assmt test Flashcards

1
Q

Selective abstraction

A

Selective abstraction occurs when one focuses on a detail that is taken out of context, at the expense of other information.

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2
Q

Personalization

A

Personalization is when external events are incorrectly attributed to oneself.

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3
Q

Dichotomous thinking

A

Dichotomous or polarized thinking is categorizing experiences into one of two extremes, i.e., either/or thinking.

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4
Q

Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model (also known as the Nigrescence Model)

A

Pre-Encounter: People in this stage prefer White culture, and they may have internalized negative stereotypes of Blacks and blame Blacks for their own problems.
Encounter: The encounter stage begins when an important event or series of events challenges the person’s worldview and causes the person to question his or her positive attitude toward White culture and consider what it means to be a member of a group that is the target of racism.
Immersion-Emersion: Individuals in this stage denigrate White culture and glorify Black culture. They actively seek out opportunities to learn about Black history and culture and prefer associating with individuals of their own race.
Internalization: People in the internalization stage have started to develop a sense of security about their Black identity. Their negative feelings about White culture have declined, and race has become a less salient issue.
Internalization-Commitment: Individuals in this stage have internalized a Black identity and are committed to social activism to improve equality for oppressed groups.

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5
Q

Based on the psychotherapy outcome research, your best estimate of the percentage of therapy clients showing measurable improvement at the end of therapy is:

A

75%

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6
Q

Joining and restructuring

A

structural family therapy

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7
Q

Paradoxical directives and reframing

A

strategic family therapy

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8
Q

Non-directive listening and interpretation

A

object relations family therapy

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9
Q

Group size

A

7-10 members

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10
Q

Yalom says group members need

A

motivation

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11
Q

Guidelines for Asian American clients include the following:

A

Determine the client’s cultural identity and level of acculturation in the initial session. Keep in mind that, within families, differences in level of acculturation may be a source of conflict.
Explore the client’s beliefs about the contributors to his or her presenting problems. Asian American clients often express psychological problems as somatic symptoms due to a holistic view of mind and body and because doing so is more acceptable to members of their culture.
Be aware that Asian American families tend to be hierarchical and patriarchal, adhere to traditional gender roles, and give family needs precedence over individual needs. Children of Asian parents are likely to have positive dependent relationships with their parents, and these relationships should be supported rather than viewed as problematic and discouraged.
Keep in mind that a fear of losing face and shame are powerful motivators for Asian American individuals. Because disclosing personal problems with individuals outside the family is a source of shame, Asian American individuals tend to avoid professional psychological services and, when they do seek therapy, are hesitant to discuss personal issues. A good strategy is to postpone discussing the client’s problems until he or she is ready to do so.
Maintain a formal style during the course of therapy, and be sensitive to differences in communication style. For Asian Americans, periods of silence and avoidance of eye contact are expressions of respect and politeness.
Establish credibility in the initial session by disclosing information about your educational background and experience.
Asian American clients are likely to prefer a brief structured and solution-focused approach. They expect the therapist to be an authority (but not authoritarian) and to suggest specific courses of action while also fostering their participation by encouraging them to help identify therapy goals and solutions to problems. A behavioral approach is usually appropriate because it is concrete and addresses specific behaviors, and family therapy may be acceptable when it is modified to be consistent with the family’s cultural values.

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12
Q

social displacement syndrome

A

the tendency of immigrants to initially experience elation and optimism, followed by a period of frustration, depression, and confusion as the reality of the adjustments required by their new lives sets in.

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13
Q

Stress-Buffering Hypothesis

A

a high level of perceived social support can protect a person against the harmful effects of stress on his or her physical and psychological health.

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14
Q

cultural encapsulation described a culturally-encapsulated counselor as someone who:

A

-Defines reality according to one set of cultural assumptions, notably in terms of his or her own cultural beliefs and stereotypes;
-Becomes insensitive to (i.e., minimizing or ignoring) cultural variations among clients;
-Disregards evidence disproving their assumptions; is unaware of own cultural biases; and
-Defines counseling in terms of dogmatically-accepted techniques and strategies, depends on quick-fix solutions to problems and judges others from one’s own self-reference criteria.

