosinophils driven by Th2 response
  • FENO has a relatively decent sensitivity (88%) and specificity (79%) however peak flow and spirometry are both more specific (100%) specific but with lower sensitivity 

  • CXR: Normal; Hyperinflation; Rule out other pathologies
  • FBC: Possible eosinophilia, IgE
  • Blood culture: Aspergillus
  • Bronchoscopy: Normal; Look for structural abnormalities such as tracheomalacia or bronchomalacia
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112
Q

List the signs and symptoms of asthma.

A
  • Wheezing
  • Increased work of breathing
  • Features of atopy: dermatitis, allergic rhinitis
  • History of response to treatment within appropriate time frame
  • Dyspnea on exertion
  • Expiratory wheeze
  • Dry night-time cough
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113
Q

What is a PEF? Comparison types?

A

Peak expiratory flow rate ≈ PEF in one short, sharp breath 



1) PEF Comparison

- Calibrated using diary

- Calibrated using peak flow standardisation for height, age and sex 





2) PEF Diary 

- Plot PEF changes
- Change with treatments or activities etc 

- PEF Diurnal Variation observed 


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114
Q

What is spirometry? List two key clinical variables from spirogram.

A

respiratory investigation assessing lung function measuring inhalation and exhalation, using FEV and FVC to diagnose asthma, COPD and other respiratory conditions

1) FEV = air exhaled in forced breath over 1 second 

2) FVC = total amount of air exhaled during FEV test ≈ 6 seconds

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115
Q

What are the interpretive values for spirometry and their meaning? Must you be cautious when interpreting these?

A


1) Normal: FEV / FVC = 0.7 



2) Obstructive: FEV / FVC < 0.7

- More force required to get out full capacity of lungs in expiration≈ lower FEV due to obstruction with FVC staying similar (but can change) ≈ lower ratio 



3) Restrictive: FEV/FVC > 0.8 

- Lung volumes limited overall ≈ FEV and FVC both decrease ≈ higher ratio

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116
Q

What is a Bronchial Provocation Test? List the two main types and give an example of each.

A

spirometry to assess baseline function then taking medication or performing exercise to measure lung function via spirometry which tests if airways are sensitive ≈ ∆ lung function

Direct: Mannitol ≈ hypertonic stimulus = osmotic effect releasing inflammatory mediators from mast cells, basophils and eosinophils

Indirect: Methacholine non-selective muscarinic receptor agonist in PSNS ≈ bronchoconstriction (PD20)

Indirect: Exercise

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117
Q

What is meant by PD20 in BPT e.g. in asthma or COPD investigations?

A

PD20 ≈ Provocation Dose ≈ 20% decline in FEV

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118
Q

List ways you should prepare for a BPT in asthma.

A
No vigorous exercise 30 mins before 

- No tight clothing 

- No smoking 1 hour before 

- No heavy meal 2 hours before 

- No alcohol 4 hours before 

- Withhold medications as per instructed
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119
Q

What is FeNO investigation e.g. in asthma or COPD investigations? Outline the way it works. Evaluate FENO as an investigation - bad or good?

A

Fractional Exhaled Nitric Oxide ≈ Quantitative, non-invasive investigation involving measurement of exhaled nitric oxide determining how much lung inflammation is present ≈ Th2 cells produce IL-4, IL-5 and IL-13 ≈ driver of inflammation (loosely related) ≈ activated eosinophils produce NO ≈ eosinophilic asthma indicator/ allergic asthma

Normal: 25-50ppb (adults) cf 20-35ppb (children) 



FENO has a relatively decent sensitivity (88%) and specificity (79%) however peak flow and spirometry are both more specific (100%) specific but with lower sensitivity

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120
Q

Outline the two main principles for Rx of asthma. List examples for each.

A

1) Control drivers of inflammation (U-GO-SEA)
• Upper airway disease: sinus/polyps/rhinitis/sinusitis
• GORD
• Obesity
• Smoking
• Exposures: Cigarettes/dusts/occupational/infection
• Allergies/Aero-allergens: Pets/pollen/Aspergillus/HDM

2)	Control inflammation
•	Steroids: Anti-inflammatory 
•	Control upper airway disease 
•	Antacids/anti-reflux 
•	Infection avoidance, vaccination
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121
Q

What is the diagnostic algorithm for asthma comprising of/looking for?

A
  • Recurrent Sx
  • Sx variability
  • Historical record of variable PEF or FEV1
  • Recorded observation of wheeze
  • PMHx Atopy
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122
Q

Outline the three categories of asthma risk.

A

1) High Asthma Risk
• Treatment
• Observe response

2) Intermediate Asthma Risk
• Investigations to check variability (reversibility, PEF charting, BPT) + Eosinophilic inflammation or atopy (FeNO, Blood cultures, Skin-prick IgE)
• Suspected asthma thus wait if asymptomatic or commence treatment if symptomatic

3) Low Asthma Risk
• Other Ddx
• Investigate differentials

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123
Q

What is the stepwise management of pharmacotherapy for asthma? Give the drugs used.

A
  • Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS): Budesonide (0.25-0.5mg/day nebulized); Fluticasone (100-200mcg/day)
  • Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist (LTRA): Monteleukast (4mg PO OD)
  • Long-Acting Beta Agonist: Salmeterol (50mcg BD)
  • Short-Acting Beta Agonist: Salbutamol (PRN)
  • Immunomodulator (Biologics): Omalizumab (Anti-IgE mAb)
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124
Q

What are the different types of severity of asthma and the features and the management of acute severe asthma in adults in hospital?

A
Severities of Asthma: 
1)	Acute Severe Features
•	PEF: 33-50% predicted 

•	Cannot complete sentences in one breath 

•	RR > 25 breaths/min ≈ tachypnoea

•	HR > 110 beats/min ≈ tachycardia
2)	Life-threatening Features
•	PEF < 33% predicted or best
•	SpO2 <92%
•	Silent chest, cyanosis, feeble respiratory effort
•	Arrhythmia or hypotension
•	Exhaustion, altered consciousness

Management:
1) Patient Improving
• Maintain treatment but change to 4-6 hourly for drugs

2) No Improvement in 15-30 minutes
• Continue O2 and steroids
• Use continuous nebulisation of salbutamol at 5-10mg/hour
• Continue ipratropium 0.5mg 4-6 hourly until improvement 


3) Still not improving
• Discuss with ICU/HDU/ITU and Senior Clinician
• Consider IV MgSO4 (bronchodilator) 1.2-2g over 20 minutes
• Give nebulizer of salbutamol more frequently 15-30 minutes or 10mg per hour via continuous nebulizer

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125
Q

How may biologics target the asthma endotypes?

A
  • Omalizumab: Anti-IgE mAb (Th2-hi asthma)
  • Dupilumab: Anti-IL-4 + IL-13 mAb (Th2-hi asthma)
  • Azithromycin: Reduces thymic stromal lymphopoeitin (TSLP) of Th2-hi asthma
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126
Q

List the main asthma endotypes and their characteristic features.

A

Asthma Endotypes:
1) T2-lo asthma 

• Th17
• Th1 

Cytokines: IL-17, CXCL8, INFy, TNFa 


2) Th2-hi asthma 

• Th2
• ILC 

Cytokines: IL-5, IL-4, IL-13

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127
Q

What is the relation between nasal stimulation and lower bronchi (lower airway) response?

A

Interaction between upper and lower airway inflammation ≈ nasal stimulation ≈ afferent feedback to CNS ≈ efferent neurone stimulation via PSNS Vagal Nerve ≈ constriction oflower airways

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128
Q

What are the categories of severity for asthma using PEF?

A

50%-75% ≈ mild 



33-50%: moderate 



33% > ≈ severe

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129
Q

Following discharge of a patient, how soon do you return to check and compare peak flow?

A

Discharge from hospital with consultant letter requires a 4 week review to review the peak flow (PEF) and compare to the normal and also what it was on discharge

130
Q

What is fremitus?

A

Bronchial fremitus ≈ palpable vibration produced by breathing with partial airway obstruction

131
Q

What are the three criteria of discharge for asthma?

A

1) Rx working with bronchodilators


2) PEF and or FEV > 75% best or predicted


3) SpO2 > 94% 


132
Q

What clinical sign may be observed if apical lung tumours are present?

