Asthma Flashcards

1
Q

in what resp disorder is there a change in volume of air the lung can hold?

A

restrictive disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is obstructive resp disorders?

A

asthma & copd

  • lead to a decrease in airflow
  • *no change in volume of air the lungs can hold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when are most cases of asthma diagnosed?

A

<10 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the definition of asthma?

A

a chronic inflammatory disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the symptoms of asthma?

A

non-specific

-cough (may/may not be productive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does the inflammation in asthma cause?

A

recurrent episodes of coughing (particularly at night or early in the morning), wheezing, breathlessness, and chest tightness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

do asthma symptoms come and go and what are they dependent on?

A

symptoms come and go and are dependent on environment (i.e. cats)
-COPD sx’s are always there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

patients with asthma symptoms need to be referred to what?

A

spirometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the hallmark feature of asthma?

A

Airflow obstruction that is at least partially <b>reversible</b>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what does spirometry show in asthma? (what is FEV1?)

A

FEV1 of >200ml <b>and</b>

≥12% increase from baseline measure after SABA (e.g., albuterol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what risk factors do people with have?

A

atopic conditions (i.e. eczema, allergic rhinitis, etc.)

IgE is the antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are inhaled allergens?

A

-pollen, cockroaches, animal dander, dust mites, damp rooms (mold)

<b>IgE antibodies - specific to the type of allergen</b>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are inhaled irritants?

A

-perfumes, tobacco smoke, cleaning agents, airborne chemicals, wood burning stoves

universal triggers NOT associated w/IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the preferred agents to use for inflammatory/immune response of asthma?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the monoclonal antibody medications for asthma?

A

Xolair (omalizumab), Cinqair (reslizumab), Nucala (mepolizumab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the mechanism of Cinquair (reslizumab) and Nucala (mepolizumab)?

A

block IL-5 and prevent the activation of eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the mechanism of Xolair (omalizumab)?

A

specifically binds to IgE and reduces serum IgE to <5% to what it was at baseline and prevents cascade from occurring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

are the monoclonal antibodies first or last line meds for asthma?

A

LAST LINE
-for patients that are not responding to their inhaled corticosteroids, using bronchodilator frequently, having frequent flare ups and have allergic asthma worst of the worst patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the indication for Xolair (omalizumab)?

A
  • 6+ years
  • mod-severe asthma not controlled on ICS
    • skin test or perennial allergies (animal dander, cockroaches, indoor molds, dust mites)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the indication for Cinqair (reslizumab)?

A

18+ years w/severe asthma esoinophilic phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the indication for Nucala (mepolizumab)?

A

12+ years severe asthma w/an eosinophilic phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

patients with asthma should be referred for what testing?

A

allergy testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how do you reduce exposure to animal dander?

A
  • Keep animal(s) out of the bedroom
  • Seal (filter) air ducts leading to bedroom
  • HEPA Filters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how do you reduce exposure to dust mites?

A

<b>-Reduce humidity to <50% - dust mites can’t survive if it’s too dry</b>

  • Remove carpets if possible
  • Wash bedding weekly (≥130oF)
  • Encase mattress, pillow, and box springs in an allergen impermeable cover
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how do you reduce exposure to cockroaches?

A
  • Use poison bait or traps

- Do not leave food or garbage exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how do you reduce exposure to pollens & outdoor molds?

A
  • Use air conditioning

- Stay indoors when pollen counts are high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how do you reduce exposure to indoor molds?

A
  • Fix all water leaks
  • Clean moldy surface
  • Reduce humidity to <50%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are common asthma triggers/exacerbating factors?

A
  • GERD
  • Rhinitis (use inhaled intranasal steroids)
  • Exercise
  • Sulfites
  • Beta-blockers (including eye drops)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

according to the EPR 3, if you have intermittent asthma, what txt do you need?

A

Intermittent asthma – not very symptomatic (have occasional issue and need albuterol; exercise induced asthma)

<b>-don’t need to use controller therapy (only use bronchodilators)</b>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

according to the EPR 3, if you have persistent asthma, what txt MUST you use?

A

MUST use controller therapy (preferred therapy is inhaled corticosteroid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what 2 domains are assessed when staging severity?

A

impairment & risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the impairment domain when staging severity?

