Association Flashcards

1
Q

CON: When can you withdraw from an agreement?

A

If a person withdraws before the agreement is made, they would not be liable.

A person is still guilty of conspiracy if they are party to the agreement then withdraw afterwards.

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2
Q

CON: What is the mental and physical element of a conspiracy?

A

The mens rea (mental element):

  • an intention of those involved to agree, and
  • an intention that the relevant course of conduct should be pursued by those party to the agreement

The acts reus (physical element):

  • is the agreement between two or more people to put their common design into effect. The agreement must be made before the commission of the acts which make up the full offence and the object of the conspiracy
  • physical acts, words, or gestures used by the conspirators in making their agreement (whether this is an express or implied agreement)

*mere passive presence or knowledge of an intention does not amount to being a party to the conspiracy

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3
Q

CON: Explain what ‘intent’ is

A

There are two specific types of intent.

Deliberate Act:
- and act or omission must be done deliberately

Intent to produce a result:
- aim, object, or purpose

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4
Q

CON: What are three examples to prove a persons intent?

A
  1. the offenders actions and words, before, during, and after the event
  2. the surrounding circumstances
  3. the nature of the act itself
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5
Q

Can a person conspire on their own?

A

No, There must be another conspirator for the offence to be committed.

(R v White)

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6
Q

R v Malcahy

A

A conspiracy consists not merely in the intention of 2 or more but in the agreement of 2 or more to do an unlawful act, or lawful act by unlawful means.

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7
Q

What happens if a person enters into a conspiracy overseas?

A

Under common law rules, a person who entered into a conspiracy overseas is amendable to the jurisdiction of NZ law, ONLY if they are later physically present in NZ and they act in the continuance of the conspiracy.

NZ Courts have no jurisdiction over a conspirator who enters into the conspiracy abroad and who never comes to NZ.

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8
Q

CON: What is the admissibility of hearsay evidence?

A

Anything a conspirator or party to a joint charge says or does to further the common purpose is admissible against the others involved, this being an exception to the hearsay rile and as such conspirators should be jointly charged,

However this does not include explanations made after the common purpose is carried out. Then, the explanation is evidence only against the person making it.

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9
Q

CON: What do you need to cover off in a WITNESS statement re conspiracy?

A
  • the identity of the people present at the time of the agreement
  • with whom the agreement was made
  • what offence was planned
  • any acts carried out to further the common purpose
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10
Q

CON: What do you need to cover off in a SUSPECTS interview re conspiracy?

A
  • the existence of an agreement to commit an offence, OR
  • the existence of an agreement to omit to do something that wold amount to an offence, and
  • the intent of those involved in the agreement
  • the identity of all people concerned where possible
  • where anything was written, said or done to further the common purpose
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11
Q

CON: When charging, why is it undesirable to lay both a substantive charge and a related conspiracy charge?

A
  • the evidence admissible only on the conspiracy charge may be a prejudicial effect in relation to other charges
  • the judge may disallow the evidence as it will be too prejudicial, ie the jury may assume the defendants guilty knowledge or intent regarding the other charge and not look at the evidence, basing its assumption on the conspiracy charge
  • the addition of a conspiracy charge may unneccessarily complicate and prolong a trial
  • where the charge of conspiracy is not founded on evidence or is an abuse of process, it may be quashed
  • severance may be ordered. This mens that each charging document may be hard at seperate trials
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12
Q

ATTEMPT: What are the three elements of an attempt offence?

A
  • intent (mens rea) to commit an offence
  • act (actus reus) that they did, or omitted to do, something to achieve that end
  • proximity - that their act or omission was sufficiently close
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13
Q

R v Ring

A

In this case the offenders intent was to steal property by putting his hand into the pocket of the victim. Unbeknown to the offender, the pocket was empty. Despite this he was able to be convicted of attempted theft, because the intent to steal whatever property might have been discovered inside the pocket was present in his mind and demonstrated by his action. The remaining elements were also satisfied.

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14
Q

ATTEMPT: Explain what is meant by ‘acts must be sufficiently proximate to the full offence’:

A

The accused must have started to commit the full offence and have gone beyond the phase of mere preparation, this is the ‘all but’ rule.

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15
Q

ATTEMPT: What are some examples of acts that may constitute an attempt to commit an offence?

A
  • lying in wait searching for or following the contemplated victim
  • enticing the victim to go to the scene of the contemplated crime
  • reconnoitring the scene of the contemplated crime
  • unlawfully entering a structure, vehicle or enclosure in which it is contemplated that the crime will be committed
  • possessing, collecting, or fabricating materials to be employed in the commission of the crime
  • soliciting an innocent agent to engage in conduct constituting an element of the crime
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16
Q

ATTEMPT: Can a person still be charged with an attempt when an act is physically or factually impossible?

A

Yes, as they acted with criminal intent.

Suspects may be unable to commit the offence due to interruption, ineptitude, or any other circumstances beyond their control eg. a person failing to force open a door due to being to weak or they were interrupted by attending Police.

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17
Q

AATF: What does an “offence” mean?

A

Any act or omission that is punishable on conviction under any enactment, and are demarcated info four categories within S6, Criminal Procedures Act 2011.

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18
Q

R v Crooks

A

Knowledge means actual knowledge or belief in the sense of having no real doubt that the person assisted was a party to the relevant offence. Mere suspicion of their involvement in the offence is insufficient.

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19
Q

R v Briggs

A

As with a receiving charge under S246(1), knowledge may also be inferred from wilful blindness or a deliberate abstention from making inquiries that would confirm the suspected truth.

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20
Q

PERJ: Explain what is held under S113 CA1961 - Fabricating evidence.

A

Everyone is liable to 7 yers who, with intent to mislead any tribunal holding any judicial proceeding to which section 108 applies, fabricates evidence by any means other than perjury.

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21
Q

What are the elements of perjury?