A

1) Paraesthesia on medial aspect of upper arm due to brachial plexus impingement 


2) Horner’s Syndrome (ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis) due to compression of sympathetic chain / sympathetic outflow to eye compromised

133
Q

List the pathological changes associated with severe, chronic asthma.

A
  • Dilated blood vessels ≈ vasodilation 

  • Eosinophils 

  • Thickened BM
  • Mucus plug
  • Mast cells
  • Oedema
  • Hypertrophied smooth muscle 

  • Inflammatory infiltrate: mononuclear cells, eosinophils and mast cells)
134
Q

What are the broad routes of administration for Asthma and COPD drugs?

A

1) Inhaled 

- Site-specific 

- Rapid response 

- Smaller doses (as higher bioavailability)

- Reduced systemic/off-target side effects 



Note: Efficacy of route dependent on type and severity of asthma, particle size of medicine and inhaler technique 


2) Oral 



3) IV

135
Q

List 3 inhaler devices.

A
  • MDI
  • BAI


  • Accuhaler: dry powder which requires forceful inspiration to get dry powder to where required


  • Spacer/aerochamber: large volume
  • Nebuliser: Use O2, compressed air or ultrasonic power to break drug solutions into fine mist delivered via respiratory tract through face-mask/mouthpiece 

136
Q

Outline the pharmacological stepwise management of asthma. Give examples of drugs in each step.

A

1) Intermittent reliever 

- SABA: 4mg with 8mg max day e.g. Salbutamol, Terbutaline
2) Regular preventer therapy 

- ICS (low dose): 200-400mcg Beclomethasone or Fluticasone or Budesonide
3) Initial add-on therapy 

- LABA: Salmeterol, Formoterol
4) Additional controller therapy

- LRTA: Monteleukast 

5) Specialist therapies 

- Specialist referral e.g. Omalizumab


137
Q

Outline the MOA of SABA/LABA.

A
•	Bind ß2r ≈ increase Gas ≈ cAMP ≈ PKA ≈ Increase contraction ≈ stimulate bronchial smooth muscle + inhibit mediator release from mast cells and infiltrating leukocytes ≈ 

- Bronchodilation

- Reduce breathlessness 

- Increase air entry 

- Reduce inflammatory process

138
Q

List some side effects from SABA/LABA use.

A
  • Sympathomimetic effects
  • Muscle pain/cramps
  • Electrolyte disturbances (hypokalaemia)
  • Hyperglycaemia
  • Paradoxical bronchospasm (very rare)

Reduce dose following side-effects; minimal bronchodilating dose 2mg-4mg

139
Q

Compare the differences between SABAs and LABAs

A
SABA: Salbutamol and Terbutaline 
•	Fast acting 
•	Short half life 
•	Lasts < 5 hours
•	Reliever 
LABA: Salmeterol, Formoterol 
•	Longer acting
•	Longer half life
•	Lasts ≈ 12 hours 
•	Relieves bronchospasm at night or during exercise
140
Q

List the main indications for ICS Rx in Asthma.

A
  • Sx using SABA 3 times per week <
  • Dyssomnia with wheeze or cough
  • Asthma attack in last 2 years
141
Q

What is the MOA of ICS?

A

ICS binds GR (then chaperone protein transport) or diffuses across CSM ≈ ∆ transcription of genes in nucleus ≈

  • Reduced cytokine production

  • Reduced activation and recruitment to airways of inflammatory cells 

  • Inhibit generation of inflammatory prostaglandins and leukotrienes thus reducing mucosal oedema 

  • Decrease mucosal
142
Q

List the side effects of ICS.

A
  • Oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush)
  • Dysphonia (hoarseness of voice)

  • OP (chronic high dose)

  • Adrenal insufficiency
  • Growth retardation
143
Q

List the two types M3r antagonists used to treat Asthma. Give an example of a drug in each class.

A
  • SAMA: Ipratropium

* LAMA: Umeclidinium

144
Q

Outline the MOA of LAMA/SAMA.

A

• SAMA or LAMA binds M3r antagonists ≈ competitive antagonist ≈ 

- Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

- Bronchodilation

145
Q

List the side effects of LAMA/SAMA.

A
  • Dry Mouth
  • Difficult micturition
  • Increased intraocular pressure
146
Q

Give an example of a drug that is a LTRA.

A

• Monteleukast

147
Q

List the indications for LTRAs in Rx of asthma.

A
  • Asthma Sx when SABA and ICS used ± LABA
  • Exercise-induced asthma
  • Reduce early and late-phase bronchoconstriction responses to allergens
148
Q

Outline the MOA for LTRAs.

A

• LTRAs bind LTRA ≈ block LTRA ≈ 

- Block effect of cysteinyl leukotrienes in airways

- Reduced bronchoconstriction 

- Reduce eosinophil recruitment to airways reducing inflammation, epithelial damage and airway hyperactivity

149
Q

List the side effects of LTRAs.

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • GI symptoms: Diarrhea, Nausea, Vomiting
  • Increased URT infections
  • Hyperkinesia
150
Q

Give an example of two methylxanthines derivatives

A
  • Theophylline

* Aminophylline

151
Q

Give the indications of methylxanthine use in the Rx of asthma.

A

• Chronic, persistent asthma

152
Q

Outline the MOA for methylxanthines.

A

• Methylxanthines ≈ PDE inhibitors + blocks adenosine receptors
1) PDE Inhibition

- PDE reduced inflammation

- Reduced inflammatory cells 



2) Adenosine receptor blocker 

- Bronchodilation 

- Histone deacetylase ≈ immunomodulatory

153
Q

List the side effects of methylxanthines.

A
  • GI upset
  • Arrhythmia
  • CNS Stimulation E.g. Seizures
  • Hypotension
154
Q

List substances that may be consumed which increase exposure to methylxanthines.

A
  • ABX: Quinolones, Macrolides
  • Coffee
  • Chocolate
155
Q

What indication(s) are there for the use of monoclonal antibodies in the Rx of Asthma.

A

• Severe, persistent allergic asthma

156
Q

Outline the MOA of monoclonal antibodies used in allergic asthma treatment.

A

• Omalizumab (Xolair) or Mepolizumab ≈ anti-IgE inhibiting mediator release from basophils and mast cells

157
Q

List the side effects of Omalizumab.

A
  • Anaphylaxis

* Increased risk of CVI/CHD/MI

158
Q

What is the recent transition in medical practice regarding treatment of patients as a collective and what does this allow?

A

Paradigm Shift in Treatment from one-size-fits-all to precision medicine model with multi-level patient stratification. Precision medicine allows delivery of right intervention to right patient at the right time

159
Q

List 3 ways patients may be grouped in Stratified Medicine.

A
  • Disease subtypes
  • Risk profiles
  • Demographics
  • Socioeconomic
  • Clinical features
  • Biomarker
  • Molecular sub-populations
160
Q

List 3 ways patients may be grouped in Personalised Medicine.

A
  • Genomics and Omics
  • Lifestyle
  • Preferences
  • Health history
  • Medical records
  • Compliance
  • Exogenous factors
161
Q

List two risk factors for Cystic Fibrosis.

A
  • FHx of CF

* Caucasian (European ancestry)

162
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of Cystic Fibrosis.

A

• Autosomal recessive disease due to mutated CFTR causing reduced apical chloride secretion ≈ reduced osmotic gain and reduced mucous clearance ≈ accumulation of viscous mucous causing damage to respiratory and digestive systems

163
Q

List 3 screening tools to identify/raise suspicion of Cystic Fibrosis in a neonate.

A
  • Heel prick
  • IRT level –> non-specific, requires genome analysis
  • CFTR gene mutation
164
Q

How does R117H act as a mild mutation in Cystic Fibrosis?

A

R117H is a mild mutation making which does not present in childhood in most heterozygotes with effect of R117H mutation varying according to intron 8 splice site efficiency ≈lower thymine (Ts) in Intron 8 ≈ Exon9-CFTR mRNA ≈ dysfunctional CFTR protein

165
Q

What type of mutation is R117H in Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Mis-sense

166
Q

What are the implications for the parents following a positive neonatal diagnosis?

A
  • Cascade testing
  • Prenatal Diagnosis (PND)
  • Pre-implantation Genetic Diagnosis (PGD)
167
Q

What are gene modifiers? Give examples of outcomes in context of Cystic Fibrosis.

