Asthma Flashcards

1
Q

Major risk factor for asthma?

A

Atopy

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2
Q

Lack of infections in early childhood preserves the TH2 cell bias at birth, whereas exposure to infections and endotoxin results in a shift toward a predominant protective TH1 immune response?

A

Hygiene hypothesis

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3
Q

May be suspected when symptoms of asthma improve during weekends and holidays

A

Occupational asthma

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4
Q

Independent risk factor for asthma, particularly in women, but the mechanisms are thus far unknown

A

Obesity (body mass index >30 kg/m2)

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5
Q

Consumption of this drug in childhood, which may be linked to increased oxidative stress, predisposes to asthma development

A

Acetaminophen (Paracetamol)

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6
Q

Most common allergens to trigger asthma?

A

Dermatophagoides species

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7
Q

Minority have negative skin tests to common inhalant allergens and normal serum concentrations of IgE. These patients usually show later onset of disease (adult-onset), commonly have concomitant nasal polyps, and may be asa sensitive

A

Intrinsic asthma

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8
Q

Pollen grains are disrupted and the particles that may be released can trigger severe asthma exacerbations

A

Thunderstorm asthma

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9
Q

Most common viral triggers of acute severe exacerbations

A

Upper respiratory tract virus infections such as rhinovirus, respiratory syncytial virus, and coronavirus

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10
Q

Inhibit breakdown of kinins, which are bronchoconstrictors; however, they rarely worsen asthma

A

ACEI

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11
Q

Commonly acutely worsen asthma, and their use may be fatal. The mechanisms are not clear, but are likely mediated through increased cholinergic bronchoconstriction

A

Beta blockers

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12
Q

Which beta blockers should be avoided in asthma?

A

All beta blockers, even selective beta 2 blockers or topical application (e.g., timolol eye drops)

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13
Q

Antiplatelet that may worsen asthma in some patients?

A

Aspirin

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14
Q

How is EIA best prevented?

A

Regular treatment with ICS, which reduce population of surface mast cells

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15
Q

When does EIA start and end typically?

A

Exercise-induced asthma (EIA) typically begins after exercise has ended and resolves spontaneously within about 30 min

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16
Q

What type of weather triggers EIA?

A

EIA is worse in cold, dry climates than in hot, humid conditions. It is, therefore, more common in sports activities such as cross-country running in cold weather, overland skiing, and ice hockey than in swimming

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17
Q

Food preservative that trigger asthma through the release of sulfur dioxide gas in the stomach.

A

Metabisulfite

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18
Q

How can premenstrual worsening of asthma be improved?

A

Treat with high doses of progesterone or GnRH

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19
Q

Why is GERD common in asthmatic patients?

A

GERD is usually increased by bronchodilators

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20
Q

Common pathologic finding in fatal asthma?

A

Occlusion of airway by mucus plugs

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21
Q

Characteristic finding of asthma is thickening of the basement membrane due to

A

Subepithelial collagen deposition

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22
Q

Thickening of basement membrane in asthma is also found in what condition?

A

Eosinophilic bronchitis

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23
Q

T/F These pathologic changes in asthma are found in all airways, but do not extend to the lung parenchyma

A

True

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24
Q

Characteristic physiologic abnormality of bronchial asthma?