A
  • a witness making any
  • assertion as to any matter of fact, opinion, belief, or knowledge
  • in any judicial proceeding
  • forming part of that witness’s evidence on oath
  • known by that witness to be false, and
  • intended to mislead the tribunal
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22
Q

PERJ: What is an opinion?

A

Opinion, in relation to a statement offered in evidence means a statement of opinion that tends to prove or disprove a fact.

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23
Q

PERJ: Under the Evidence Act 2006 (S24), what are some examples of opinion evidence that a witness may give?

A
  • apparent age
  • identity
  • speed
  • physical and emotional state of people
  • condition of articles (worn, used, or new)
  • whether a person is under the influence of drink

‘A witness may state an opinion in evidence in a proceeding if that opinion is necessary to enable the witness to communicate, or the fact-finder to understand, what the witness saw, herd, or otherwise perceived’

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24
Q

PERJ: When is the offence of perjury complete? And is there a defence?

A

At the time the false evidence is given accompanied by an intention to mislead the tribunal. There is no defence where the witness later recants and informs the tribunal of the falsity of the earlier evidence given.

There must be an intention to mislead the tribunal, where this intention is absent, no offence is committed.

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25
Q

PERJ: What are NINE examples of misleading justice under S116 & S117?

A
  • preventing a witness from testifying
  • wilfully going absent as a witness
  • threatening or bribing witnesses
  • concealing the fact an offence has been committed
  • intentionally giving Police false information to obstruct their enquiries
  • supplying false information to probation officers
  • assisting a wanted person to leave the country
  • arranging a false alibi
  • threatening or bribing jury members
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26
Q

PERJ: When may you commence a prosecution for perjury?

A

Where it is recommended by the Courts or you are directed to do so by the Commissioner of Police. You may however, begin enquiries into an allegation of perjury without reference to the Court or Commissioner of Police.

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27
Q

How can complaints of perjury arise?

A
  • an individual may complain that someone has perjured themselves
  • a judge may state or direct in a court recommendation that the Police undertake inquiries into the truth of the evidence given by a witness
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28
Q

REC: What are the elements of receiving?

A
  • act of receiving
  • any property stolen, or
  • obtained by any other imprisonable offence
  • knowing that at the time of receiving the property that it had been stolen or obtained by any other imprisonable offence, or
  • being reckless as to whether or not the property had been stolen or so obtained
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29
Q

REC: What are the three elements required to satisfy the act of receiving?

A
  • there must be property which has been stolen or has been obtained by an imprisonable offence
  • the defendant must have ‘received’ that property, which requires that the receiving must be from another (you cannot receive from yourself)
  • the defendant must receive that property in the knowledge that it has been stolen or illegally obtained, or being reckless as to that possibility
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30
Q

REC: Under S246(3)

A

The act of receiving any property stolen or obtained by any other imprisonable offence is complete as soon s the offender has, with exclusively or jointly with the the or another person, possession of, or control over, the property or helps in concealing or disposing of the property.

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31
Q

R v Cullen

A

There are four elements of possession for receiving:

  • awareness that the item is where it is
  • awareness that the item was stolen
  • actual or potential control of that item
  • an intention to exercise that control over the item
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32
Q

REC: What must the prosecutor prove in order to establish a person has exercised control over an item?

A

The prosecution must prove the receiver arranged for the property to be delivered there, or alternatively, that on discovering the property, he or she intentionally exercised control over it. Intent to possess the property must also be satisfied.

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33
Q

R v Donnelly

A

Where stolen property has been returned to the owner or legal title to the property has been acquired by any person, it is not an offence to subsequently receive it, even though the receiver may know the the property had previously been stolen or dishonestly obtained.

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34
Q

REC: Define property

A

Property includes real and personal property, and any estate or interest in any real and personal property, money, electricity, and any debt, and anything in action, and any other right or interest.

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35
Q

REC: What is the concept of title? (define title)

A

A right or claim to the ownership of property. Title or ownership of a thing is the legal right to possession of that thing.

If property is obtained by deception, the offenders gets possession and title, however there are limitations to that title.

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36
Q

REC: What is voidable title?

A

Title that has been obtained by deception is ‘voidable title’. It means that the title can be avoided by the seller (complainant). Although the title is voidable, it is still title.

If an innocent buyer bought the property off the deceiver, they acquire good title. If the title has been voided prior to the innocent buyer purchasing the item, they do not acquire title to the goods.

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37
Q

REC: How do you avoid title?

A
  • communicate directly with the deceiver
  • taking all reasonable and possible steps to bring it to the deceivers notice, eg. sending them a letter
  • advising Police of the circumstances of the deception
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38
Q

R v Kennedy

A

The guilty knowledge that the thing has been stolen or dishonestly obtained must exist at the time of receiving.

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39
Q

R v Harney

A

Recklessness means the conscious and deliberate taking of an unjustified risk. In NZ, it involves proof that the consequence complained of could well happened, together with an intention to continue the course of conduct regardless of risk.

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40
Q

REC: what are some examples of circumstantial evidence of guilty knowledge?

A
  • possession of recent stolen property
  • nature of the property, i.e type, value, quantity
  • purchase at a gross undervalue
  • secrecy in receiving the property
  • receipt of goods at an unusual time, place, or way
  • concealment of property to avoid discovery
  • removal of identifying marks or features
  • steps taken to disguise property, ie removal/altering of serial numbers or painting
  • lack of original packaging
  • type of person goods are received from
  • mode of payment
  • absence of receipt were receipt would usually be issued
  • false statements as to the source of the goods
  • false statement as to the date of acquisition
  • nature of explanation given, eg. false or inconsistent or no reasonable explanation
  • false denial of knowledge, existence etc.
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41
Q

REC: Explain what the doctrine of recent possession means?

A

The doctoring applies ONLY in case where the defendant is found in possession of the property recently stolen or obtained dishonestly.