A

Gene modifiers of Cystic Fibrosis –> Affect expression of other genes
• CFM1: Meconium ileus: Bowel obstruction when meconium thickens
• Pulmonary phenotype severity: TGFß1, TNF-a, HLA-II, MBL2
• Microbial infections: NOS1
• GI phenotype: Muc1

168
Q

List mutations of CFTR that yield Cystic Fibrosis.

A
  • R117H: reduced thymine (T) Intron 8 ≈ Exon9-CFTR mRNA ≈ dysfunctional protein
  • F508del: Deletion ≈ ∆CFTR ≈ reduced Cl- efflux ≈ viscous mucous accumulation
  • G551D: ∆CFTR ≈ reduced Cl- efflux ≈ viscous mucous accumulation
169
Q

Give an example of a targeted treatment for Cystic Fibrosis. Which genetic mutation is this targeting.

A

Ivacaftor

Targets G551D

170
Q

Outline the main types of lung cancer and their key features

A

1) Small-Cell Lung Cancer
• Cells near bronchi
• Smoking
• Aggressive thus poor prognosis

2) Large Cell Carcinoma
• Any region of lung
• Grows and spreads quickly

3)	Squamous cell carcinoma (30%) 
•	Squamous cells of airways near bronchi 
•	Smoking 
•	Men > Women
•	Slow tumor growth 

4) Adenocarcinoma (40%)
• Cells lining alveoli (connective tissue)
• Common in non-smokers and smokers

171
Q

Which is the most prevalent lung cancer? Which types of cells does it affects and who is it common in?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Cells lining alveoli

Common in non-smokers and smokers

172
Q

Which type of lung cancer is the most aggressive, with the worst prognosis? Where does this affect.

A

Small-Cell Lung Cancer

Affects cells near bronchi

173
Q

Which type of lung cancer grows and spreads fast?

A

Large cell Carcinoma

174
Q

Which type of lung cancer has a slow growth and affects squamous cells of airways near bronchi?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

Affects squamous cells of airways near bronchi

175
Q

Give two examples of common types of genes implicated in cancer. Which type of functional mutations do each undergo and what does this result in?

A

1) Oncogenes
• Dominant mutation
• GOF
• Excess cell survival and proliferation

2)	Tumour-suppresor genes
•	Recessive mutation 
•	LOF 
•	Multi-HIT hypothesis 
•	Excess survival and proliferation
176
Q

List 5 ways a protooncogene may become an oncogene.

A
  • Mutation in coding sequence: DNA/RNA/Protein activity
  • Gene amplification: DNA/RNA/Protein increased
  • Chromosome rearrangement
  • Change output: RNA/Protein
  • Change function (fusion): RNA (fusion)/Protein (fusion)
177
Q

Give an example of a common receptor mutation which, when altered, is implicated in the pathogenesis of cancer?

A

Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR) ≈ ∆EGFR ≈ GOF ≈ Increased dimerisation ≈ increased AutoP + TransP ≈ triggers signal transduction cascade ≈ drives: MAPK; JAK-STAT; mTOR pathways ≈ cell proliferation, cell survival, migration, adhesion and differentiation

178
Q

Give an example of a mutation in EGFR causing Lung Cancer.

A
  • Del747

* T790M

179
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Lung Cancer regarding a growth factor receptor.

A

• Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR) ≈ ∆EGFR ≈ GOF ≈ Increased dimerisation ≈ increased AutoP + TransP ≈ triggers signal transduction cascade ≈ drives: MAPK; JAK-STAT; mTOR pathways ≈ cell proliferation, cell survival, migration, adhesion and differentiation

180
Q

Give an example of a treatment for Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer

A

• Gefitinib: binds ATP binding pocket of tyrosine kinase ≈ prevent downstream signaling

181
Q

What is the difference between driver and passenger mutations? Why is this relevant?

A

Driver mutations: Drive tumour transformation/growth 



Passenger mutations: Essential for tumour growth + survival

Relevance: Find passenger mutations to target passenger mutations as secondary


182
Q

What is clonality and resistance?

A

Clonality: Tumour cell with mutation replicates ≈ cell proliferation, survival and cell invasion ≈ identical tumour cells (with cancer stem cell characteristics)

Resistance: Tumour cell has mutation ≈ ∆ action of EGFR ≈ Gefitinib no longer works ≈cell survival, cell proliferation + cell invasion

183
Q

What drives respiratory infection broadly?

A
  • Host 

  • Pathogen

  • Current techniques
    
- Imminent techniques
    
- Future strategies
  • Perspectives, public health, paradigm
184
Q

What drives respiratory failure regarding immunological failure? List three key areas and examples within each.

A

1) Local defences failure
• Barriers: skin, squamous, epithelium, uroepithelium
• Clearance: tears, cilia, ducts, hollow organs
• Physical conditions: acid, bile, lysozyme, orosomucoid (or alpha-1-acid glycoprotein a1AGP ≈ APP synthesised by hepatocytes)
• Normal Flora

2) Innate immune response failure
• Phagocytosis: Destruction + Oxidative burst

• Complement system: Phagocytic cell recruitment (C3a + C5a) + Phagocytosis (C3b) + MAC (C5b-C9)

3) Adaptive immune response failure
• Immune activation: TNF, IL-1 and other cytokines ≈ CD4 Helper cells driven with IL-2 cytokines
• B lymphocytes: Plasma cell and memory cell production
• T lymphocytes: Cytotoxic cells, Killer cells, T8 suppressor cells

185
Q

List the two types of immunodeficiency. Give an example of each

A

a) Primary Immunodeficiency: Genetic Defects
1) B cell immunodeficiencies: Reduced Ab ≈ severe recurret infections

2) T cell immunodeficiencies: Reduced B cell activation, microbe illing and signalling
3) Severe Combined Immune Deficiencies: T and B cell function decreased
4) Phagocyte disorders: Reduced phagocytosis, recurrent infections, Chronic Granulomatous Disease
5) Complement defects: Reduced complement proteins; may result in autoimmune condition development

b) Second Immunodeficiency: Environmental factors
1) Malnutrition

2) Drug Regimens
3) Acute infection
4) Chronic infection

186
Q

List 3 examples of primary immunodeficiencies.

A

1) B cell immunodeficiencies: Reduced Ab ≈ severe recurret infections
2) T cell immunodeficiencies: Reduced B cell activation, microbe illing and signalling
3) Severe Combined Immune Deficiencies: T and B cell function decreased
4) Phagocyte disorders: Reduced phagocytosis, recurrent infections, Chronic Granulomatous Disease
5) Complement defects: Reduced complement proteins; may result in autoimmune condition development

187
Q

List 3 examples of secondary immunodeficiencies.

A

1) Malnutrition
2) Drug Regimens
3) Acute infection
4) Chronic infection

188
Q

What is the lung microbiome?

A

Existence of microbial community in a dynamic state, vulnerable to stresses

189
Q

What is a respiratory pathogen? Give examples of broad categories.

A

A microorganism which can cause disease in the respiratory system 

- Virus

- Bacteria 

- Mycobacteria (Non-Tuberculous Mycobacteria)

- Fungi

- Other
- Parasites

190
Q

List three diseases which may be classified as an URTI.

A

Pharyngitis

Otitis media/Sinusitis

Epiglottitis

Croup

191
Q

List 5 pathogens which may cause pharyngitis.

A
  • S. pyogenes
  • Rhinovirus
  • N. gonorrhea
  • C. albicans
  • C. diptheriae
  • H. influenzae
192
Q

List 3 symptoms and 2 signs which may be observed in a patient with pharyngitis.

A
  • Local pain
  • Dysphagia
  • Odynophagia
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Eustachian tube/sinuses occluded by inflammation
193
Q

How would you manage a patient with pharyngitis?

A
  • Supportive treatment (if viral)

* ABX: Penicillin V or Macrolide (Erythromycin)

194
Q

List 3 pathogens which may cause otitis media with sinusitis.

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • S. pyogenes
  • H. influenzae
  • M. catarrhalis
  • A. otitidis
195
Q

Give the signs and symptoms associated with otitis media.

A
  • Pain
  • Fever
  • Pain worsens in evening and with head movement
  • Increased retrotympanic fluid levels with auroscope
196
Q

How would you manage otitis media with sinusitis.

A

ABX

197
Q

Give two pathogens which commonly cause supraglottitis.