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15
Q

Helms’ (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model consists of two phases, ‘Abandonment of Racism’ and ‘Defining Non-racist White Identity,’ which are further distinguished sequentially into six identity statuses:

A

1.) Contact: is characterized by ignorance and disregard of any racial differences. People at this level usually have limited contact with other races, are oblivious to their own whiteness and unaware of the implications of racial/ethnic differences

2.) Disintegration: Increasing cross-racial interactions lead to greater awareness of an individual’s whiteness and of racial inequalities producing emotional, psychological, and moral confusion and conflicts. 3.) Reintegration: People in the reintegration stage resolve their conflicts by adopting the position that Whites are superior and minorities are inferior, and use these beliefs to justify existing inequalities. Helms notes many of America’s racial/cultural norms enable Whites to stay fixated in the reintegration status.

4.) Pseudo-Independence: Pseudo-independence is marked by dissatisfaction with reintegration and a re-examination of beliefs about race and racial inequalities.

5.) Immersion-Emersion: At this level of identity development, people embrace their whiteness without rejecting members of minority groups and attempt to determine how they can feel proud of their own race without being racist.

6.) Autonomy: People achieve autonomy when they internalize a nonracist White identity that is based on a realistic understanding of the strengths and weaknesses of White culture and similarities and differences are acknowledged but are not perceived as threatening. At this level, Whites value and seek out cross-racial interactions.

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16
Q

Janet Helms’ (1984) White and People of Color Racial Identity Models four interaction patterns:

A

parallel, regressive, progressive, and crossed.

For example, an individual with more social power, in a regressive interaction, operates from a less sophisticated identity status than a person with less social power, resulting in tension and discord.

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17
Q

Sue et al., (1991) found inter- and intra-group differences w/ c/t cultural matching:

A

with some improvement in all groups but less favorable outcome for African-Americans than Asian-, Hispanic-, or Anglo-Americans

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18
Q

Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model: The Racial/Cultural Identity Development (R/CID) Model (Atkinson, Morten, & Sue, 1998):

A

Stage One-Conformity: People in this stage prefer the lifestyle and values of the dominant culture and have strong negative feelings about their own minority group and other minority groups that are similar to their own. They are likely to prefer a therapist from the dominant group and to be uninterested in exploring their cultural identity.
Stage Two-Dissonance: Individuals in the dissonance stage experience confusion and conflict as the result of encountering circumstances that are inconsistent with their cultural beliefs and attitudes. They recognize that the values of the dominant group are not always beneficial for them and begin to have positive attitudes toward their own minority group. In therapy, they are interested in addressing issues related to identity. Although they may prefer a therapist from the dominant group, they want the therapist to be knowledgeable about their culture.
Stage Three-Resistance and Immersion: People in this stage actively reject the dominant culture, strongly identify with and are committed to their own culture, and may feel guilty and angry about their past negative feelings toward their own group. These individuals view psychological problems as the result of oppression and are suspicious of mental health services and other mainstream services and institutions. When they seek therapy, they prefer a therapist from their own minority group.
Stage Four-Introspection: This stage is characterized by a conflict between personal autonomy and the rigid constraints of the previous stage. People in this stage begin to question their unequivocal loyalty to their own culture and absolute rejection of the dominant culture. They may prefer a therapist from their own group but are willing to consider a therapist from another group who understands their perspective, and they’re interested in exploring their new sense of identity in therapy.
Stage Five-Integrative Awareness: People in the integrative awareness stage have resolved the conflicts of the previous stage, appreciate aspects of their own culture and the dominant culture, and have a positive self-image and strong sense of autonomy. They’re motived by a commitment to eliminate all sources of oppression and a desire to become more multicultural. Preference for a therapist is based on similarity of attitudes and worldview rather than race.

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19
Q

According to Beck, suicide risk is heightened by a combination of

A

hopelessness and poor problem-solving skills.

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20
Q

Detouring

A

Detouring is a type of boundary problem in which the spouses avoid tensions between themselves by blaming or overprotecting their child. (structural)

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21
Q

Triangulation

A

Triangulation occurs when each parent attempts to get the child to side with him or her against the other. (structural)

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22
Q

Enmeshment

A

Enmeshment results from very unclear boundaries that promote dependence. (structural)

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23
Q

Joining

A

Joining is a therapeutic technique used to blend into the family system. (structural)

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24
Q

phase model of psychotherapy

A

The phase model of psychotherapy, an extension of the dose-response model of treatment response, was first proposed by Howard et al. in 1993 and is a client stage model that outlines a progressive, 3-stage sequence of change. Research by Howard and his colleagues (1996) found a relationship between number of therapy sessions and therapy outcomes and that outcomes can be described in terms of these three phases.