A
  • Frequency & intensity of symptoms
  • Functional limitations
  • Effect on quality of life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the risk domain when staging severity?

A
  • Future exacerbations
  • Loss of pulmonary function
  • Risk of adverse effects from medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the 2 treatment goals of asthma?

A
  • reduce impairment

- reduce risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the rule of 2 for treatment of asthma?

A

<b>Factors that suggest asthma is not controlled:</b>

-Using SABA >2 days/week, or waking up >2x/month, or using >2 canisters of SABA/year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what txt goals are for reducing impairment of asthma?

A
  • Prevent asthma symptoms
  • Require infrequent use (<2 days a week) of inhaled SABA
  • Maintain (near normal pulmonary function
  • Maintain normal activity levels
  • Meet the patient’s expectations with asthma care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what txt goals are for reducing risk of asthma?

A
  • Prevent recurrent asthma exacerbations
  • Prevent loss of lung function
  • Provide optimal pharmacotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what do peak flow meters measure?

A
  • Measures how well lungs are able to expel air (Peak expiratory flow rate or PEFR – L/min)
  • Not as sensitive as a spirometer, but pts can use it to measure their <i>lung fxn at home</i>

-pts set their personal best over 2-3 week period & record their highest value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what reading do pts record when using a peak flow meter?

A

their HIGHEST reading (not the avg.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what the clinical utility of the peak flow meters?

A
  • Early indicator for loss of control
  • May help patients identify triggers
  • Determine how well regimen is working
  • May help indicate when to seek emergency care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

after a personal best with the peak flow meter is established, what is the use?

A
  • Use at least every morning upon awakening
  • Use before taking any asthma medication
  • May use after taking a rescue medication to determine impact
  • Use as directed by PCP*** (i.e. action plan)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the 3 zones for asthma action plans?

A

80-100% of Personal Best = Green zone

50-80% of Personal Best = Yellow zone

<50% of Personal Best = Red zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does the green zone indicate?

A

80-100% of Personal Best

  • Continue with regular activities
  • Follow your maintenance medication plan (no changes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does the yellow zone indicate?

A

50-80% of Personal Best

  • May require medication adjustment
  • Contact health care provider
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what does the red zone indicate?

A

<50% of Personal Best

-Emergency – Dial 911
Contact Health Care Provider -> <b>going to the hospital!!</b>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

if peak flow reading increases 20% or more after using a SABA, what should you consider?

A

adjusting controller therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how frequently should you follow up for asthma?

A
  • Every 2-6 weeks while gaining control
  • Every 1-6 months once controlled
  • At 3 month intervals if a reduction in therapy is anticipated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what do you assess at <u>every</u> follow-up visit for asthma?

A

-Asthma control
-Medication technique
-Asthma action plan
<b>-Medication adherence</b>
-Patient related concerns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are the top 3 risk factors for death to refer a pt for?

A
  • Prior severe exacerbation (Intubation or ICU Admission)
  • 2+ Hospitalizations or 3+ ED visits past year
  • > 2 canisters of SABA per month
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

when do you consider an asthma specialist?

A

-Hospitalized
-Difficulties achieving or maintaining control
(Step 4 care+ is required;
Step 3 care+ for kids 0-4 years)
-If immunotherapy is considered
-If additional testing is indicated
-If >2 oral steroid bursts in past year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are the criteria for stepping down a pts therapy?

A
  • Must be “well controlled” for at least 3 months
  • Reduction should be gradual (i.e. decrease ICS by 25-50%)
  • Must monitor closely (e.g. 2-6 weeks)
  • Consider history of prior exacerbations
  • Remember use the least amount of medication needed for control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what should you provide to all asthma patients?

A

asthma action plans

-Tells patient what to do if they are starting to lose control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is in an asthma action plan?

A
  1. Daily management
    - Controller medication
    - Environmental control measures
  2. Managing worsening asthma
    - How to adjust medication
    - When to see medical care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are the 2 asthma medication regimens?

A

maintenance and rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the maintenance regimen for asthma?

A

<b>control inflammation to some extent</b>

  • inhaled corticosteroids
  • long acting B2-agonsts
  • long acting anticholinergics
  • leukotriene antagonists
  • theophylline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what 2 medication categories in the asthma maintenance regimen, don’t target inflammation but are in combo products?