In circumstances where a person is found in possession of stolen property reasonable soon after the theft, an inference may be drawn that the person in possession either stole the property or received it from the thief.

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42
Q

REC: Where does the doctrine of recent possession have no application?

A

To the concealing or disposition of property.

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43
Q

ML: Define ‘offence’ under S243 CA1961 (Money Laundering)

A

Offence: means an offence (or any offence described as a crime) that is punishable under NZ law, including any act, wherever committed, that would be an offence in NZ if committed in NZ.

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44
Q

ML: Money Laundering, S243(2) CA1961, defines the actual offence of MONEY LAUNDERING. What is it?

A
  • 7 years who,
  • in respect to any property that is the proceeds an offence,
  • engages in a money laundering transaction,
  • knowing or believing that all or part of the property is the proceeds of an offence,
  • or being reckless as to whether or not the property is the proceeds of crime
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45
Q

CP: Define tainted property

A

Under S5 of the Criminal Proceeds (Recover) Act 2009

Tainted property means any property that has, wholly or in part, been -

  • acquired as a result of significant criminal activity; or
  • directly or indirectly derived from significant criminal; activity; and

Includes any property that has been acquired as a result of, or directly or indirectly derived from, more than 1 activity if at least 1 of those activities is a significant criminal activity

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46
Q

CP: Define ‘qualifying instrument forfeiture offence’

A

Under S5 of the Criminal Proceeds (Recover) Act 2009

Qualifying instrument forfeiture offence means an offence punishable by 5 years or more; and
- includes an attempt to commit, conspiring to commit, or being an accessory to an offence if the max term of imprisonment for that attempt, conspiracy, or activity is 5 years or more

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47
Q

CP: Under S7 Criminal Proceeds (Recover) Act 2009, outlines the meaning of unlawful benefited from significant criminal activity. What is explained?

A

In this act, unless the context otherwise requires, a person has unlawful benefited from significant criminal activity if the person has knowingly, directly, or indirectly, derived a benefit from significant criminal activity (whether or not that person undertook or was involved in the significant criminal activity)

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48
Q

CP: Before an application to restrain an instrument of crime, an assessment process is required. What are the four things to determine?

A
  1. the value of the asset
  2. equity of the asset
  3. any third party interest in the asset
  4. the cost of action in respect of the asset
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49
Q

CP: What is required in the affidavit for an application to restrain an instrument of crime?

A
  • Officer in charge details
  • Offenders - details, charges, and criminal convictions
  • Search Warrant - describe the nature of the offending discovered at or involving the asset concerned. Where the value of the asset is high, you need to demonstrate that the offending was at more of a commercial level
  • Admissions made during interview(s)
  • Property - describe prop sought to be restrained and its value. Show that the offender owns, has custody, or control over that property
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50
Q

ML: When interviewing a suspect about money laundering or where proceeds recovery action is to be considered, what are some questions to be considered?

A
  • suspects legitimate income
  • suspects illegitimate income
  • expenditure
  • assets
  • liabilities
  • obtaining financial records (banks, financing companies, loan sharks, family trust documents)
  • clarification of documentary evidence located, as per above
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51
Q

PERJ: What is a witness? RTS.

A

A witness is a person that has given evidence as part of judicial tribunal and is able to be cross examined. It may also include a person who is about to give evidence.

RTS: Lisa is a witness as she is giving evidence at a JAT and she is subject to cross examination.

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52
Q

PERJ: What is an assertion?

A

It is something declared or stated positively.

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53
Q

PERJ: What is a matter of fact? RTS.

A

Something that has occurred. This includes a past event or fact that has happened.

RTS: Lisa tells the Court she did not seize the items. This is a matter of fact.

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54
Q

PERJ: What is a judicial proceeding? RTS.

A

It is any type of court proceeding. It includes giving evidence by a visual audio link from another country.

RTS: Lisa is participating in a JAT witch is a judicial proceeding.

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55
Q

PERJ: What is evidence?

A

Evidence can be given in several ways including in person in court or by an alternative way such as with screen, by an audio or visual link, DVD etc or by other way provided for under this act.

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56
Q

PERJ: What is an Oath? RTS.

A

An oath is a declaration before a person who has authority to administer an oath and says whether a things true or right. An oath and an affirmation are deemed to have equal bearing.

Lisa is giving evidence personally in court, She has affirmed her intention to tell the truth.

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57
Q

PERJ: What is knowing? RTS.

A

Knowing means knowing or correctly believing. The belief must be a correct one, where the belief is wrong, someone cannot know.

Lisa knows by saying she never seized the drug items, when in fact she knows she did but she just lost them.

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58
Q

PERJ: Explain a persons intention to mislead the tribunal. RTS.

A

The defendants intention must be to mislead the tribunal. Where that intention does not exist, no offence has been committed. Intent involves two elements, intention to commit the act, and an intention to get a specified result.

Lisa makes an assertion she never seized the drug items which is false, and she knows it is false. Her intention is to mislead the tribunal due to her fearing she will be regarded as a slacker.

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59
Q

What is S66(1) CA1961?

A

Party
S66(1) Every one is a party to and guilty of an offence who -
(a) actually commits the offence; or
(b) does or omits an act for the purpose of aiding any person to commit the offence; or
(c) abets any person in the commission of the offence; or
(d) incites, counsels, or procures any person to commit the offence

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60
Q

What is S66(2) CA1961?

A

Party
66(2) Where 2 or more persons form a common intention to prosecute any unlawful purpose, and to assist each other therein, each of them is a party to every offence committed by any one of them in the prosecution of the common purpose if the commission of that offence was known to be a probable consequence of the prosecution of the common purpose.

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61
Q

AATF: What knowledge must the person have at the time of assisting another person?

A
  1. that an offence has been committed AND

2. the person they are assisting was a party (principal or secondary) to that offence

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62
Q

ATTEMPT: Define incites

A

To rouse up, stir up, stimulate, animate, urge. eg. a sports fan.