A

Airway hyperresponsiveness

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25
Infiltration of __ is a characteristic feature of asthmatic airways.
Eosinophils
26
Increased numbers of __ are found in sputum and airways of some patients with severe asthma and during exacerbations
Neutrophils
27
Upstream cytokine released from epithelial cells of asthmatics that orchestrates the release of chemokines that selectively attract TH2 cells.
Thymus stimulated lymphopoeitin (TSLP)
28
Expected spirometry findings in asthma?
reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), FEV1/forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio, and peak expiratory flow (PEF)
29
Examples of direct bronchoconstrictors which contract | airway smooth muscle
Histamine, methacholine
30
Examples of indirect stimuli, which release bronchoconstrictors from mast cells or activate sensory nerves
Allergens, exercise, irritant dusts, sulfur dioxide
31
Prodromal symptoms that precede an attack?
itching under the chin, discomfort between the scapulae, or inexplicable fear (impending doom)
32
Reversibility in spirometry is demonstrated as:
>12% and 200-mL increase in FEV1 | 15 min after an inhaled short-acting β2-agonist
33
What tests can be done to confirm the diurnal variations in airflow obstruction?
Measurements of PEF twice daily
34
Noninvasive test to measure airway inflammation. The typically elevated levels in asthma are reduced by ICS, so this may be a test of compliance with therapy
FENO
35
Examples and duration of action of SABA
Albuterol, terbutaline, 3-6 hours
36
Examples and duration of action of LABA
Salmeterol, Formoterol, >12 hours
37
Most common side effects of Beta 2 agonists?
Muscle tremors, palpitations (but not a problem during inhalational route), commonly seen in the elderly Mild hypokalemia
38
Less effective than beta 2 agonists in asthma therapy because they inhibit only the cholinergic reflex component of bronchoconstriction
Anticholinergics (Ipratropium, Tiotropium)
39
Most common side effects of anticholinergics?
Dry mouth (most common), in elderly patients, urinary retention and glaucoma
40
Reduce corticosteroid insensitivity in severe asthma by activates the key nuclear enzyme histone deacetylase-2 (HDAC2)
Theophylline
41
MOA of Theophylline
Inhibition of phosphodiesterases in airway smooth-muscle cells, which increases cyclic AMP
42
Theophylline occasionally used (via slow IV infusion) in patients with severe exacerbations that are refractory to SABA
IV Aminophylline
43
Most common SE of theophylline
nausea, vomiting,and headaches and are due to phosphodiesterase inhibition
44
Diuresis and palpitations may also occur, and at high concentrations, cardiac arrhythmias, epileptic seizures, and death may occur due to:
adenosine A1-receptor antagonism
45
Examples of drugs that block CYP450 causing elevated levels of theophylline
Erythromycin, Allopurinol
46
most effective anti-inflammatory agents used in asthma therapy, reducing inflammatory cell numbers and their activation in the airways.
ICS
47
Local SE of ICS?
hoarseness (dysphonia) and oral candidiasis
48
How to reduce SE of ICS?
use of a large volume spacer device
49
Dose of course of OCS (usually prednisone or prednisolone) used to treat acute exacerbations of asthma; no tapering of the dose is needed.
30–45 mg once daily for 5–10 days
50
Block cys-LT1-receptors and provide modest clinical benefit in asthma
Antileukotrienes (Montelukast)
51
controller drugs that appear to inhibit mast cell and sensory nerve activation and are, therefore, effective in blocking trigger-induced asthma such as EIA and allergen- and sulfur dioxide–induced symptoms
Cromolyn sodium
52
blocking antibody that neutralizes circulating IgE without binding to cell-bound IgE and, thus, inhibits IgE-mediated reaction
Omalizumab
53
Most common reason for poor control of asthma
Non compliance with maintenance medications
54
failure to respond to a high dose of oral prednisone/prednisolone (40 mg once daily over 2 weeks), ideally with a 2-week run
Corticosteroid resistant asthma
55
Type of Brittle Asthma show a persistent pattern of variability and may require oral corticosteroids or, at times, continuous infusion of β2-agonists
Type 1
56
generally normal or near-normal lung function but precipitous, unpredictable falls in lung function that may result in death
Type 2
57
Most effective therapy of Brittle Asthma?
SC epinephrine
58
T/F All COX inhibitors should be avoided
False selective COX2 inhibitors are safe to use when an anti-inflammatory analgesic is needed
59
Medications safe for asthma in pregnancy?
SIT | SABA ICS Theophylline
60
Rule of thirds in asthma in pregnancy?
1/3 improve, 1/3 worsen, 1/3 unchanged
61
T/F Breastfeeding is contraindicated when taking asthma meds during pregnancy
False