A

Long acting B2-agonists (help w/bronchodilation but not inflammation)

Long acting anticholinergics (help w/bronchodilation but not inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is the rescue regimen for asthma?

A

<b>quick acting agents to get out of bronchoconstricted state</b>

-Short acting B2-agonists
-***Short acting anticholinergics
(NOT approved or recommended for rescue in asthma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what do MDIs have that DPIs don’t have?

A

a propellant (HFA) that helps push medicine out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what are the advantages of MDIs?

A
  • Less time (<1 min)
  • Small/portable
  • No drug preparation
  • Mechanical ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what are the disadvantages of MDIs?

A

<b>-Technique/timing essential</b>

  • Freon effect (< w/HFA)
  • Requires breath hold
  • Oropharyngeal deposition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what are the advantages of DPIs?

A

-Less time (<1 min)
<b>-Less technique/timing</b>
-Small/portable
-Usually less money than MDI counterpart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what are the disadvantages of DPIs?

A
  • Some dose preparation
  • Requires breath hold
  • Requires fast inhalation
  • Oropharyngeal deposition
  • No mechanical ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are the advantages of nebulizers?

A
  • Minimal technique/timing
  • No breath hold required
  • Mechanical ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are the disadvantages of nebulizers?

A
  • More expensive
  • Drug preparation required
  • Admin time (5-15min)
  • Bulky and less portable
  • Requires power source
  • Must clean regularly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is important when using an MDI?

A

how the pt holds it
-must hold in an “L” position (mouth piece down)

exhaling completely

breathing in deeply and slowly for 3-5 secs while depressing canister

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

who are valve holding chambers good for?

A

for pts w/problems coordinating and inhaling easier for patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what do the valve holding chambers do?

A

Valves hold the medication in there, so gives you a little extra time to inhale
(vs spacers, just gives you space and doesn’t hold anything)

<b>valves are better</b>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

are MDIs & DPIs compatible with valve holding chambers & spacers?

A

only MDIs are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

if a kid uses a facemask, what should the parents make sure to do?

A

make sure kids wash around their mouth b/c it will lead to atrophy of skin around mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is it about valve holding chambers (VHC)?

A
  • Requires less coordination to use
  • Improves drug deposition into lungs
  • Decreases oropharyngeal deposition
  • Consider a face mask in child < 4 years old
  • Use one actuation per inhalation!!!!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what should every patient with asthma have?

A

a SABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is quick relief medication for asthma?

A

a SABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is the mechanism for SABAs?

A

increases adenyl cyclase -> increases cAMP which activates PKA -> Ca++ leaves the cell -> smooth muscle relaxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

when do pts use SABAs?

A

-Acute symptoms and exacerbations

<b>-Treatment of choice for exercise induced asthma</b>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what medication is the treatment of choice for exercise induced asthma?

A

SABAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is recommended for cleaning of SABAs?

A

Weekly cleaning is recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is NOT recommended when using SABAs?

A

Regularly scheduled, daily, chronic use is NOT recommended

78
Q

what is albuterol?

A

a SABA

79
Q

what is levalbuterol?

A

SABA

brand name = Xopenex HFA

80
Q

what is the respiclick device?

A

a DPI

81
Q

what is the indication for the respiclick device?

A
  • Treatment or prevention of bronchospasm in 4 years+

- Prevention of exercise-induced bronchospasm in 4 years+

82
Q

what are the features of the respiclick device?

A
  • Dose counter (even numbers only)
  • “Click” open ~ loads dose
  • No priming or cleaning required
  • Breath activated device (Dry Powder)
83
Q

are nebulizers preferred in a conscious pt?

A

NO! they are NEVER preferred in a conscious pt (no added benefit)

-will lean towards MDI & VHCs more w/outpatient/discharging pts

84
Q

what percentage of albuterol is pre-mixed w/saline?

A

albuterol sulfate 0.083% (2.5mg/3ml)

-for albuterol sulfa 0.5% you must co-prescribe saline with it

85
Q

what is beclomethasone HFA?

A

ICS

86
Q

what is budesonide DPI?

A

ICS

87
Q

what is budesonide Neb?

A

ICS

88
Q

what is flunisolide HFA?

A

ICS

89
Q

what is fluticasone HFA?

A

ICS

90
Q

what is mometasone DPI?