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63
Q

A man who has an intent to commit a burglary and visits the commercial premise several times to scope the CCTV out, what is he guilty of?

A

He isn’t guilty of anything as he hasn’t gone beyond mere preparation to commit the full offence.

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64
Q

How is conspiracy defined in Mulcahy v R?

A

A conspiracy consists not merely in the intention of two or more, but in the agreement of two or more to do an unlawful act, or to do a lawful act by unlawful means.

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65
Q

What was found in R v Sanders regarding when a conspiracy ends?

A

A conspiracy does not end with the making of the agreement. The conspiratorial agreement continues in operation and therefore in existence until it is ended by completion of its performance or abandonment or in any other manner by which agreements are discharged.

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66
Q

What does s67 say about who can commit a conspiracy?

A

s67, CA 61
A husband and wife or civil union partners can commit conspiracy.

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67
Q

What was found in R v White regarding the people involved in a conspiracy?

A

The conspiracy may be by a person who could not commit the crime and where you can prove that a suspect conspired with other parties whose identities are unknown, that suspect can still be convicted even if the identity of the other parties is never established and remains unknown.

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68
Q

Churchill v Walton

A

The conspirators need not know it is an offence but must know the act is unlawful.

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69
Q

How is knowledge defined in Simester and Brookbanks?

A

Knowledge means actual knowledge or belief in the sense of having no real doubt that the person assisted was a party to the relevant offence. Mere suspicion of their involvement in the offence is insufficient.

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70
Q

What was held in R v Briggs - wilful blindness.

A

Knowledge may also be inferred from wilful blindness or a deliberate abstention from making inquiries that would confirm the suspected truth.

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71
Q

For the purposes of the liability for Accessory After the Fact, how is Party defined in the Crimes Act? What are the elements?

A

Party - s66(1), CA 61
Defined as being anyone who
a) Actually commits the offence
b) Does or omits an act for the purpose of aiding any person to commit the offence
c) Abets any person in the commission of the offence
d) Incites, counsels, or procures any person to commit the offence

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72
Q

R v Mane

A

To be considered an accessory the acts done by the person must be after the completion of the offence.

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73
Q

For the purposes of the liability for Receiving when is receiving complete according to the Crimes Act?

A

Receiving
Receiving is complete as soon as the offender has, either exclusively or jointly with the thief or any other person, possession of, or control over, the property or helps in concealing or disposing of the property,
s246(3), CA 61

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74
Q

R v Donnelly as it appears in the element of ‘Receives’ in the liability for Receiving.

A

R v Donnelly
Where stolen property has been physically recovered by the Police it is legally impossible to commit the crimes of receiving or attempted. It must be legally possible to receive the property.

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75
Q

R v Lucinsky

A

The property received must be the property stolen or illegally obtained (or part thereof) and not some other item for which the illegally obtained property had been exchanged or which are the proceeds.

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76
Q

Discuss the element ‘Stolen’ in the liability for Receiving.

A

Stolen
s219(1), CA 61
Dishonestly and without claim of right, taking any property with intent to deprive any owner permanently of that property or of any interest in that property.

77
Q

How is obtains defined in the Crimes Act?

A

Obtains
s217, CA 61
Means obtain or retain for himself or herself or for any other person.

78
Q

R v Kennedy as it appears in the liability for Receiving.

A

R v Kennedy
A guilty knowledge that the thing has been stolen or dishonestly obtained must exist at the time of receiving.

79
Q

When is a conspiracy complete?

A

The offence is complete on the agreement being made, accompanied by the required intent.

80
Q

List three types of circumstantial evidence from which intent may be inferred.

A

offender’s actions and words before, during and after the event
surrounding circumstances
nature of the act itself

81
Q

How does the Oxford Dictionary define ‘Act’?

A

take action or do something, to bring about a particular result.

82
Q

How does the Oxford Dictionary define ‘Omission’?

A

The action of excluding or leaving out someone or something, a failure to fulfil a moral or legal obligation.

83
Q

In what situation could someone conspiring outside of NZ be charged with conspiracy in NZ courts?

A

If they were later physically present in NZ and there act in continuance of the conspiracy.

84
Q

In what situation could someone conspiring to commit an offence overseas still be charged under the Crimes Act? What would be the defence?

A

If they conspire to commit anything, the doing or omitting of which would be an offence if done or omitted in NZ.

They have a defence if they can prove that the act is not an offence under the law of the place where it was to be committed.

85
Q

What is the exception to the hearsay rule in regards to the admissibility of evidence for a Conspiracy charge? What effect does this have on how people should be charged?

A

Anything a conspirator or party to a joint charge says or does to further the common purpose is admissible against the others involved. Therefore conspirators should be jointly charged.

86
Q

What five points should be covered when interviewing conspiracy suspects?

A

the existence of an agreement to commit an offence
-OR the existence of an agreement to omit to do something that would amount to an offence
the intent of those involved in the agreement
the identity of all people concerned where possible
whether anything was written, said or done to further the common purpose

87
Q

Explain the liability of a person who agrees to commit an offence with another person but then withdraws from the agreement before the completion of the intended offence.

A

A person withdrawing from the agreement is still guilty of conspiracy, as are those people who become party to the agreement after it has been made. However a person can effectively withdraw before the actual agreement is made.

88
Q

What are three groups of offences that do not allow for a prosecution in respect of an attempt?

A

Offences where:
- the criminality depends on recklessness or negligence, eg. manslaughter
- an attempt to commit an offence is included within the definition of that offence, eg. assault
- the offence is such that the act has to have been completed in order for the offence to exist at all. Eg. Demanding with menaces (it is the demand accompanied by menace that constitutes the offence)

89
Q

What three elements must apply for attempts?