1)Remoralization: focuses on the client’s subjective well-being and occurs during the first few sessions. The main outcome of this phase is an improvement in the client’s feelings of hopelessness and desperation.

2)Remediation: focuses on symptom reduction and relief. It generally occurs between the 5th and 15th sessions.

3)Rehabilitation: involves a gradual improvement in various aspects of life functioning (e.g., developing new ways of dealing with interpersonal conflicts).

According to this model, effective courses of treatment are initially characterized by a restored subjective sense of well-being then, as a function of this improvement, the client may benefit from interventions to provide symptom reduction or relief (e.g., decrease difficulty concentrating or sleep disruption) and finally, is able to either resume their former level of role functioning (e.g., doing well at work) or initiate new roles (e.g., obtaining a new job). Howard et al. note that the existence of these three phases suggests that different treatment goals, interventions, and outcome measures may be appropriate for different stages of psychotherapy.

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25
Q

Bowen / family systems

A

Bowenian theory is based on eight interlocking constructs:

Differentiation of self:refers to an individual’s ability to separate his or her intellectual and emotional functioning. The lower the ability to differentiate, the more likely a person will become “fused” with other family members’ emotions and problems.

Triangulation: refers to a triad that occurs when two family members in conflict (usually the mother and father) involve a third person (usually a child) in their conflict. In the typical case, demands are put on the child by both parents and the child becomes immobilized by the conflict - whatever he or she does, one of the parents will be dissatisfied.

Nuclear family emotional system: refers to the mechanisms a nuclear family uses to deal with tension and instability.

Family projective process: refers to the projection of parental conflicts and general family dysfunction onto the children.

Emotional cutoff: refers to the methods children use to remove themselves from emotional ties to their parents. This avoidance of emotional involvement leads to a lack of self-differentiation.

Multigenerational transmission process: refers to the escalation of family dysfunction through several generations. This leads to severe dysfunction.

Sibling position:refers to the birth order of children. According to Bowen, birth order influences family functioning in a number of ways; for example, older children are usually expected to be responsible for younger children.

Societal regression: refers to the impact of societal stress on the family system.

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26
Q

Identity moratorium

A

occurs when a person is confused, having an identity crisis, and is actively exploring different options (Marcia)

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27
Q

Identity diffusion

A

describes young people who have not undergone an identity crisis nor have committed to an identity (Marcia)

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28
Q

identity foreclosure

A

a commitment to an identity that is not the result of an identity crisis, but rather, the suggestions of a parent or other person (Marcia)

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29
Q

Identity achievement

A

occurs when the individual has resolved his/her identity crisis and is committed to a particular identity. (Marcia)

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30
Q

internal working models

A

Bowlby used the term to describe the cognitive representations that children develop of themselves and others. He believed that these models are formed during early childhood, but continue to develop over time.

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31
Q

Disorganized/Disoriented Attachment

A

Babies with this pattern have conflicting reactions to their mother that alternate between avoidance/resistance and proximity-seeking, and their overall behavior is best described as dazed, confused, and apprehensive. This pattern is often observed in children who have been maltreated by their caregiver(s). (Ainsworth)

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32
Q

Anxious/Resistant Attachment

A

Babies with this attachment pattern are anxious even when their mother is present and become very distressed when she leaves; are ambivalent when she returns and may resist her attempts to make physical contact; and are wary of a stranger even when their mother is present. Mothers of resistant babies are inconsistent in their responses to their child, sometimes being indifferent and other times being enthusiastic. (Ainsworth)

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33
Q

Anxious/Avoidant Attachment

A

Babies with this pattern are uninterested in the environment; show little distress when their mother leaves and avoid contact with her when she returns; and may or may not be wary of strangers. Mothers of these babies are either impatient and nonresponsive or overly responsive, involved, and stimulating. (Ainsworth)

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34
Q

Secure Attachment

A

Securely attached babies actively explore the environment when alone or with their mother. They may be friendly to a stranger when their mother is present but clearly prefer their mother to a stranger and may show distress when their mother leaves and seek physical contact with her when she returns. Mothers of securely attached babies are emotionally sensitive and responsive. (Ainsworth)

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35
Q

Kohlberg’s Level 1: Moral Development

A

Level I: Preconventional

Stage 1: Punishment and Obedience Orientation

The correct act is the one that allows the person to avoid punishment.

Stage 2: Instrumental Hedonistic Orientation

The correct act is the one that provides the person with rewards or satisfies his/her needs.