A

ICS

91
Q

what is ciclesonide HFA?

A

ICS

92
Q

when are inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) used?

A

Preferred long-term control therapy for all ages

93
Q

how often should you clean ICS?

A

weekly cleaning

94
Q

what should a pt do after using an ICS?

A

rinse mouth and expectorate after using

  • use prior to brushing teeth
  • wash around child’s mouth if using a mask!
95
Q

mild-mod asthma is managed with what dose of ICS?

A

low-medium ICS doses

96
Q

what do ICS improve and provide reduced need of?

A

Improves lung function and reduced need for quick relief medications

97
Q

what is fluticasone propionate?

A

ICS

98
Q

what is fluticasone furoate?

A

ICS

99
Q

what are the adrs of ICS?

A

<b>-oral candidiasis</b>
<b>-dysphonia</b>
<b>-reflex cough and bronchospasm</b>
-growth rates are variable in children

100
Q

how do you reduce the oral candidiasis and dysphonia - adrs of ICS?

A

spacer, rinsing mouth, decrease dose/freq (if possible)

101
Q

how do you reduce the reflex cough and bronchospasm air of ICS?

A

Spacer, decrease rate of inspiration, pre-treat with albuterol

102
Q

what is the only pregnancy category B ICS? when should you use it?

A

<b>budesonide</b> (Pulmicort Flexhaler)

-if initiating therapy & pt is pregnant then may use budesonide, but don’t change if pt is on budesonide and then becomes pregnant

103
Q

what is the exception for cleaning MDI weekly?

A

Aerospan (flunisolide) b/c has spacer

104
Q

what is annuity ellipta? chemical name? clinical pearls?

A

DPI
Chemical name: fluticasone furoate

Clinical pearls:

  • 1st once daily ICS
  • cleaning not required
  • unable to double load dose
  • discard 6 wks after opening tray
105
Q

what are the drawbacks of annuity ellipta?

A
  • See DPI limitations

- Dosing may be less flexible

106
Q

what is armonair respiclick?

A

DPI
Chemical Name: Fluticasone propionate (ICS)

Clinical Pearls:

  • 12+ Asthma maintenance
  • Not interchangeable with Flovent!
  • Unable to double load dose
  • Discard 30 days after opening
107
Q

what are the oral corticosteroids?

A
  • methylprednisolone
  • prednisolone
  • prednisone
108
Q

when should you burst a patient?

A

when a patient is losing control & in the yellow zone

109
Q

what does to burst a patient mean?

A

a temporary increase in anti-inflammatory therapy -> to reestablish asthma control

110
Q

what MUST long acting B2-agonists be used with?

A

MUST BE used with anti-inflammatory medications (ICS) for long-term control of asthma symptoms

111
Q

what can long acting B2-agonist be used to prevent?

A

Can be used to prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm (30min-1hr before activity)

-but PREFERRED for exercise-induced bronchospasm is SABA

112
Q

what should long acting B2-agonists NOT be used to treat?

A

Not to be used to treat acute symptoms or exacerbations

113
Q

what is a long acting B2-agonist (LABA)?

A

salmeterol (Servant Diskus)

114
Q

what is Breo Ellipta? Chemical name? Clinical pearls? drawbacks?

A

DPI
<b>ONE INHALATION A DAY!!!</b>
Chemical Name: fluticasone furoate + vilanterol

Clinical Pearls:
<b>-1st once daily</b>/ICS/LABA Combo
-Cleaning not required
-Unable to double load dose
-Discard 6 weeks after opening tray

Potential Drawbacks:
-See DPI limitations

**Only strength FDA approved for COPD

115
Q

how often do you inhale bro ellipta?

A

ONE INHALATION A DAY

116
Q

what is Airduo Respiclick? Chemical name? Clinical pearls?

A

DPI

Chemical Name: fluticasone propionate + salmeterol
(ICS + LABA)

Clinical Pearls:

  • 12+ Asthma maintenance not controlled on ICS alone
  • Not interchangeable with Advair!
  • Unable to double load dose
  • Discard 30 days after opening
117
Q

what is a long acting antimuscarinic (LAMA)?

A

Spiriva Respimat (tiotropium)

118
Q

when do you use Spiriva Respimat (tiotropium) (long acting antimuscarinic?