A

intent (mens rea) - to commit an offence
act (actus reus) - that they did, or omitted to do, something to achieve that end
proximity - that their act or omission was sufficiently close

90
Q

Quote the definition of attempts in the Crimes Act.

A

s72(1), CA 1961
Everyone who, having an intent to commit an offence, does or omits an act for the purpose of accomplishing his object, is guilty of an attempt to commit the offence intended, whether in the circumstances it was possible to commit the offence or not.

91
Q

Summarise the case law that is significant when considering the issue of inferring intent from an act (in relation to an attempt).

A

R v Ring
In this case the offender’s intent was to steal property by putting his hands into the pocket of the victim. Unbeknown to the offender the pocket was empty. Despite this he was able to be convicted of attempted theft, because the intent to steal whatever property might have been discovered inside the pocket was present in his mind and demonstrated by his actions. The remaining elements were also satisfied.

92
Q

Explain the rule used to decide whether a defendant’s actions are sufficiently proximate.

A

Effectively the defendant must have started to commit the full offence and have gone beyond the phase of mere preparation - this is the “all but” rule.

93
Q

What was held in R v Harpur in relation to Attempts?

A

The Court may have regard to the conduct viewed cumulatively up to the point where the conduct in question stops. The defendant’s conduct may be considered in its entirety. Considering how much remains to be done is always relevant, though not determinative.

94
Q

What are the two questions suggested by Simester and Brookbanks in relation to the proximity test?

A

Has the offender done anything more than getting himself into a position from which he could embark on actual attempt?
OR
Has the offender actually commenced execution; that is to say has he taken a step in the actual offence itself?

95
Q

Briefly outline the three pieces of case law in relation to an act being physically or factually impossible.

A

R v Ring - put his hand in the pocket of a woman but there was nothing to be stolen
Higgins v Police - cultivated plants that weren’t cannabis so attempted to cultivate cannabis
Police v Jay - bought hedge clippings thinking they were cannabis

96
Q

Outline the role of judge and jury in regards to Attempts.

A

Judge must decide whether defendant has left preparation stage and was already trying to effect completion of the full offence. If Judge decides defendant’s actions were more than mere preparation the case goes to jury.

Jury decides whether facts presented by Crown have been proved beyond reasonable doubt then whether defendant’s actions are close enough to full offence. Jury must decide whether it’s beyond reasonable doubt that the defendant intended to commit full offence.

97
Q

Outline penalties for Attempts.

A

If max punishment is life = 10yrs
Everything else = half max punishment

98
Q

True or false? Where a person is charged with the full offence but are found guilty only of an attempt they may be convicted of the attempt.

A

TRUE

99
Q

True or false? Where a person is charged with the attempt but the evidence establishes that they committed the full offence they can be convicted of the full offence.

A

FALSE

100
Q

In each case of charging a person with being a party to an offence, what needs to be proved?

A

Identity of the defendant
An offence has been successfully committed
The elements of the offence (s66(1)) have been satisfied

101
Q

When must participation have occurred for someone to be considered a party to an offence?

A

Before or during the commission of the offence and before the completion of the offence

102
Q

R v Pene

A

A party must intentionally help or encourage - it is insufficient if they were reckless as to whether the principal was assisted or encouraged.

103
Q

There are two methods by which multiple offenders may be considered to be principals. What are those methods?

A

Each offender satisfies elements of the offence committed. They separately satisfy the necessary elements of the offence committed. No need to refer to s66(1).
Each offender separately satisfies part of the actus reus. Their actions must also be accompanied by the mens rea.

104
Q

Summarise R v Renata.

A

Three offenders beat the victim to death in the car park of a tavern. The prosecution was unable to establish which blow was the fatal one or which of the three offenders administered it.

R v Renata
The court held that where the principal offender cannot be identified it is sufficient to prove that each individual accused must have been either the principal or a party in one of the ways contemplated by s66(1).

105
Q

Larkins v Police (not verbatim)

A

While it is unnecessary that the principal should be aware that he or she is being assisted, there must be proof of actual assistance.

106
Q

What are the two pieces of case law that relate to legal duty and special relationship?

A

Legal duty = Ashton v Police: a person teaching another person to drive is a secondary party with a legal duty owing to the general public.

Special relationship = R v Russell: A man has a special relationship with his wife and children and is morally bound to take active steps to save his children.

107
Q

Define ‘aid’ in the context of party to an offence.

A

To assist in the commission of the offence, either physically or by giving advice and information.

108
Q

Define ‘abet’ in the context of party to an offence.

A

To instigate or encourage; to urge another person to commit the offence.

109
Q

Define ‘incites’ in the context of party to an offence.

A

To rouse, stir up, stimulate, animate, urge or spur on a person to commit the offence

110
Q

Define ‘counsel’ in the context of party to an offence.

A

To intentionally instigate the offence by advising a person on how best to commit an offence, or planning the commission of an offence for another person. May also mean urging someone to commit an offence (overlap with incitement).

111
Q

Define ‘procure’ in the context of party to an offence.

A

Setting out to see that something happens and taking the appropriate steps to ensure that it does.

112
Q

R v Betts and Ridley

A

An offence where no violence is contemplated and the principal offender in carrying out the common aim uses violence, a secondary offender taking no physical part in it would not be held liable for the violence used.

113
Q

Section 66(2)

A

Where two or more persons form a common intention to prosecute any unlawful purpose, and to assist each other therein, each of them is a party to every offence committed by any one of them in the prosecution of the common purpose if the commission of that offence was known to be a probable consequence of the prosecution of the common purpose.

114
Q

True or false? An accomplice can be convicted of a lesser offence than the one that the principal offender is convicted of.

A

True (R v Hartley)

115
Q

Mere presence at the scene of an offence does not create liability on the part of the bystander. What are the two exceptions?

A

Special relationship and legal duty

116
Q

Outline the penalties for Accessory After the Fact.