A
  • H. influenzae
  • S. pyogenes
  • Parainfluenza
198
Q

Give the signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis.

A
  • Dysphagia
  • High fever
  • Stridor
  • Drooling
  • Cherry red spot
199
Q

How would you manage acute epiglottitis?

A
  • ABX: Cephalosporin
  • Intubation
  • Steroid
  • Emergency tracheostomy
200
Q

List 4 possible disease causes of LRTI.

A

CAP

Pneumonia in Immunocompromised patients

TB

Bronchiectasis

Bordatella pertussis

Chronic Pulmonary Aspergillosis

201
Q

List investigations to be ordered in a suspected pneumonia patient.

A
  • CXR
  • ABG
  • FBC: Leukocytosis
  • CRP
  • Sputum culture
  • NAAT
  • Ag detection (Immunofluorescence)
202
Q

List 3 pathogen causes of Pneumonia in immunocompromised patients.

A
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii
  • Aspergillus
  • M. tuberculosis
  • M. avian
  • Cytomegalovirus
203
Q

List 3 pathogen causes of Pneumonia in patients.

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • Respiratory Syncitial Virus
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Coronavirus (nCov-19)
204
Q

List the possible investigations that can be ordered in a suspected pneumonia patient.

A
  • CXR
  • ABG
  • FBC: Leukocytosis
  • CRP
  • Sputum culture
  • Nasopharyngeal aspirate
  • Bronchoalveolar lavage
  • NAAT
  • Immunofluorescent Antibody Detection
205
Q

Give the pathogen cause of Tuberculosis.

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

206
Q

List the causes of Bronchiectasis (categories). Give an example for each category given.

A
  • Genetic: Cystic fibrosis; Ciliary dyskinesia ± Kartagener’s Syndrome (ciliary dyskinesia, situs invertus and chronic sinusitis); alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency; CT disorders; IBD; COPD and asthma; Focal bronchial obstruction
  • Immunodeficiency
  • Post-infectious: Measles/influenza/pertussis/Mycobacteria/Aspergillus
207
Q

List the possible investigations for a patient with Bronchiectasis.

A
  • CXR
  • CT-Chest
  • FBC
  • Sputum culture
  • Bronchial biopsy
208
Q

Give the main pathogen cause of Whooping Cough.

A

Bordatella pertussis

209
Q

List the common investigations which may be ordered in a suspected Whooping Cough patient.

A
  • PCR of nasopharyngeal aspirate
  • Serology
  • FBC: WBC may be raised
  • Direct fluorescent antibody test
210
Q

List some emerging technologies which may be implemented in investigation and diagnostics for respiratory medicine.

A
1)	Rapid diagnostics
E.g. Molecular Bacterial Load Assay (MBLA)
•	Rapid diagnosis 
•	Rapid treatment
•	ABX
•	Visualise viral load with MBLA 
  • Cost
  • Specificity and sensitivity may vary

2) Rapid Sequencing
E.g. Whole Genome Sequencing

  • Cost
  • Speed
  • Logistics
  • Bioinformatics
  • Clinical utility
  • Cost
  • Accessibility

3) Breath analytics
4) Bacteriophages

5) Nanotechnology
• Drugs delivered

6) Immunotherapy

211
Q

What are the responses of a viral-infected cell?

A
  • Cytokine secretion: IFN-a + IFN-ß ≈ protect cells + up-regulate MHC Class I for CD8 T(ctx) response
    
- Increase MHC class I expression + antigen presentation in all cells
    
- Activate DCs and macrophages
    
- Activate NK cells to kill virus-infected cells
212
Q

List respiratory system barriers to infection.

A
  • Respiratory epithelium
  • Goblet cells: Mucous production ≈ trap pathogen
  • Cilia: Beating cilia ≈ retrograde movement of pathogens to be swallowed and digested in GI or coughed out
  • Respiratory epithelium: Tight junctions ≈ impermeability and reduced diffusion rate
  • AMPs: ß-defensins ≈ kill pathogen
  • Cytokine secretion: Respiratory epithelium bind pathogen (PAMPs) via TLRs ≈ innate immune system activation
213
Q

What is the route of entry for respiratory pathogens? How are they transmitted?

A

Route of Entry

• Mouth and Respiratory Tract

Mode of Transmission

  • Inhalation
  • Ingestion
214
Q

What is the normal course of infection from a pathogen?

A

Standard course of infection for a pathogen

  • Entry
  • Survival + transmission

  • Attachment to surface of the host
  • Overcoming the body defences against infection e.g. capsule
  • Ability to damage the host e.g. toxin production or capsule ≈ virulence factors: Toxin secretion (toxigenesis)/ Pilus formation/ Capsule/ Adhesion/ Enzymes 

215
Q

List mechanisms used by viruses to overcome the host immune system.

A
  • Antigenic variation: Antigenic drift + Antigenic shift
  • Evasion of immune system: Virus encodes mutations which target APC, MHC processing and Humoral immunity
  • Immunoevasins
  • Dormancy
216
Q

What type of cells respond to viral attack by up regulating cell surface receptor complexes? Which type are these and what is the aim of this upregulation of these surface proteins?

A

Nucleated cells up regulate cell surface proteins for acquired immune system to recognise foreign molecules ≈ upregulate MHC Class I ≈ antigen presentation to CD8 cytotoxic T cells

  • T cells
  • B cells
  • Macrophages
  • Dendritic cells
  • Neutrophils
217
Q

What cell would not up regulate MHC class I receptor if infected by a virus and why?

A

Anucleated cells cannot upregulate MHC I class receptor e.g. RBC

218
Q

List mechanisms by which a virus may evade the immune system. Give examples of viruses which may fit into each mechanism.

A

1) Antigenic drift/shift (partial evasion/full evasion)
• Change viral markers (haemaglutinin/cross-protective) ≈ reduce detection and presentation

2) Evade immune system
• CMV: Encode chemokine receptor
• HSV: Encode complement receptor/Encode Fc receptor
• EBV: Encode homologue of IL-10 to inhibit Th1 lymphocytes

3) Immunoevasins: specialized viral proteins blocking viral peptide entry to ER for processing and placing into MHC class I to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

  • HSV: ICP47/US6
  • hCMV: US3
4)	Dormancy: Latent viruses persist in the host by lying dormant, not replicating 
•	HSV-1
•	HSV-2
•	HPV
•	HIV
219
Q

Give an example of a disease which causes a primary infection then the residual infection later persists along a nerve distribution.

A
  • HSV-1 virus infects skin but cleared by immune system
    
- Residual infection persists in nuclei of sensory neurones serving infected tissue 

  • Virus transcribes part of genome ≈ LAT protein≈ suppress lytic cycle + interferes with host cell apoptosis ≈ prolong life of cell 
- Virus re-activated by environmental factors or other host conditions viral particles travel retrograde along neurones to tissue ≈ repeat infections e.g. cold sores on lips
220
Q

Name the type of host immune response that fights extracellular bacteria?

A

Extracellular bacteria elicit Innate Lymphoid Cells (ILC) type 3 immune response involving TH17 and neutrophils 
- Neutrophilic responses 

- Drive opsonisation + complement fixing Abs
- Production of AMPs 

- MAMPs activating innate immunity

- Gram negative LPS activates TLR4

- Gram positive PDG activate TLR2, NOD1 and NOD2

221
Q

How is intracellular bacteria cleared?

A

Macrophages phagocytose bacteria breached barriers then phagosome fuses with lysosome and bacterium degraded ≈ APC to TH1 cells ≈ enhance macrophage activity + attract inflammatory infiltrate

222
Q

What is an example of a respiratory pathogen which causes caseating cavitation of the lower respiratory tract? How does it work and what immune response type does it form?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis enters respiratory system via inhalation ≈ engulfed by alveolar macrophages ≈Cord 1 prevents phagolysosome formation ≈ drives type 1 immune response ≈ chronic low level of infection ≈ TH1 CD4+ T cells + CD8+ T cells ≈ cytokines e.g. IFN-y ≈ drive granuloma formation ≈ central core of infected macrophages with MCG surrounded by large macrophages called epitheloid cells ≈ TNF-a ≈ core may become necrotic ≈ caseating 


223
Q

List the immune response following IgE release due to soluble antigens. Which effector cells are present and cytokines.