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36
Q

Kohlberg’s Level 2: Moral Development

A

Level II: Conventional

Stage 3: “Good Boy-Good Girl” Orientation

The correct act is the one that is approved of or liked by others.

Stage 4: Law and Order Orientation

The correct act is the one that is consistent with laws and rules set by legitimate authorities.

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37
Q

Kohlberg’s Level 3: Moral Development

A

Level III: Postconventional

Stage 5: Social Contract and Individual Rights Orientation

The correct act is the one that is consistent with democratically chosen laws which can be changed for a valid reason.

Stage 6: Universal Ethical Principles Orientation

The correct act is the one that is consistent with fundamental universal ethical principles (especially justice and fairness).

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38
Q

“Autonomous morality”

A

a term used by Piaget denoting the stage when children recognize that rules are determined by agreement and are alterable.

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39
Q

Sequence of Language Development: Children in different cultures progress through similar stages of language development. The major milestones are summarized below:

A

Cooing (beginning at 1 to 2 months): Cooing consists of vowel-like sounds that are usually emitted when the infant is content.

Babbling (beginning at 4 to 6 months):Babbling is the repetition of consonant- vowel combinations such as “bababa” and “nanana.” Babies from all linguistic backgrounds begin babbling at around the same age and initially produce a similar repertoire of sounds. By 9 months, however, babbling sounds narrow to those of the language(s) the child has been exposed to.

Echolalia and Expressive Jargon (beginning at 9 months): Children imitate adult speech sounds and words without an understanding of their meaning (echolalia). This is followed by expressive jargon, which involves vocalizations that sound like sentences but have no meaning.

First Words (10 to 15 months): Children’s first words usually refer to people or manipulable or moving objects (“mama,”“ball,”“car”), social interactions (“bye-bye”), and actions (“up,”“off”).

Holophrastic Speech (12 to 18 months): Holophrastic speech involves combining a single word with gestures and intonation to express a phrase or sentence.

Telegraphic Speech (18 to 24 months):Telegraphic speech consists of two-word sentences that contain the most critical words (e.g., “Tommy hit,”“My truck,”“Hi Mommy”).

Rapid Vocabulary Growth (30 to 36 months): By age three, children typically use about 1,000 words and understand three to four times that many words. They also begin to ask questions and use sentences containing three or four words.

Development of Complex Grammatical Forms (36 to 48 months): Children begin to correctly use the verb “to be,” use possessives and prepositions, and construct longer and more complex sentences.

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40
Q

Preoperational Stage

A

Piaget - (2 to 7 years): The development of mental representations at the end of the sensorimotor stages marks the transition to the preoperational stage. This stage is characterized by development of the symbolic function, which is the ability to use one thing (words and images) to stand for another and which leads to the increasing use of language, participation in symbolic (pretend) play, and the ability to solve problems mentally. Preoperational thought is limited, however, by several factors including transductive reasoning (which leads preoperational children to believe that two events that occur at the same time are causally related) and egocentrism (which is the inability of children to understand that others do not experience things the same way they do). These limitations underlie magical thinking and animism:

Magical thinking is the erroneous belief that one has control over objects or events or that thinking about something will actually cause it to occur, while animism is the belief that objects have thoughts, feelings, and other lifelike qualities. Children in this stage are also unable to conserve, or understand that the underlying properties of an object may not change even when its physical appearance changes. For example, when water from a tall thin glass is poured into a short wide glass, a preoperational child thinks there is less water in the second glass. The inability to conserve is due to a combination of centration (the tendency to focus on one detail of a situation to the neglect of other important features) and irreversibility (the inability to understand that actions can be reversed).

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41
Q

centration

A

centration (preoperational) - the tendency to focus on one detail of a situation to the neglect of other important features

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42
Q

Magical thinking

A

Magical thinking (preoperational) is the erroneous belief that one has control over objects or events or that thinking about something will actually cause it to occur

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43
Q

animism

A

animism (preoperational) is the belief that objects have thoughts, feelings, and other lifelike qualities.

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44
Q

recognition memory (24 hours) - children

A

3 months

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45
Q

accurate delayed recall for specific events - children

A

13 months

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46
Q

accurate immediate recall for specific events - children

A

11 months

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47
Q

maternal employment on academic acheivement?