A

If max penalty is life = max 7yrs
If max penalty is 10+yrs = max 5yrs
Everything else = max half the max punishment for that offence

117
Q

What needs to be proved for a charge of Accessory After the Fact?

A

That the person who is received, comforted or assisted by the accessory is a party to an offence that has been committed.
That, at the time of receiving, comforting or assisting that person, the accessory knows that person was a party to the offence.
That the accessory received, comforted or assisted that person or tampered with or actively suppressed any evidence against that person.
That at the time of receiving, comforting or assisting etc. the accessory’s purpose was to enable that person to escape after arrest or to avoid arrest or conviction.

118
Q

Can you be charged under s71(1) if you are a spouse of the primary offender?

A

Yes you can be charged as an accessory after the fact, this was recently changed and subsection (2) was repealed meaning now a spouse can be charged.
However if the offence occurred before the change in March 2019 then they can not be charged, the offence must have occurred after the change.

119
Q

For an Accessory, what knowledge must exist at the time assistance is given?

A

That
- an offence has been committed, and
- the person they are assisting was a party to that offence

120
Q

What are the five intentional acts from which an Accessory must do one

A

Receives
Comforts
Assists
Tampers with evidence
Actively suppresses evidence

121
Q

R v Gibbs

A

The act done by the accessory must have helped the other person in some way to avoid justice.

122
Q

True or false? It is possible to be convicted of attempting to be an accessory after the fact.

A

True (R v DH)

123
Q

What are the three possible intents of an Accessory?

A

To enable the offender to
- escape after arrest
- avoid arrest
- avoid conviction

124
Q

True or false? A person can be convicted as an Accessory After the Fact where the offender has been acquitted of the offence.

A

TRUE

125
Q

Define receives in the context of Accessory After the Fact.

A

Receives: Refers to harbouring an offender or offering them shelter

126
Q

Define comforts

A

Comforts: Refers to providing shelter, accommodation, food, clothing or other supplies to an offender

127
Q

Give 5 examples of assisting in the context of Accessory After the Fact.

A

providing transport
acting as a lookout
identifying purchaser for stolen property as a receiver
deliberately providing authorities with false info as to offender’s whereabouts
giving advice, info, material or services to offender

128
Q

Define tampers with

A

Tampers with: To alter the evidence against the offender

129
Q

Define actively suppresses

A

Actively suppresses: Encompasses acts of concealing or destroying evidence against offender

130
Q

What is the primary difference between a party to an offence and an accessory after the fact?

A

A party is involved in before or during commission of the offence; accessory is involved after the principal offence has been committed.

131
Q

Under what circumstances can you charge someone as being an accessory when they have received goods dishonestly obtained?

A

Where you can prove that the property was received with an intention to assist the offender evade justice.

132
Q

When is perjury complete?

A

At the time the false evidence is given accompanied by an intention to mislead the tribunal.

133
Q

What are the two main points to be covered when interviewing a suspect in respect of perjury?

A

Whether the suspect knew their assertion was false AND
Whether they intended to mislead the tribunal governing proceedings

134
Q

Outline the penalties for Receiving.

A

Value $1,000+ = max 7 yrs
$500-1,000 = max 1 yr
Less than $500 = max 3 mths

135
Q

What three elements need to be satisfied for the act of receiving?

A

There must be property which has been stolen or has been obtained by an imprisonable offence
The defendant must have received that property, which requires that the receiving must be from another (you cannot receive from yourself)
The defendant must receive that property in the knowledge that it has been stolen or illegally obtained, or being reckless as to that possibility

136
Q

What was held in R v Kennedy in relation to establishing possession for Receiving?

A

The prosecution must prove an intent on the part of the receiver to possess the property.

137
Q

Explain how possession of property can be established in a charge of receiving.

A

By showing that the property is:
- in the immediate physical custody of the receiver OR
- at a location, over which the receiver has control (such as their place or business or private residence)

138
Q

Explain the doctrine of recent possession.

A

it is the presumption that, where the defendant acquired possession willingly, the proof of possession by the defendant of property recently stolen is, in the absence of a satisfactory explanation, evidence to justify a belief and finding that the possessor is either the thief or receiver or has committed some other offence associated with the theft of the property (eg. burglary, robbery).

139
Q

How can title be avoided?

A

Communicating directly with the receiver
Taking all reasonable and possible steps to bring it to the deceiver’s notice (eg. letter, email)
Advising police of the circumstances of the deception

140
Q

Define the term money laundering.

A

The process of dealing with the proceeds of criminal activity in such a way as to make the proceeds appear to have been legitimately acquired.

141
Q

The elements of money laundering.

A

In respect of any property that is the proceeds of an offence
Engages in a money laundering transaction
Knowing or believing that all or part of the property is the proceeds of an offence
Or being reckless as to whether or not the property is the proceeds of an offence

142
Q

What is the purpose of the Criminal Proceeds (Recover) Act 2009?

A

…to establish a regime for the forfeiture of property
a) that has been derived directly or indirectly from significant criminal activity or
b) that represents the value of a person’s unlawfully derived income

143
Q

What is a qualifying instrument forfeiture offence?

A

a) Means an offence punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of 5 years or more AND
b) Includes an attempt to commit, conspiring to commit, or being an accessory to an offence if the maximum term of imprisonment for that attempt, conspiracy or activity is 5 years or more.

144
Q

What is the definition of ‘significant criminal activity’ under s6, CP(R)A?

A

…significant criminal activity means an activity engaged in by a person that if proceeded against as a criminal offence would amount to offending
a) that consists of or includes one or more offences punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of 5 years or more OR
b) from which property, proceeds or benefits of a value of $30,000 or more have, directly or indirectly, been acquired or derived.

145
Q

What is the definition of ‘tainted property’ in s5, CP(R)A?