A

Type 2

ILC-2

TH2 secretion of IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

Cells:
Granulocytes 
Mast cells
Basophils
Neutrophils
224
Q

List the immune response following viruses and bacteria (IC). Which effector cells mediate this and what cytokine profile is seen.

A

Type 1

ILC-1

Th1 (CD4+) and TctX (CD8+), IL-12; secreting IFN-y, IL-12

Cells:
Macrophages
Opsonising IgGs

225
Q

List the atmospheric pressures, as a percentage, of the main gases.

A
  • Nitrogen = 79%
  • Oxygen = 21%
  • Carbon Dioxide = 0.03%
  • Others = 1%
226
Q

How do you convert mmHg to kPa?

A

mmHg / 7.5 ≈ kPa

227
Q

What is partial pressure? Calculate this for oxygen.

A
  • Pressure of gas contributing to total pressure

* 21/100 x 760 = 160mmHg

228
Q

What is the relationship between barometric pressure and altitude? Give an example of what happens when altitude increases.

A
  • Inversely proportional
  • Altitude increases ≈ barometric pressure decreases ≈ pressure ∆ from 760mmHg ≈ Pressure < 760mmHg + oxygen concentration stays the same (21%) ≈ (21/100) x (Y < mmHg) ≈ reduced oxygen availability ≈ ∆ respiration gradients for gas exchange
229
Q

List two factors contributing to gas dissolving in liquids.

A
  • Pgas

* Solubility

230
Q

Why does alveolar gas concentration differ from atmospheric? Calculate alveolar gas pressure for oxygen.

A
  • Alveolar gas saturated with water vapour so pH20 (≈ -47mmHg) reduces partial pressure of alveolar prior to multiplication against gas concentration
    • 47mmHg

PO2 Alveolar Gas Concentration
• (760-47) x 21/100 = 150mmHg

231
Q

Outline the major partial pressure gradients in both pulmonary and systemic circulation for the two main gases controlled in respiratory physiology.

A

1) Oxygen
• Pulmonary circulation: Alveoli (100mmHg)  Blood (40mmHg)

• Systemic circulation: Blood (100mmHg)  Tissues (< 40mmHg)

2) Carbon Dioxide
• Pulmonary circulation: Blood (46mmHg)  Alveoli (40mmHg)

• Systemic circulation: Tissues (> 46mmHg)  Blood (40mmHg)

232
Q

List the three categories of components of the respiratory control system.

A
  • Stimuli
  • Sensors (Central + Peripheral Chemoreceptors)
  • Central Control (PONS, Medulla)
  • Effectors (Respiratory Muscles)
233
Q

List three pathophysiological stimuli for the respiratory system. Outline how each mediates its response roughly.

A
  • Hypoxia: < 60mmHg –> peripheral chemoreceptors (Carotid + Aortic Bodies) –> Sinus Nerve of Hering to Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX) and Aortic nerve to Vagus Nerve (CN X) –> inspiratory group (DRG) ± Pneumotaxic Centre (or Apneustic)
  • Hypercapnia: Increase PCO2  increase [H+] –> central chemoreceptors –> increase inspiratory center in medulla oblongata output
  • Acidosis: increase [H+] –> central chemoreceptors –> increase inspiratory center in medulla oblongata output
234
Q

List the inputs to the medullary control centres and their stimuli.

A

1) Voluntary Control: Cerebral cortex
• Bypass respiratory control centres in brainstem via cerebral cortex, sending signals directly to motor neurons in spinal cord which innervate respiratory muscles

2) Reflex modification
a) Pulmonary Stretch Receptors: Hering-Breuer reflex: Inspiration ≈ ∆ pulmonary stretch receptors ≈ afferent discharge inhibits inspiration

b) Irritant receptors: Irritants (Smoke, dust, noxious gases…) ≈ detected by irritant receptors (free nerve endings between airway epithelial cells) ≈ initiate reflex bronchial + laryngeal constriction
c) Juxta-Capillary Receptors: Change in interstitial fluid volume ≈ J-receptors detect ∆ in alveolar walls (close to capillaries) ≈ afferent impulses up Vagus never in slow conducting myelinated fibres ≈ rapid, shallow breathing
d) Upper Airway Receptors: Mechanical + chemical stimuli ≈ upper airway receptors detect ∆ ≈ deep inspiration + closure of glottis ≈ pressure builds then expel via sneeze or cough

235
Q

What is the name of the reflex mediated by pulmonary stretch receptors?

A

Hering-Breuer reflex: Inspiration ≈ ∆ pulmonary stretch receptors ≈ afferent discharge inhibits inspiration

236
Q

Which reflex is mediated by the ____ receptors following changes in interstitial fluid volume? Outline the mechanism briefly.

A

J-receptors detect ∆ in alveolar walls (close to capillaries) ≈ afferent impulses up Vagus never in slow conducting myelinated fibres ≈ rapid, shallow breathing

237
Q

List three indirect receptors which respond to stimuli, relaying to the medullary control centres.

A
  • Joint and muscle receptors
  • Gamma System
  • Arterial baroceptors
  • Pain and temperature receptors
238
Q

Outline the cough reflex.

A

Involuntary response to mechanical or chemical stimuli detected by upper airway receptors or pulmonary irritant receptors in epithelium ≈ afferent impulses via Vagus Nerve to medulla oblongata ≈ efferent impulses via Phrenic or Intercostal nerves ≈ expel irritant via cough or sneeze

239
Q

List two regions of the brain which are responsible for respiratory rhythm generation.

A

1) PONS (Modulate MO)

2) Medulla Oblongata (Prime Driver of Ventilation)

240
Q

In the PONS, state the two areas, their roles and their MOA.

A

a) Pneumotaxic Centre: DRG fire  Stimulation of Pneumotaxic Centre –> Terminates inspiration (tax) ≈ reduced inspiration depth but increased rate (as frequency is higher)
b) Apneustic Area: Stimulation excites DRG –> prolong inspiration with long + deep breathes to control intensity of breathing –> increase tidal volume and reduce RR

241
Q

Which PONS region has greatest effect on increasing respiratory rate?

A

a) Pneumotaxic Centre: DRG fire –> Stimulation of Pneumotaxic Centre –> Terminates inspiration (tax) ≈ reduced inspiration depth but increased rate (as frequency is higher)

242
Q

Which PONS region has greatest effect on increasing depth of breathing?

A

b) Apneustic Area: Stimulation excites DRG –> prolong inspiration with long + deep breathes to control intensity of breathing –> increase tidal volume and reduce RR

243
Q

Outline the functional process occurring in the Inspiratory centre of the Medulla Oblongata.

A

Inspiratory Centre: Pre-Botzinger complex –> DRG –> contraction of diaphragm, external intercostal, SCM and anterior scalene –> inspiration –> firing ceases ≈ expiration

244
Q

Outline the functional process occurring in the Expiratory Centre of the Medulla Oblongata.

A

Expiratory Centre: DRG excites VRG –> VRG ≈ contraction: internal intercostals + abdominals ≈ forceful respiration

Concept: VRG do not fire in normal, passive inspiration

245
Q

List the divisions of a cough.

A

1) Infectivity: Infectious vs Non-infectious
2) Location: URTI (Cough, Coryzal Sx) vs LRTI (Bronchitis, Pneumonia
3) Time: Acute (< 3 weeks), Subacute (3-8 weeks), Chronic (8 weeks)

246
Q

What are the time divisions of a cough (chronicity?)?

A

Acute (< 3 weeks)

Subacute (3-8 weeks), Chronic (8 weeks)

247
Q

List 5 red flags for a cough.

A
  • Hemoptysis
  • Smoker
  • Age: 55+
  • Hoarseness
  • Fever
  • Weight loss
  • Dysphagia
  • Vomiting
  • Recurrent PNA
248
Q

List 5 common causes of cough.

A
  • Asthma
  • COPD
  • PNA
  • Post-infectious
  • Post-nasal drip
  • GORD
  • ACEi
  • Bronchitis
  • Whooping cough
249
Q

List 3 uncommon causes of cough.

A
  • Tuberculosis
  • Bronchiectasis
  • Sarcoidosis
  • Interstitial Pulmonary Fibrosis
  • Methotrexate, Amiodarone, Rheumatoid lung
250
Q

Outline the key differentiating factors (Sx and Signs) for the conditions: Pneumonia, Lung cancer, Post-nasal drip, Post-infectious cough and GORD.