A

positive impact unless there is conflict about work/life

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48
Q

increasing age has a negative impact on —– memory

A

explicit (deliberate)

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49
Q

walking - dev milestone timing

A

50% of children are walking well alone by 12 months and 90% by 14 months

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50
Q

Patterson - what parenting promotes aggressive bx

A

harsh physical punishment which is applied inconsistently and often not connected to the child’s behavior.

these parents tend to reinforce aggressive behavior in their children with attention or approval.

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51
Q

Head turning

A

does not become an appropriate measure of perception in infants until 5 ½ months of age. (Sucking* is often used as a measure of perceptual abilities for infants aged 1 to 4 months. Reaching* is used at 12 weeks or older, and heart rate* can be a useful measure at any age).

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52
Q

Authoritative parents

A

are high in both acceptance/responsiveness and demandingness/control.
outcomes: They are usually independent, achievement-oriented, friendly, and self-confident.

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53
Q

Authoritarian parents

A

are low in acceptance/responsiveness and high in demandingness/control.
Children of authoritarian parents are often insecure, timid, and unhappy, and they may grow up to be dependent and lacking in motivation.

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54
Q

Permissive parents

A

are high in acceptance/responsiveness and low in demandingness/control.
Children of permissive parents have difficulty controlling their impulses, ignore rules and regulations, and are not very involved in academic and work activities.

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55
Q

Uninvolved/neglecting parents

A

are low in both acceptance/responsiveness and demandingness/control. They are nondemanding and either indifferent toward or rejecting of their children. Their children are often noncompliant and demanding, lack self-control, and are prone to antisocial behavior.
The characteristics of uninvolved parents - i.e., weak parental supervision, lack of reasonable rules, lax or erratic discipline, and a parent-child relationship characterized by hostility, indifference, or apathy - are those that are most predictive of delinquency in adolescence.

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56
Q

newborn cries

A

In a newborn infant, cries for hunger, anger, and pain are distinguishable.

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57
Q

illusion

A

A misperception of a real stimulus is referred to as an illusion (v hallucenations)

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58
Q

headaches

A
  1. Migraine Headaches: Migraine headaches are characterized by an intense, throbbing pain that is usually on one side of the head and may be accompanied by nausea or vomiting, dizziness, and sensitivity to sound, light, and odors. A distinction is made between classic migraine which starts with an aura (specific visual, motor, or sensory symptoms) and a common migraine which does not begin with an aura. Migraines may be triggered by a variety of factors including emotional stress or relaxation after stress; abrupt weather changes; alcohol (especially beer and red wine); and certain foods and food additives (e.g., aged meat and cheese, chocolate, MSG). Their intensity may be increased by routine physical activity such as walking or climbing stairs. One theory about the cause of migraines is that they are related to a low level of serotonin that produces a constriction of blood vessels in the brain. Treatments include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs); ergotamine, sumatriptan, SSRIs, and other drugs that act at serotonin receptors; beta-blockers; and a combination of thermal biofeedback and autogenic training.
  2. Tension Headaches: Tension headaches are characterized by dull and diffuse mild to moderate pain that is experienced as a tight band (pressure) around the head. For some people, tension headaches may be due to sustained contractions of muscles in the forehead, scalp, and neck but, for others, the cause is unknown. There is some evidence, however, that abnormalities in serotonin or other neurotransmitters may be involved. Treatments include over-the-counter and prescription pain relievers, EMG biofeedback, and, for chronic tension headaches, antidepressants.
  3. Cluster Headaches: Cluster headaches involve severe (often burning or piercing) nonthrobbing pain that lasts for 15 to 90 minutes and occurs more than once each day over several weeks or months. The pain is unilateral and usually located behind one eye but may spread to the face, cheek, and/or temple. Treatments include oxygen therapy (breathing 100% oxygen through a mask), sumatriptan or other triptan, and lidocaine or other local anesthetic.
  4. Sinus Headaches: Sinus headaches are caused by sinusitis, which is an inflammation of the membranes that line the sinuses (the cavities around the nose, eyes, and cheeks). They produce a dull throbbing pain and pressure around the eyes and in the cheeks and forehead, with the pain being worsened by a sudden movement of the head, leaning forward, and cold, damp weather. Common accompanying symptoms include a runny or stuffy nose, coughing, sneezing, a mild to moderate fever, sore throat, and fatigue. Sinusitis is treated with antihistamines, decongestants, antibiotics, and corticosteroids.
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59
Q

Alcohol Withdrawal

A

Alcohol Withdrawal is characterized by two or more of the following symptoms, following cessation of chronic, heavy use: autonomic hyperactivity (e.g., sweating, increased pulse), hand tremor, insomnia, nausea or vomiting, transient hallucinations or illusions, psychomotor agitation, anxiety, and grand mal seizures. Symptoms typically begin within 4-12 hours after the person stops drinking, peak during the second day of abstinence, and decrease markedly by the fourth or fifth day.