A

a) means any property that has, wholly or in part, been
i) acquired as a result of significant criminal activity or
ii) directly or indirectly derived from significant criminal activity and
b) includes any property that has been acquired as a result of, or directly or indirectly derived from, more than one activity if at least one of those activities is a significant criminal activity.

146
Q

How long is a restraining order in relation to an Instrument of Crime valid?

A

One year from the date on which the order is made. Court may issue extension before expiry for another year.

147
Q

What points need to be considered when interviewing a suspect about money laundering?

A

suspect’s legitimate income
suspect’s illegitimate income
expenditure
assets
liabilities
acquisition of financial records, from banks, financing companies, loan sharks, family trust documents
clarification of documentary evidence located, as per above

148
Q

List four points to cover when interviewing a witness for Conspiracy.

A

The identity of the people present at the time of the agreement
With whom the agreement was made
What offence was planned
Any acts carried out to further the common purpose

149
Q

Give five reasons why it is undesirable to lay both a substantive charge and a related conspiracy charge.

A

The evidence admissible only on the conspiracy charge may have a prejudicial effect in relation to other charges
The judge may disallow the evidence as it will be too prejudicial
The addition of a conspiracy charge may unnecessarily complicate and prolong a trial
Where the charge of conspiracy is not founded on evidence or is an abuse of process it may be quashed
Severance may be ordered.

150
Q

List four elements that must be taken into consideration when determining proximity.

A

Fact
Degree
Common sense
Seriousness of offence

151
Q

Define innocent agent.

A

Someone who is unaware of the significance of their actions.

152
Q

List five examples of circumstances commonly relied on as evidence of guilty knowledge on the part of a receiver.

A

possession of recently stolen property
nature of the property
purchase at gross undervalue
secrecy in receiving property
receipt of goods at unusual place
receipt of goods at unusual time
receipt of goods in unusual way
concealment of property to avoid discovery
removal of identifying marks/features
steps taken to disguise property
lack of original packaging
type of person goods received from
mode of payment
absence of receipt where one would usually be issued
false statements as to the source of the goods
false statement as to date of acquisition
nature of explanation given, eg, false/inconsistent
false denial of knowledge/existence

153
Q

According to s7, Criminal Proceeds (Recovery) Act 2009, what is the meaning of unlawfully benefited from significant criminal activity?

A

knowingly, directly or indirectly, derived a benefit from significant criminal activity (whether or not that person undertook or was involved in the significant criminal activity).

154
Q

Under s55, Criminal Proceeds (Recovery) Act 2009, when must the High Court make a profit forfeiture order?

A

…if it is satisfied on the balance of probabilities that
a) the respondent has unlawfully benefited from significant criminal activity within the relevant period of criminal activity and
b) the respondent has interests in the property.

155
Q

Who may apply for restraining orders (apart from those relating to instruments of crime), assets forfeiture orders and profit orders?

A

Only members of the Asset Recovery Unit.

156
Q

How is property defined in the Crimes Act?

A

Property
s2, CA 61
Property includes real and personal property and any estate or interest in any real or personal property, money, electricity and any debt and any thing in action and any other right or interest.

157
Q

Cullen v R

A

There are four elements of possession for receiving:
(a) awareness that the item is where it is;
(b) awareness that the item has been stolen;
(c) actual or potential control of the item; and
(d) an intention to exercise that control over the item.

158
Q

Once the acts are sufficiently proximate, the defendant has no defence if they are unable to commit the full offence due to:

A

being prevented by some outside agency from doing something that was necessary to complete the offence (eg. interruption by Police)
failing to complete the full offence due to ineptitude, inefficiency or insufficient means (eg. insufficient explosive to blow apart a safe)
being prevented from committing the offence because an intervening event made it physically impossible (eg removal of property before intended theft)

159
Q

R v Cox

A

Possession involves two elements. The first, often called the physical element, is actual or potential physical custody or control. The second, often described as the mental element is a combination of knowledge and intention: knowledge in the sense of an awareness by the accused that the substance is in his possession and an intention to exercise possession.

160
Q

R v Harney

A

Recklessness means the conscious and deliberate taking of an unjustified risk. In New Zealand it involves proof that the consequences complained of could well happen, together with an intention to continue the course of conduct regardless of risk.

161
Q

Explain the three stages of the Money Laundering Cycle.

A

Placement: Cash enters the financial system
Layering: Money is involved in a number of transactions
Integration: Money is mixed with lawful funds or integrated back into the economy with the appearance of legitimacy

162
Q

What is the section, act, and the elements for the offence of Accessory after the fact

A

S71 CA1961
An accessory after the fact to an offence is one who,
- Knowing any person to have been a party to an offence
- Receives, comforts, or assists that person, or
- Tampers with or actively suppresses any evidence against him,
- In order to enable him to escape after arrest or to avoid arrest or conviction.

163
Q

What in the section, act, and the elements for the offence of Receiving

A

S246 CA 1961
Every one who,
- Receives any property, stolen or obtained by any imprisonable offence,
- Knowing that property to have been stolen or so obtained, or
- Being reckless as to whether or not the property had been stolen or so obtained.

164
Q

What is the section, act, and the elements for the offence of Conspiracy

A

S310 CA1961
Every one who,
- Conspires
- With any person
- To commit any offence or
- To do or omit, in any part of the world
- Anything of which the doing or omission in New Zealand would be an offence,

165
Q

What is the section, act, and the elements for the offence of Perjury

A

S108 CA1961
- A witness making any,
- Assertion as to any matter of fact, opinion, belief, or knowledge,
- In any judicial proceeding
- Forming part of that witness’s evidence on oath,
- Known by the witness to be false and,
- Intended to mislead the tribunal.

166
Q

What is the definition of a witness for the charge of perjury?

A

A witness is a person who gives evidence and is able to be cross-examined in
a proceeding.

167
Q

What is the definition of an assertion for the charge of perjury?