A
  • Pneumonia: Sx = Fever, malaise, cough, pleuritic, chest pain, sputum (green/pink +/- haemoptysis); Signs = Pyrexia, tachycardia, confusion, hypotension, cyanosis, tachypnoea, rales, regional (lobar)/widespread
  • Lung Cancer: Sx = Chronic cough, haemoptysis, long term smoker, weight loss, malaise; Signs = cachexia, tachypnoea, supraclavicular nodes, low pitched wheeze
  • UACS/Post-nasal drip (Overlap with Rhinosinusitis): Sx = FOSIT, hoarseness/throat clearing/bad taste/blocked/runny nose; Signs = post-pharyngeal mucous, absence of chest signs
  • Post-infectious cough: Sx = FOSIT, hoarseness/throat clearing, halitosis; Signs: mucous may be purulent
  • GORD: Sx = cough, post-prandial exacerbation, associated with heartburn, reflux symptoms; Signs: Normal exam
251
Q

List 3 risk factors for COPD.

A
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Advanced age
  • Genetic factors: Anti-alpha trypsin
  • White ancestry
252
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of COPD.

A

• Stimuli (smoking, reduced anti-alpha trypsin ≈ more trypsin) ≈ chronic inflammation ≈ narrowing + remodeling of airways, increased goblet cells, enlargement of mucous-secreting glands of central airways, vascular bed changes ≈ loss of elastin and alveolar integrity (emphysema)

253
Q

List 2 key symptoms of COPD.

A
  • Cough (morning, productive)

* Dyspnea

254
Q

List 5 signs you may see in a patient with COPD.

A
  • Sputum
  • Barrel chest (AP diameter increased)
  • Hyper-resonance on percussion
  • Distant breath sounds on auscultation
  • Poor air movement on auscultation (loss of lung elasticity and lung tissue breakdown)
  • Wheezing on auscultation
  • Coarse crackles (mucous and inflammation)
255
Q

List the investigations used to diagnose COPD.

A
  • Spirometry: FEV1/FEVC < 0.7
  • SpO2: Low saturation
  • ABG: PaCO2 > 50mmHg; PaO2 < 60mmHg
  • CXR: Hyperinflation, increased AP ratio, flattened diaphragm, increased ICS, hyperlucent lungs
  • FBC: Raised Hct (polycythemia), possible raised WBC
  • ECG: Signs of RV hypertrophy, arrhythmia, ischemia
  • Alpha-1 antitrypsin level
  • Sputum culture
256
Q

In spirometry, what result would be expected in a patient with COPD. What pattern would this be classed under?

A

FEV1/FEVC < 0.7

Obstructive

257
Q

How would you manage COPD.

A
  • LAMA: Tiotropium (18mcg OD)
  • SABA: Salbutamol (100-200mcg 4-6 hours PRN)
  • ICS: Flutcasone (100/25 mcg OD)
  • Smoking cessation
  • Pulmonary rehabilitation
  • Long-term oxygen therapy
258
Q

How can COPD be pharmacologically managed?

A
  • LAMA: Tiotropium (18mcg OD)
  • SABA: Salbutamol (100-200mcg 4-6 hours PRN)
  • ICS: Flutcasone (100/25 mcg OD)
259
Q

How could COPD be passively managed?

A
  • Smoking cessation
  • Pulmonary rehabilitation
  • Long-term oxygen therapy
260
Q

List 5 risk factors for Pneumonia.

A
  • Age > 65 years
  • Exposure to healthcare setting
  • COPD
  • Exposure to cigarette smoke
  • Poor oral hygiene
  • Use of acid-reducing drugs: PPIs
  • Alcohol abuse
261
Q

List 5 pathogens which can cause pneumonia.

A
S. pneumoniae
Influenza virus
S. aureus
H. influenza
M. pneumoniae
L. pneumophila
P. aeruginosa
262
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of Pneumonia.

A

• S. pneumoniae/Influenza virus/ S. aureus/H. influenza/M. pneumoniae/L. pneumophila/P. aeruginosa inhaled/aspiration/haematogenous spread from localized infection/direct extension from adjacent infected foci –> colonise respiratory epithelium –> Virulence factors + inoculum size > host factors –> consolidation, cough, pleuritic pain, cough and sputum

263
Q

List 5 symptoms of pneumonia.

A
  • Cough + sputum (mucopurulent = bacterial; scant/watery = atypical)
  • Dyspnea
  • Pleuritic chest pain
  • Fever
  • Confusion
  • Rigors/night sweats
264
Q

List 3 signs of pneumonia.

A
  • Abnormal auscultator findings: Crackles, decreased breath sounds, dullness to percussion
  • Bronchial breathing
  • Hyporesonance on percussion
265
Q

List investigations which can be ordered in suspected Pneumonia.

A
  • CXR: Consolidation shown by shadowing, cavitation, pleural effusion, multifocal consolidation
  • SpO2 < 94%
  • ABG: May show low PaO2
  • U+E: Urea > 7mmol/L
  • FBC: Leukocytosis, WBC elevated
  • CRP: Elevated; > 100mg/L
  • LFTs: Normal or abnormal in Legionella pneumophilus infection
  • Blood culture
  • PCR
  • Urinary antigen testing for legionella and pneumococcus
266
Q

What decision making tool can be used regarding pneumonia and hospital admission?

A

Dependent on CRB65 score… Confusion + Respiratory Rate + Blood Pressure + Age (65)
• CRB65 3 or 4: Urgent hospital admission

267
Q

List 5 risk factors for TB.

A
  • Exposure to infection
  • Immunosuppression
  • Poverty
  • Malnutrition
  • Small community model (close contact)
  • Silicosis
  • Malignancy
  • Birth in an endemic country
  • HIV in appropriate areas
268
Q

What is the main pathogen causing tuberculosis?

A

• M. tuberculosis (gram positive bacilli; non-motile; aerobic; Cord factor)

269
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of TB.

A

• Inhalation of M. tuberculosis ≈ exposure to respiratory epithelium –> alveolar macrophages (CD14+) phagocytose M. tuberculosis –> Cord factor (glycolipid in M. tuberculosis) ≠ autophagolysosome formation –> TB hides in macrophages –> IL-4, IL-13, TNF-a and TGFß-1 –> macrophage aggregation to form necrotic MGCs with cheese appearance (caseating) –> limit damage and bacterial dissemination (–> IFN-y deficiency ≈ impaired granuloma formation ≈ disseminated TB)

270
Q

List the classifications and subclassifications of TB.

A

1) Primary TB
i) Latent Tuberculosis: CXR; Serology
ii) Active 1º TB: Sx, CXR and pathological findings

2) Secondary TB
i) Reactivation TB: Endogenous reactivation or Exogenous reactivation

3) Drug-resistant TB: Multiple organs affected, inadequate combination therapy of drug concentration

271
Q

List 3 symptoms of TB.

A
  • Cough: 2-3 weeks; dry  productive
  • Fever (low-grade)
  • Anorexia
  • Weight loss
  • Malaise
  • Night sweats
272
Q

List 3 signs of TB possibly observed in a patient.

A
  • Crackles
  • Bronchial breathing
  • Amphoric breath sounds (distant hollow breath sounds heard over cavities)
  • Clubbing
  • Erythema Nodosum
273
Q

List the investigations for a suspected TB case.

A
  • CXR: Fibronodular opacities in upper lobes ± cavitation; atypical pattern if opacities in middle or lower lobes, hilar or paratracheal lymphadenopathy and/or pleural effusion
  • Sputum acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear: 3 specimens, 8 hours apart  positive for AFB (M. avium and M. kansasii thus non-specific)
  • Sputum culture: Positive
  • FBC: Raised WBC; Low Hb; Elevated Eosinophils
  • NAAT: Positive for M. tuberculosis
274
Q

Outline the process of a skin test for TB.

A

Interpretation of TST  > 5mm positive: HIV positive; recent exposure; signs on CXR; > 10mm: high risk of reactivation (IV drug use, homelessness, endemic immigration, chronic illness, occupation); > 15mm: always positive, risk factors not needed

275
Q

What is the management for a patient with active TB.