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60
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

is dementia caused by a lack of thiamine in the brain, which is usually caused by chronic alcoholism and sometimes by severe malnutrition. Onset is variable–sometimes rapid and sometimes insidious.

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61
Q

BII specific phobia

A

low blood pressure, fainting

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62
Q

possible causes of organically-based mood symptoms:

A

substances such as hallucinogens and PCP; endocrine disorders, such as hypo- or hyperthyroidism; carcinoma of the pancreas; viral illness; and structural disease of the brain, such as that caused by a stroke.

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63
Q

The most serious potential medical side effect of Bulimia Nervosa is

A

electrolyte imbalance

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64
Q

field independent cog style

A

Individuals diagnosed with ASD tend to have a field-independent cognitive style, and on some tasks that assess field independence, they consistently outperform their same-age peers. For example, numerous studies have found that children on the spectrum outperform age-matched children on the Childhood Embedded Figures Test, which requires examinees to identify a simple figure hidden in a complex background design. Good performance on this test indicates field independence because it requires separating an item from the field in which it is embedded.

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65
Q

Akathisia

A

a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of restlessness, an inability to sit or keep still, a pressing need to be in constant motion and behaviors such as fidgeting, crossing and uncrossing the legs while sitting, rocking from foot to foot, marching in place and pacing

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66
Q

alogia

A

lack of spontaneous speech

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67
Q

Research on the genetic contribution to major depression indicates the risk for depression for biological offspring is

A

essentially the same whether they have one or two parents with depression.

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68
Q

characteristics linked to successful smoking cessation

A

They include: being age 35 or older, married or living with a partner, later age when started smoking and being male.

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69
Q

Factitious D/O

A

supportive outpatient + sx mgmt (NO confrontation, avoid inpatient bc of ‘sick role”)

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70
Q

Sleep bruxism

A

refers to when a person involuntarily grinds or clenches their teeth while sleeping, sometimes leading to wearing down the teeth and jaw discomfort

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71
Q

REM sleep behavior disorder

A

parasomnia that occurs later in the night than NREM disorders, usually affects middle-aged or elderly individuals, especially males, and sufferers often also have a neurological disorder. In this disorder, the temporary muscle paralysis that normally occurs during REM sleep does not occur so individuals may act out dreams through potentially violent movements or behaviors during sleep that can cause injuries to themselves or bed partners.

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72
Q

Men: ASPD

A

Women: BPD

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73
Q

Men: NPD

A

Women: HPD

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74
Q

expert witness

A

is a “person who has special training, knowledge, skill, or experience in an area relevant to the resolution of the legal dispute and is allowed to offer an opinion as testimony in court” (Koocher, 2005, p. 574). Because there are no existing standards for ascertaining an acceptable degree of expertise or experience, an expert witness may be challenged in court through cross-examination or by others with the same or a greater level of experience.

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75
Q

fact witness

A

A fact witness is a person “who testifies as to what he/she has seen, heard, or otherwise observed regarding a circumstance, event or occurrence as it actually took place…. [In contrast to expert witnesses,] fact witnesses are generally not allowed to offer opinions, address issues that they do not have personal knowledge of or respond to hypothetical situations” (APA, 1998, p. 7). A fact witness is allowed to provide information about a client only with the consent of the client or a court order.

76
Q

When asked what ethical/legal issue they encounter most frequently, most psychologists say:

A

confidentiality

77
Q

Wickline v. California

A

a treating professional who “complies without protest with the limitations imposed by a third-party payor, when his [professional] judgment dictates otherwise, cannot avoid his ultimate responsibility for the patient’s care.”

78
Q

the infraction that accounts for the greatest malpractice insurance costs, with reported figures ranging from 45 to 50%.

A

sex w clients

79
Q

administrative decision making model

A

deals with how decisions are actually made. It assumes that, due to limited cognitive and external resources, decision-makers simplify problems, work with a limited range of options and alternatives, and employ “satisficing”, or seeking the solution that meets minimally acceptable criteria, as opposed to an optimal solution.

