Asthma and allergy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A
  • Type 1 = immediate hypersensitivity (acute allergy)
  • Type 2 = Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
  • Type 3 = Serum sickness and Arthus reaction
  • Type 4 = delayed-type hypersensitivity, contact dermatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe type 1 hypersensitivity

A
  • Interaction between specific IgE and allergen
  • Mast cells have specific IgE, allergen cross-links the IgE, causing mast cell activation and degranulation
  • e.g. allergic rhinitis, asthma and anaphylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can you test if someone is allergic to a substance?

A
  • Skin prick test
  • if mast cells have the specific IgE, it will recognise the allergen that you have pricked in the skin and produce a wheal response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe a type II hypersensitivity

A
  • Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
  • IgG anti-drug antibodies
  • Drug binds to RBC
  • IgG binds to the drug
  • Antibody-bound cells are cleared by cells such as macrophages and complement
  • e.g. Some drug allergies such as penicillin
  • Also special cases where IgG Abs are directed at cell-surface receptors; disrupting the normal functions of the receptor by uncontrollable activation or blocking receptor function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give an example of a type II reaction

A
  • Graves - Ab recognises TSH receptor, induces production of thyroxine -> thyrotoxicosis

Myasthenia gravis - immune response reacts to Ach receptor, blocking synaptic transmission causing a type of paralysis

Haemolytic disease of the newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A
  • Caused by rhesus incompatibility
  • During birth, rhesus +ve foetal erythrocytes leak into maternal blood after breakage of the embryonic chorion
  • Maternal B cells are activated by the Rh antigen and produce large amounts of anti-Rh antibodies
  • Rh antibody titre in mother’s blood is elevated after first exposure
  • Rh antibodies are small enough to cross the chorion and attack foetal erythrocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe a Type III reaction

A
  • IgG and soluble antigen form immune complexes
  • Immune complexes are cleared by phagocytosis/ complement
  • e.g. Arthus reaction and serum sickness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does Arthus reaction occur?

A
  • Locally injected antigen in immune individual forms immune complex with IgG antibody
  • These bind to Fc receptors on mast cells, activating them and releasing inflammatory mediators
  • Inflammatory cells invade the site, and blood vessel permeability and blood flow are increased
  • Platelets also accumulate, leading to occlusion of the small blood vessels, haemorrhage and the appearance of purpura
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is serum sickness?

A
  • Caused by large IV dose of soluble antigens (drugs)
  • IgG antibodies produced form small immune complexes with the antigen in excess
  • Immune complexes get deposited in tissues/ blood vessel walls
  • Tissue damage is caused by complement activation and subsequent inflammatory responses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is farmer’s lung?

A
  • Farmers can become sensitised to moulds in the hay
  • They inhale it and form complexes in the lung
  • This can lead to severe pathology over many years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What determines the pathology observed in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

A
  • Antigen dose and route of delivery determine the pathology
  • IV = vasculitis (vessel walls), nephritis (renal glomeruli), arthritis (joint spaces)
  • Subcutaneous = arthus reaction (perivascular area)
  • Inhaled = farmer’s lung (alveolar/ capillary interface)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe type IV reactions

A
  • Delayed-type hypersensitivity
  • Antigen either acts on Th1 or Th2 cells
  • Th1 when bound releases IFN-gamma, which activates macrophages, causing the release of chemokines, cytokines and cytotoxins - e.g. contact dermatitis
  • Th2 releases IL-4,5 and eotaxin, which activate eosinophils, causing the release of proteins, enzymes and cytokines - e.g. chronic asthma, chronic allergic rhinitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is IgE?

A
  • Originally the first line of defence against worms - however we dont have them now so we react to things in the environment we wouldnt usually react to
  • Binds to the Fc receptors on mast cells
  • It pre-arms the mast cells to react when in the presence of antigen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the hygiene hypothesis?

A

We live so cleanly these days that we arent exposed to enough dirt to combat allergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does filaggrin?

A
  • Filaggrin links skin integrity and allergen
  • When it is defective, atopic dermatitis is greater
  • This is due to the access of allergens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What makes dendritic cells pro-allergenic?

A
  • Langerhans are dendritic cells (APCs)
  • When the skin is damaged, cytokine production is increased
  • These langerhans go to the lymph nodes to present the antigens to Th2 cells
17
Q

What is the effector mechanism of the allergic immune response?

A
  • We become sensitised after exposure to pollen
  • Th2 cells release IL-4, which drives B cells to produce IgE in response to pollen antigens
  • Pollen specific IgE binds to mast cells, priming them
  • Second exposure to pollen
  • mast cells are activated and release their inflammatory mediators -> allergic rhinitis
  • Also IL-4 acts on eosinophils and IL-5 acts in mast cells - these cause chronic allergic reaction
18
Q

What causes the wheal and flare responses?

A
  • Allergic responses have an early (wheal) and late phase (flare)
  • Early is mediated by mast cells - allergen exposure triggers degranulation
  • Late is mediated by T cells - activated T cells, eosinophils and basophils go to the site of allergen exposure
19
Q

What do each of the specific mediators produced by mast cells do?

A
  • Histamine = increase vascular permeability and cause smooth muscle contraction
  • Leukotrienes = increase vascular permeability, cause smooth muscle contraction and stimulates mucus secretion
  • PGs = chemoattractants for T cells, eosinophils and basophils
  • Cytokines - IL-4/13 = promotes Th2 and IgE formation. TNFa = promotes tissue inflammation
20
Q

What does mast cell activation and granule release do to different areas of the body?

A
  • GIT = increased fluid secretion, increased peristalsis -> expulsion of GI contents (diarrhoea and vomiting)
  • Airways = decreased diameter, increased mucus secretion -> congestion and blocking of airways, swelling and mucus secretion in nasal passages
  • Blood vessels = increased blood flow and permeability -> increased fluid in tissue causing increased flow to lymph, increased cells and protein in tissues, and increased effector response in tissues.
21
Q

What are the two effector functions of eosinophils?

A
  • Release highly toxic granule proteins and free radicals upon activation -> kill MOs/ parasites and cause tissue damage in allergic reactions
  • Synthesise and release PGs, LTs and cytokines in order to amplify the inflammatory response by activating epithelial cells and recruiting lymphocytes
22
Q

What is allergic asthma?

A
  • Asthma brought on be allergic reaction to: pollen, plants, some foods etc
23
Q

What causes the acute response in allergic asthma?

A
  • Occurs within seconds of allergen exposure
  • Results in airway obstruction and breathing difficulties
  • Caused by allergen-induced mast cell degranulation in the submucosa of the airways
24
Q

What causes the chronic response in allergic asthma?

A
  • Chronic inflammation of the airways
  • Caused by activation of eosinophils, neutrophils, T cells and other leukocytes
  • Mediators released by these cells cause airway remodelling, permanent narrowing of the airways and further tissue damage
25
Q

How do we treat allergy in the clinic?

A
  • Blockage of effector pathways:
  • Inhibit effects of mediators on specific receptors (anti-histamines)
  • Inhibit mast cell degranulation (NSAID)
  • Inhibit synthesis of specific mediators (lipoxygenase inhibitors)
  • Steroids - act on DNA to increase transcription of anti-inflammatory mediators (IL-10) and decrease transcription of pro-inflammatory mediators
  • B2 agonists
  • Immunotherapy - reverses the sensitisation to allergen