A
  • Rifampin (antimycobacterial): 10mg/kg PO OD, maximum 600mg/dose
  • Isoniazid (antituberculosis): 5mg/kg PO OD, maximum 300mg/dose
  • Pyridoxine (vitamin B6): 25mg PO OD
  • Pyrazinamide: Calculated by lean body weight
  • Ethambutol (antituberculosis): Calculated by lean body weight
  • Isolation
  • Therapy monitoring
276
Q

What treatment for multidrug resistant TB is there?

A

• Moxifloxacin + Kanamycin/Isoniazid/Pyrazinamide/Ethambutol

277
Q

List 3 complications of TB and their clinical features or ways of differentiating.

A

• Adrenal TB 


  • Clinical features: Adrenal insufficiency, Addison Disease Sx
  • DDx: CT/MRI ≈ bilateral adrenal cortex enlargement, medullary destruction with calcification, Abnormal labs (elevated ACTH)

• Dermatological TB
- Clinical features: Lupus vulgaris primarily on face; Painless reddish-brown nodules (apple jelly nodules) @ efflorescence

• Urogenital TB

  • Clinical features: Dysuria, flank pain, haematuria, low-grade fever, prostatitis (males) or 2º amenorrhea and fallopian tube lesions
  • DDx: Sterile leukocytosis in 1st urine culture; Imaging: calcifications, strictures and cavities; Adnexal involvement: ID of M.tuberculosis in menstrual blood; Imaging: Pyosalpinx

• Miliary TB = lymphohematogenous spread of M.tuberculosis from pulmonary and extra pulmonary focus with multiple organ involvement and small granola lesions 


  • Clinical features: CXR shows small, nodular densities of equal size throughout lung (millet seed appearance), CNS, choroid, skin, liver/spleen (HSM), kidneys, adrenal glands
  • Management: Normal TB Therapy + Surgical interventions
278
Q

List 3 risk factors for Sarcoidosis

A
  • 20-40 y/o
  • Scandinavian origin
  • FHx sarcoidosis
  • PMHx infection: M.tuberculosis, Mycoplasma, B. Burgdoferi, P. acnes)
279
Q

List three putative pathogens for Sarcoidosis.

A

• PMHx infection: M.tuberculosis, Mycoplasma, B. Burgdoferi, P. acnes)

280
Q

What is the aetiology of Sarcoidosis.

A

Unknown
• Genetic
• Immunological
• Infectious (Viruses; B. burgdoferi, P. acnes, M. tuberculosis, Mycoplasma)

281
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of Sarcoidosis.

A

• Alveolar macrophages secrete TNF-a, IL-2, IL-12, IL-4 and IL-13 and TGFß –> CD4 lymphocytes and CD8 lymphocytes attracted –> CD4 throughout granuloma and CD8 lymphocytes around periphery –> non-caseating due to minimal necrosis (MGCs); Fibrosis; Calcium dysregulation (macrophages produce 1-a hydroxylase)

282
Q

List the different classifications for Sarcoidosis.

A
  • Systemic: Multisystem
  • Pulmonary: Lungs
  • Cutaneous: Plaques, lupus pernio
  • Ocular sarcoidosis: Anterior uveitis
  • Cardiac sarcoidosis: Heart block, CM
  • Neurosarcoidosis: Headaches, seizures
283
Q

List 3 Sx seen in Sarcoidosis.

A
  • Cough (non-productive)
  • Dyspnoea
  • Fatigue
  • Arthralgia
  • Photophobia (indicative of uveitis)
  • Red painful eye (indicative of uveitis)
  • Blurred vision (indicative of uveitis)
284
Q

List 5 potential Signs observed in a patient with Sarcoidosis.

A
  • Wheezing
  • Rhonchi (sonorous wheeze)
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Photophobia (indicative of uveitis)
  • Red painful eye (indicative of uveitis)
  • Blurred vision (indicative of uveitis)
  • Erythema nodosum
  • Lupus pernio
  • Facial palsy (occurs with uveoparotid fever)
  • Heart block
  • Arrhythmias
  • Headache
  • Seizures
  • Hepatomegaly
285
Q

List different investigates you would order in a patient with suspected sarcoidosis.

A
  • CXR: Hilar adenopathy, bilateral infiltrates, pleural effusions, egg shell calcifications, fibrosis
  • FBC: Anaemia, Leukopenia
  • U+E: Creatinine/Urea may be elevated if renal involvement
  • LFTs: Elevated AST and ALT (liver involvement)
  • Serum calcium: Hypercalcemia (granuloma produce 1a-hydroxylase and 1,25 hydroxyvitamin D3
  • ECG: Conduction defects
  • Bronchoscopy: Non-caseating granulomas with MGCs
  • Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL): Increased CD4+/CD8+ ratio
  • PFTs: Monitor disease ≈ Restrictive, obstructive or mixed pattern
286
Q

How do you manage Sarcoidosis with acute respiratory failure unable to tolerate oral intake?

A
  • IV Corticosteroid: Methylprednisolone 40mg IV every 6 hours
  • Ventilatory support and oxygen
287
Q

How do you manage Sarcoidosis with respiratory failure and can tolerate oral intake.

A
  • Corticosteroid: Prednisolone 40mg PO OD

* Ventilatory support and oxygen

288
Q

How do you manage Sarcoidosis with pulmonary disease?

A
  • Observation
  • Oral/Inhaled Corticosteroid: Prednisolone 20-40g PO OD for 1-3 months then reduce
  • (+ Adjunct) Methotrexate: 7.5mg PO OD increasing by 2.5mg per week to 15mg/week
  • (+ Adjunct) Oxygen: If SpO2 < 88%
289
Q

How do you manage sarcoidosis with cutaneous disease?

A
  • Topical corticosteroid: Triamcinolone topical 0.1% 2-4 times a day
  • Oral corticosteroid: Prednisolone 40mg PO OD
  • Hydroxychloroquine: 200-400mg PO OD
290
Q

How do you manage sarcoidosis with ocular disease?

A

• Topical corticosteroid: Prednisolone ophthalmic (1%) 1 drop into affected eye QDS

291
Q

How do you manage sarcoidosis with neurological disease?

A
  • Oral corticosteroid: Prednisolone 40mg PO OD

* Cytotoxics: Methotrexate 7.5mg PO OD then 2.5mg per week until 15mg/kg

292
Q

List two Syndromes associated with Sarcoidosis as variants.

A

1) Lofgren Syndrome: acute presentation with fever + Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, Erythema nodosum, Migratory polyarthritis (BME) Sx triad
2) Heerfordt Syndrome: chronic clinical presentation with Parotitis, Uveitis, Facial palsy (PUF) triad

293
Q

List the Symptom Triad of Lofgren Syndrome.

A
  • Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
  • Migratory polyarthritis (symmetrical arthritis 1º affecting ankles)
  • Erythema nodosum (extensor surface of lower legs)
294
Q

List the Symptom Triad of Heerfordt Syndrome.

A
  • Parotitis
  • Uveitis
  • Facial palsy
295
Q

List 3 main treatments for the management of COPD.

A

1) M3r Antagonists (LAMA + SAMA) 


2) ICS 


3) ß2 Agonists (SABA + LABA)

296
Q

Outline the MOA of SAMA/LAMA.

A

SAMA or LAMA binds M3r antagonists ≈ competitive antagonist ≈

- Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

- Bronchodilation

- Reduce mucous secretion

- Increase mucocilliary clearance 


297
Q

List 3 side effects of M3r antagonists used in COPD.

A
  • Dry mouth
    
- Difficult micturition ≈ urinary retention (in men)
    
- Constipation 

  • Nausea 

  • Headache 

  • Increase intraocular pressure ≈ worsen angle closure glaucoma
298
Q

When may LAMAs and SAMAs not be effective.

A

In allergen challenge

299
Q

What is the second line treatment for COPD. When is it indicated.

A

ICS - Inhaled Corticosteroids ≈ Regular preventer (anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive)

  • Symptoms using SABA more than 3 times per week

  • Dyssomnia with wheeze or cough
    
- Asthma attack in last 2 years
    
- Adherence
    
- Slower onset of action
    
- Longer term effects over months
  • reduction in airways responsiveness to allergens and irritants (including exercise)
300
Q

Give two types of corticosteroids used in COPD. List two examples in each category.