80
Q

Krumbholtz’s social learning theory (career dev)

A

generalizations about one’s self and the world, called self-observation generalizations and world-view generalizations respectively, play a direct role in career choice. For example, the self-observation generalization that one is very good at logical reasoning, and the world-view generalization that jobs in computer programming will pay more than other jobs in the future might lead one to pursue a career in computer programming.

81
Q

Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model: Hersey and Blanchard (1974)

A

describe leader style in terms of task and relationship orientation. They propose that the optimal style depends on the job maturity of subordinates, which is determined by the subordinate’s ability and willingness to accept responsibility:

If the employee’s ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both low, the leader should adopt a “telling” style (high task orientation and low relationship orientation).

If the employee has low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility, the leader should adopt a “selling” style (high task orientation and high relationship orientation).

If the employee has high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility, the leader should adopt a “participating” style (low task orientation and high relationship orientation).

If the employee’s ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both high, the leader should adopt a “delegating” style (low task and low relationship orientation).

82
Q

Summative evaluation

A

deals with whether a program has achieved its intended objectives. They are typically used to address “bottom line” issues, such as if a program should continue existing, or if more or fewer resources should be allocated to it.

83
Q

formative evaluation

A

addresses issues related to the implementation of a program. The main focus of a formative evaluation is how a program can be improved. In practice, most program evaluations contain elements of both formative and summative evaluation.

84
Q

Kurt Lewin’s process of organizational change involves three stages:

A

unfreezing, changing, and refreezing.
Huse later added: entry and planning to the unfreezing stage and action as the primary step in the changing stage.

85
Q

survey feedback steps:

A

Collecting data, providing feedback, and implementing or developing action plans are the three steps of survey feedback.

86
Q

Dawis and Lofquist’s (1964) model of career development, Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA),

A

centers on the connection between a worker and his/her job and work environment. A key element of the theory is that an individual is best suited for positions that have matching demands and rewards to his/her individual characteristics. According to the TWA, satisfaction and satisfactoriness are factors related to job tenure. Satisfaction, in this theory, refers to a worker’s satisfaction with the job. This is established by the degree to which the worker’s needs are satisfied by the provided rewards of the job. Satisfactoriness, on the other hand, refers to the organization or employer’s satisfaction with the worker.

87
Q

Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory

A

Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
Herzberg’s (1966) two-factor theory is a theory of both motivation and satisfaction. It posits that satisfaction and dissatisfaction represent two separate states and that each is affected by different factors. Hygiene factors fulfill Maslow’s lower-order needs and include things like pay, benefits, and relationships with co-workers. When hygiene factors are absent, a worker is dissatisfied, but the presence of hygiene factors does not have an effect on satisfaction. Conversely, motivator factors fulfill Maslow’s higher-order needs and include opportunities for responsibility, decision-making, and growth. When motivator factors are adequate, a worker is satisfied and motivated, but the absence of motivator factors does not cause dissatisfaction. From the perspective of two-factor theory, raising salaries or instituting better supervisory procedures will not increase satisfaction but will only keep workers from becoming dissatisfied. To increase satisfaction and motivation, a job must provide motivator factors.

Job enrichment is the best known application of Herzberg’s theory. It involves redesigning a job so that the worker has more challenge, responsibility, decision-making authority, and opportunities for advancement. In other words, job enrichment ensures that a worker’s motivator needs are fulfilled so that the worker is satisfied and motivated. (Don’t confuse job enrichment with job enlargement. Although both methods of job redesign help reduce boredom, job enlargement simply increases the number and variety of tasks a worker performs.)

88
Q

leniency + severity when rating

A

require use of the high or low ends of the scale

89
Q

McGregor’s (1960) Theory X and Theory Y

A

McGregor’s (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific management and human relations administrative models. The scientific management model assumes workers are primarily motivated by financial self-interest or pay; job demands must match workers’ skills; and workers need constant supervision and detailed guidelines as they are incapable of self-regulating or assuming personal responsibility. Theory X is similar to scientific management in that Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible, thus workers must be directed and controlled. Theory X advises managers to be very strict, closely monitor employee performance, diligently enforce policies and procedures, and carefully match employees to jobs. A military drill sergeant would be an example of this approach to management.
In contrast, Theory Y’s* management approach is based on the assumptions that workers are not naturally passive or lazy, they enjoy autonomy, and are willing to accept responsibility. Theory Y advises managers to smile, to treat workers with respect, to bend some of the rules to get the job done, and to be easy-going in their management styles.

While Theory X and Y talk about workers from the perspective of how to manage them, Theory Z* examines how workers contribute and proposes that workers naturally wish to cooperate and are loyal to the organization.