A

<b><u>Add on txt for pts with a history of exacerbations (need ICS onboard also)</u></b>
-Good for patients that are on LABA and ICS and aren’t responding then add on Spiriva

<b>Once-daily, maintenance txt of asthma in pts 6+ years</b>

119
Q

what are the clinical pearls of Spiriva Respimat (tiotropium) (long acting antimuscarinic)?

A
  • EXPENSIVE
  • Expires 90 days after loading
  • Dose = Two half turns once daily
  • Spiriva (tiotropium) Respimat is only LAMA approved for asthma
120
Q

what are drawbacks of Spiriva Respimat (tiotropium) (long acting antimuscarinic)?

A
  • Initial load and priming

- Coordination b/w dose release and inhalation

121
Q

is theophylline used a lot?

A

Not used must – many DDIs, monitoring, narrow therapeutic index

122
Q

when do you use theophylline?

A
  • Alternative therapy for Step 2 care (not preferred)

- Adjunctive therapy with ICS in patients ≥ 5 years old

123
Q

what must you monitor with theophylline?

A

Monitor serum theophylline concentration (5-15mcg)

124
Q

what is theophylline similar to?

A

it’s similar to caffeine

125
Q

what CYP enzyme does Theophylline interact with? what about smoking?

A

DDIs with CYP1A2

<b>Smoking induces metabolism!</b>
-If pt stops smoking -> theophylline dose can go very high and then need to reduce their dose

126
Q

what are dose-related acute toxicities of theophylline?

A
  • Tachyarrhythmias
  • Central nervous system stimulation
  • Seizures
  • Hyperglycemia and hypokalemia
127
Q

what is the MOA of theophylline?

A

Bronchodilation smooth muscle relaxation from phosphodiesterase inhibition and possible adenosine antagonism

128
Q

what inhibitors does theophylline interact with and what happens to the levels of theophylline?

A

<b>Inhibitors will INCREASE theophylline levels</b>

  • ETOH
  • Zileuton
  • Cimetidine
  • Zafirlukast
  • Propranolol
  • Ciprofloxacin
129
Q

what inducers does theophylline interact with and what happens to the levels of theophylline?

A

<b>Inducers will DECREASE theophylline levels</b>

  • Smoking
  • Rifampin
  • Phenytoin
  • Omeprazole
  • Phenobarbital
  • Carbamazepine
130
Q

what are leukotrienes?

A
  • Produced and released from multiple sources
  • Contract smooth muscle (potent bronchoconstrictors – in asthma want to block leukotrienes)
  • Increase vascular permeability and mucus secretions
131
Q

when do you use leukotriene inhibitors?

A
  • Alternative therapy for Step 2 care (not preferred)

- Adjunctive therapy with ICS

132
Q

what are the names of the leukotriene inhibitors?

A
  • montelukast (Singulair) - preferred
  • zafirlukast (Accolate)
  • zileuton (Zyflo and Zyflo CR)
133
Q

where do montelukast (Singulair) & zafirlukast (Accolate) block leukotrienes?

A

<b>block at receptor level (LTRA)</b>

134
Q

where does zileuton (Zyflo) block leukotrienes?

A

<b>blocks production (5-lipoxygenase inhibitor)</b>

135
Q

when must you take zafirlukast (Accolate)? what is its MOA? what is CYP is it an inhibitor of & what does it increase?

A

-Selective competitive inhibitor of LTD4 and LTE4 receptors

<b>-Take at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals (b/c food can effect its bioavailability)</b>

<b>-Competitive inhibitor of the CYP2C9 (increases warfarin levels)</b>

136
Q

what is the preferred leukotriene inhibitor?

A

montelukast (Singulair)

137
Q

how often do you administer montelukast (Singulair)? what is it a selective competitive inhibitor of?

A

-Selective competitive leukotriene D4 inhibitor

<b>-Administer once daily at bedtime</b>

138
Q

what must you monitor for zileuton (Zyflo)?

A

liver fxn for liver toxicity!

139
Q

what is the name of the drug that’s a mast cell stabilizer?

A
cromolyn sodium (Intal)
-Nebulizer formulation ONLY
140
Q

what formulation does cromolyn sodium (Intal) come in?

A

Nebulizer ONLY

141
Q

when is cromolyn sodium (Intal) used? how is it dosed?