A

1) Inhaled

- Beclomethasone

- Budesonide

- Fluticasone 



2) Oral route (more severe asthma attack)

- Prednisolone 

- Hydrocortisone (IV)

301
Q

What is the MOA of ICS?

A

ICS binds GR (then chaperone protein transport) or diffuses across CSM ≈ ∆ transcription of genes in nucleus ≈


  • Reduced cytokine production

  • Reduced activation and recruitment to airways of inflammatory cells 

  • Inhibit generation of inflammatory prostaglandins and leukotrienes thus reducing mucosal oedema 

  • Decrease mucosal inflammation, widens airway and reduces mucous secretion
302
Q

What are the side-effects of ICS?

A
  • Oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush) 

  • Dysphonia (hoarseness of voice)
    
- OP (chronic high dose)
    
- Adrenal insufficiency
    
- Growth retardation
303
Q

Give one oral complication of ICS in COPD/Asthma and 2 systemic side effects of ICS in COPD/Asthma.

A

Oral:

  • Oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush) 

  • Dysphonia (hoarseness of voice)

Systemic:

- OP (chronic high dose)

- Growth retardation

304
Q

What effect may ICS have on the adrenal glands?

A


- Adrenal insufficiency

305
Q

What should a patient on certain doses of ICS have and what is the cut off for this?

A

Steroid card if doses 800mcg ≤ of beclometasone (adults); 400mcg ≤ (children) 


306
Q

List the other treatments for COPD.

A
  • Methylxanthines - theophylline
    
- Mucolytics - carbocysteine ≈ reduce sputum viscosity
    
- PDE type 4 inhibitor ≈ Roflumilast - if severe COPD, repeated exacerbations
    
- Longterm ABX - Azithromycin
    
- Anti-IgE monoclonal antibody (Omalizumab)
    
- Long term Oxygen
307
Q

Outline the overall assessment (and investigations) of COPD.

A
- Sx 

- ADL 

- Exercise 

- Symptomatic relief 

- Spirometry: Changes in lung function

- Risk of exacerbations 

308
Q

What is asthma/COPD overlap syndrome?

A

Collection of symptoms that bears symptoms of both asthma and COPD ≈ higher eosinophil, FEV1 swings, diurnal variation in PEFR, respond better to steroids (reducing exacerbation rate), more reversible to ß2 agonists

309
Q

What is the treatment for COPD exacerbations?

A
- Nebulise SABA or SAMA on air 

- Oral ICS e.g. prednisolone 

- ABX if infected 

- Physio 

- 24-28% oxygen 

- Extreme: NIV or intubation
310
Q

23 year old man studying at university is SOBE for 4/12. Exacerbated when playing football and a cough keeping him up at night. Childhood eczema which resolved during teenage year. Spirometry is obstructive showing a 240ml increase in FEV1, following bronchodilation with salbutamol. This causes a 16% increase in his FEV1.

What is the most likely diagnosis? Give your reasoning.

A

Asthma

Young age​
Exercise induced​
Nocturnal symptoms​
History of atopy (eczema)​
Obstructive picture​
Reversible on bronchodilators
311
Q

A 65 year old woman comes to see you with SOB. Her breath has been deteriorating over the last year and she can only walk 200m on flat prior to stopping to catch her breath. She has a chronic cough productive of clear sputum and was recently treated with ABX for a chest infection.

She is a current smoker with 60 pack year history. Her height is 154cm and spirometry shows an FEV1 of 1.3 (65% predicted) and a FVC of 2.46 (96% predicted).

Given her history and spirometry results, what is the likely DDx?

Give your reasoning.

Calculate the FEV1/FVC.

A

COPD

Heavy smoker​
Chronic sputum production​
Moderate COPD​

FEV1/FV1% - 52

312
Q

74 year old man with dry cough and SOB. He has psoriatic arthritis which is treated with methotrexate. He says his breathlessness began after he was started on this drug. He has never smoked.

O/E no clubbing or peripheral lymphadenopathy. On chest auscultation there are fine bibasal crackle remaining on coughing.

His spirometry shows an FEV1 of 1.9 (50% predicted) and FVC of 2.65 (52% predicted).

What is the likely diagnosis? Give evidence.

What is his FEV1/FVC?

A

Methotrexate lung (pneumonitis)

Onset of symptoms after starting methotrexate​
Basal crepitaions suggest alveolar disease​
Restrictive pattern

71.6%

313
Q

A 31 year old woman presents with SOB. Symptoms began 1 year ago when she noticed SOBE walking uphill. There has been gradual deterioration since/ She initially thought this was due to smoking 10 cigarettes a day since 15. But after giving up 9 months ago she feels she has deteriorated and now finds she struggles to keep up with her friends when walking on the flat.

There are no precipitating factors. She has not had any symptoms overnight or episodes of sudden SOB or cough. Her mother has emphysema diagnosed in her late 30s. This woman’s spirometry is obstructive with no reversibility. Peak flow diary over 2 weeks shows no diurnal variation.

What is the likely diagnosis and why?

A

Alpa-1 antitrypsin deficiency

Obstructive pattern​
Current non smoker ​
Young age​
Family history

314
Q

76 year old woman who has felt breathless for 4 years. SOB recently worsened so she struggles walking 200m on the flat. She doesn’t have a cough or chest pain. She has never smoked. O/E she has a severe kyphosis but no other abnormalities are detected. Her saturations are 91% on air.

What spirometry pattern is likely?

A

Restrictive

Severe kyphosis would be an extra-pulmonary cause of a restrictive lung disease

315
Q

68 year old man presents with 8 month history of dry cough and worsening SOB/ He has never smoked and there is nothing of note in the PMHx. He is not on any medication.

O/E his fingers are clubbed and on chest auscultation there are fine inspiratory crackles at both bases. Saturations are 93% on air.

His spirometry shows an FEV1 of 1.14 and an FVC of 1.31. His height is 183cm. His predicted FEV1 is 3.45 and predicted FVC is 4.78.

What is his FEV1 as a percentage of predicted and his FEV1/FVC ratio?

Is this a restrictive or obstructive pattern?

A

FEV1 33% predicted

FEV1/FVC = 87%

This is a restrictive pattern

316
Q

Guess the disease..

I’VE HAD A COUGH FOR 6 MONTHS (5 POINTS)​

I COUGHED UP BLOOD A FEW TIMES (4 POINTS)​

I’M LOSING WEIGHT (3 POINTS) ​
I SWEAT AT NIGHT (2 POINTS)

A

Pulmonary Tuberculosis

317
Q

Guess the disease..

I HAVE HAD A COUGH FOR 2 DAYS (5 POINTS)​

I AM PRODUCING NO SPUTUM (4 POINTS)​

I DON’T HAVE A TEMPERATURE (3 POINTS)​

IT STARTED WITH SNEEZING (2 POINTS)

A

URTI

318
Q

Guess the disease..

I’VE HAD A COUGH FOR MANY YEARS (5 POINTS)​

I ALWAYS PRODUCE SPUTUM ( 4 POINTS)​
SOMETIMES THE SPUTUM IS GREEN WITH

STREAKS OF BLOOD IN IT (3 POINTS)​

I HAD BAD WHOOPING COUGH AS A CHILD (2 POINTS)

A

Bronchiectasis

319
Q

Guess the disease..

I’VE HAD A COUGH FOR A FEW MONTHS (5 POINTS)​

I DON’T FEEL BREATHLESS (4 POINTS)​

IT’S SOMETIMES WORSE WHEN I LIE DOWN, ESPECIALLY AFTER FOOD (3 POINTS)​

I OFTEN GET HEARTBURN (2 POINTS)​

A

GORD

320
Q

Guess the disease..

I’VE HAD A COUGH FOR A WEEK (5 POINTS)​

I FEEL UNWELL ( 4 POINTS)​

I HAVE A TEMPERATURE (3 POINTS)​

I GET PAIN ON THE RIGHT SIDE OF THE CHEST WHEN I BREATH ( 2 POINTS)

A

PNA (Pneumonia)

321
Q

Guess the disease..

I’VE HAD A DRY COUGH FOR 6 MONTHS (5 POINTS)​

OTHERWISE I FEEL FINE (4 POINTS)​

I ALSO HAVE HYPERTENSION (3 POINTS)​

MY COUGH STARTED AFTER MY GP CHANGED MY TREATMENT ( 2 POINTS)

A

ACE-i induced cough