A

This is something declared or stated positively, often with no support or
attempt made at furnishing evidence or proof of the assertion’s accuracy.

168
Q

What is probable consequence

A

Whether an outcome is known to be a probable consequence is a subjective appreciation on the part of the offender (person A)

Where they must actually foresee the likelihood that their co-offender (person B) will commit another offence (offence B) when committing the original offence (offence A) agreed by both parties

169
Q

Probable consequence
Qualification 1

A

There is no requirement that person A knows or foresees the precise manner in which offence B is to be committed by person B.

Person A need only realise that an offence of that type is probable

170
Q

Probable consequence
Qualification 2

A

There is no requirement that person A’s foresight of offence B include any appreciation of the consequences of the physical elements of the offence committed (offence B),

but for which no mens rea element is required

171
Q

What two reasons would cause a person to be charged as a party to murder?

A

intentionally helped or encourage it
Foresaw murder as a confederate, as a real risk in the situation that arose

172
Q

What three reasons would cause a person to be charged for manslaughter?

A

Knew that at some stage there was a real risk of killing short of murder
Foresaw A real risk of murder but the killing occurred in circumstances different from those contemplated
– can be expected to have known there was an ever present real risk of killing

173
Q

Investigative procedure
Establishing involvement of parties (5 points)

A

Reconstruction of the offence committed. This would indicate that more than one person was involved or the principal offender had received advice or assistance.
– The principal offender acknowledging or admitting others were involved.

– suspect or witness admitting to providing aid or assistance when interviewed.

A witness providing you with evidence of another person’s involvement based on their observations.

– Receiving information indicating others were involved

174
Q

Matter of fact

A

A fact is a thing done, an actual occurrence or event and it is presented during court proceedings in the form of witness testimony and evidence

175
Q

Opinion s4 Evidence act 2006

A

Opinion, in relation to a statement offered in evidence, means a statement of opinion that tends to prove or disprove a fact.

176
Q

Opinion evidence by Lay Witness
Section 24 Evidence Act 2006

A

General admissibility of opinions

A witness may state an opinion in evidence in a proceeding if that opinion is necessary to enable the witness to communicate, or the fact finder to understand, what the witness saw, heard or otherwise perceived

177
Q

Belief

A

Subjective feeling regarding the validity of an idea or set of facts.
More than mere suspicion and less than knowledge.

178
Q

Judicial proceeding

A

S14 Courts (Remote Participation) Act 2010

Giving false evidence by such a method from another country would equate to perjury in NZ and falls within NZ jurisdiction

179
Q

Giving Evidence

A

Means to give evidence in a proceeding
S4 evidence Act 2006 in 3 defined ways

in the ordinary way as described in section 83 (Personally in court or buy affidavit), or
in an alternative way, As provided for by section 105 (CCTV, DVD, screens etc), or
in any other way provided for under this act or any other enactment

180
Q

Oath, affirmation, declaration

A

A declaration before a person who has authority to administer an oath:

Oath - which invokes religious belief and says a thing is true and right.

Affirmation - says that a thing is true and right without reference to religious belief

Declaration - a witness under 12 years - a promise to tell the truth

181
Q

Intention to mislead

A

The offence of perjury is complete at the time the false evidence is given accompanied by an intention to mislead the tribunal.

There is no defence where the witness later recounts and informs the tribunal of the falsity of the evidence given. 

182
Q

Sec 121 Evidence Act 2006
Corroboration

A

(1) it is not necessary in a Criminal proceeding for the evidence which the prosecution realised to be corroborated, except with the respect to the offences of:

(a) perjury (s108 CA 1961)
(b) false oaths (s110 CA 1961)
(c) false statements or declarations (s111 CA 1961)
(d) treason (s73 CA 1961)

183
Q

Why is corroboration in perjury, false oaths, false statements or declarations and treason charges required ?

A

To protect witnesses from accusations of lying on oath. If it is too easy to prosecute for perjury it might discourage people from giving evidence

184
Q

Conspiring to defeat justice

A

Sec 116 CA 1961

Everyone is liable to imprisonment for a term of 7 years who:

conspires to
obstruct, prevent, pervert, or defeat
the course of justice

185
Q

Examples of misleading justice in s116 and S117 (9 points)

A

preventing a witness from testifying
– wilfully going absent as a witness

– threatening or bribing witnesses

– concealing the fact an offence has been committed

– intentionally giving police false information to obstruct their inquiries

– supplying false information to probation officers

– assisting a wanted person to leave the country are

– arranging a false alibi

– threatening or bribing jury members

186
Q

Corrupting juries and witnesses
S117 CA 1961

A

Everyone is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding seven years who:

(A) dissuade or attempts to dissuade any person, by threats, bribes or other corrupt means from giving evidence in any cause or matter

(B) Influences or attempts to influence, by threats or bribes or other corrupt means, a member of a jury

(C) Except any bribe or other corrupt consideration to abstain from giving evidence

(D) Except any bribe or other corrupt consideration on account of his or her conduct as a member of a jury

(E) wilfully attempts in any other way to obstruct, prevent, pervert, or defeat the course of justice

187
Q

When giving evidence If the offenders aim Was to secure a just result or one they believe it was right … is this a Defence to a charge of conspiring to defeat the course of justice?

A

No

188
Q

Perjury
Investigative procedure (4 points)

A

conspiring to defeat the course of justice encompasses both civil and criminal proceedings
In situations where you are unable to establish a conspiracy pursuant to section 116, the evidence may reveal a wilful attempt to obstruct, prevent, pervert or defeat the course of justice section 117
You may only commit to prosecution for perjury where it is recommended by the courts or you are directed to do so by the commissioner of police. You may however begin inquiries into allegation of perjury without these
Complaints of perjury can arise in two ways:
An individual may complain someone has purged themselves
A judge my state or direct in a quart recommendation that the police undertake inquiries into the truth of evidence given by a witness