A
  • Long-term prevention of symptoms in mild persistent asthma
  • Preventative treatment prior to exercise or known allergies

-Dosed 3-4x/day

142
Q

what are the adrs of cromolyn sodium?

A
  • Bad taste – metallic taste

- Cough/irritation

143
Q

what is an add of leukotriene inhibitors?

A

weird dreams - just monitor if occur

144
Q

what vaccines must everyone with asthma get?

A

Everyone needs yearly <b>influenza vaccination</b>

  • trivalent or quadrivalent inactivated influenza vaccine
  • Inactivated influenza vaccine, trivalent, High Dose ≥ 65 years

Everyone needs <b>Pneumococcal vaccine</b>

145
Q

what is Proventil HFA, ProAir RespiClick, ProAir HFA, Ventolin HFA?

A

Albuterol (SABA)

146
Q

what is QVAR?

A

ICS

147
Q

what is Pulmicort Flexhaler?

A

ICS

148
Q

what is Pulmicort Respules?

A

ICS

149
Q

what is Aerospan?

A

ICS

150
Q

what is Flovent HFA/Flowvent Diskus?

A

ICS

151
Q

what is Asmanex Twisthaler?

A

ICS

152
Q

what is Alvesco?

A

ICS

153
Q

what is Flovent?

A

ICS

154
Q

what is Arnuity?

A

ICS

155
Q

what is salmeterol?

A

LABA

156
Q

what is (Servant Diskus)?

A

LABA

157
Q

what is fluticasone + salmeterol

A

ICS + LABA

158
Q

what is Advair Diskus?

A

ICS + LABA

159
Q

what is Advair HFA?

A

ICS + LABA

160
Q

whites budesonide + formoterol?

A

ICS + LABA

161
Q

wat is Symbicort HFA?

A

ICS + LABA

162
Q

what is mometasone + formoterol?

A

ICS + LABA

163
Q

what is Dulera HFA?

A

ICS + LABA

164
Q

what is Spiriva Respimat?

A

LAMA

165
Q

what is tiotropium?

A

LAMA

166
Q

what is beclomethasone HFA generic name and drug?

A

QVAR (ICS)

167
Q

what is budesonide DPI generic name and drug?

A

Pulmicort flexhaler (ICS)

168
Q

what is QVAR generic name?

A

beclomethason (ICS)

169
Q

what is pulmicort flexhaler?

A

budesonide (ICS)

170
Q

what is budesonide Neb?

A

pulmicort respules (ICS)

171
Q

what is pulmicort respules?

A

budesonide Neb (ICS)

172
Q

what is flunisolide HFA?

A

Aerospan (ICS)

173
Q

what is Aerospan?

A

flunisolide (ICS)

174
Q

what is fluticasone HFA?

A

Flovent HFA/Flovent diskus

175
Q

what is Flovent HFA/Flovent diskus?

A

fluticasone HFA

176
Q

what is mometasone DPI?

A

Asmanex Twisthaler

177
Q

what is Asmanex Twisthaler?

A

mometasone DPI (ICS)

178
Q

what is ciclesonide HFA?

A

Alvesco (ICS)

179
Q

what is Alvesco?

A

ciclesonide HFA (ICS)

180
Q

what is serevant diskus?

A

salmeterol (LABA)

181
Q

what is salmeterol?

A

serevant diskus (LABA)

182
Q

what is advair diskus/HFA?

A

fluticasone + salmeterol (ICS + LABA)

183
Q

what is fluticasone + salmeterol?

A

advair diskus/HFA (ICS + LABA)

184
Q

what is symbicort HFA?

A

budesonside + formoterol (ICS + LABA)

185
Q

what is budesonide + formoterol?

A

symbicort HFA (ICS + LABA)

186
Q

what is dulera HFA?

A

mometasone + formoterol (ICS + LABA)

187
Q

what is mometasone + formoterol?

A

dulera HFA (ICS + LABA)

188
Q

what is breo ellipta?

A

fluticasone furoate + vilanterol (ICS + LABA)

189
Q

what is fluticasone furoate + vilanterol?

A

breo ellipta (ICS + LABA)

190
Q

what is spiriva respimat?

A

tiotropium (LAMA)

191
Q

what is tiotropium?

A

spiriva respimat (LAMA)