90
Q

ECT - memory adverse impacts

A

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) often results in some memory loss, to varying degrees, though these effects are usually temporary. Most often there is both patchy anterograde and temporary retrograde amnesia. The anterograde amnesia can last up to 6 months and the retrograde amnesia is usually limited to the events that occurred several months prior to the ECT.

91
Q

escape conditioning

A

a type of negative reinforcement. In escape conditioning, an individual is able to escape from an aversive stimulus by engaging in a particular behavior.

92
Q

Avoidance conditioning

A

a form of negative reinforcement in which a cue is presented prior to the aversive stimulus -signaling the individual to avoid it

93
Q

Functional amnesia

A

is characterized by retrograde amnesia, especially for personal (autobiographical) information

94
Q

“primary” memory

A

short term memory

95
Q

Implosive therapy

A

involves imaginal exposure to a feared stimulus. The person is immediately exposed to the stimulus at its maximum intensity. The purpose of implosive therapy is to extinguish a person’s fear; in addition, the technique incorporates psychodynamic themes thought to underlie the fear into the imagery.
60s psychodynamic - Stampfl and Levis

96
Q

sensory memories

A

last less than 2 seconds, can’t be rehearsed

97
Q

hypothalamus

A

hypothalamus exerts control over the autonomic nervous system and endocrine system via its influence on the pituitary gland. It (a) maintains the body’s homeostasis by monitoring the body’s internal states and controlling temperature, metabolism, and other functions; (b) plays a role in the control of many motivated behaviors such as drinking, feeding, sex, aggression, and maternal behavior; and (c) is involved in the physical expression of strong emotions, especially rage, fear, and excitement. The hypothalamus contains the suprachiasmatic nucleus and the mammillary bodies:

98
Q

suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

A

in thalamus, regulates the body’s circadian rhythms (biological processes that approximate a 24-hour cycle) primarily through its sensitivity to light and dark.

99
Q

basal ganglia

A

controls voluntary movement
include the caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, and putamen. The basal ganglia process and relay information necessary for the control of voluntary movement, the motor (outward) expression of emotion, and sensorimotor learning. Abnormalities in the basal ganglia have been linked to Tourette’s Disorder, Huntington’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, Schizophrenia, mood disorders, obsessive-compulsive symptoms, and ADHD.

100
Q

limbic system

A

includes the amygdala, septum, and hippocampus mediates the emotional components of behavior

101
Q

thalamus

A

central relay station

102
Q

neurotransmitters that have been linked to Alzheimer’s Disease.

A

Acetylcholine and L-glutamate

103
Q

expressive aphasia or motor aphasia

A

are alternative names for Broca’s aphasia (frontal lobe)

104
Q

impressive, sensory, or receptive aphasia

A

wernicke’s aphasia (temporal lobe)

105
Q

agnosia

A

Agnosia refers to the loss of ability to recognize or comprehend various types of stimulation, usually nonlanguage - can’t interpret sensation and therefore recognize things

106
Q

ataxia

A

refers to disorders of a functional system - incoordination. It is typically used for problems in movement (taxis means movement) - loss of muscular coordination. can have slurred speech, loss of balance

107
Q

apraxia

A

Apraxia refers to problems in voluntary movement

108
Q

parietal lobe

A

responsible for orientation in space; contains somatosensory cortex, which processes somatosensory input (touch-pressure, kinesthesia, pain, and temperature)

109
Q

temporal lobe

A

LT, declarative memory
auditory cortex
“deja vu” experience - tumor
HM

110
Q

occipital lobe

A

where vision is mediated

111
Q

Autonomic Nervous system

A

parasympathetic and sympathetic - invol physiologic processes

112
Q

Somatic Nervous system

A

info from senses to brain; deliver instructions to muscles

113
Q

neuroleptic

A

antipsychotic

114
Q

bradycardia

A

slow heart rate

115
Q

phenotype

A

it shows (genotype, recessive)

116
Q

frontal lobe

A

frontal lobe is involved in motor behavior, expressive language, and higher-level cognitive functions. It includes the primary motor cortex, premotor cortex, Broca’s area, and prefrontal cortex.

117
Q

hippocampus

A

explicit memory (conscious recall of facts and events, memory consolidation (ST to LT)

118
Q

Working memory (brain structures)

A

prefrontal cortex and cingulate cortex

119
Q

amygdala

A

amygdala is involved in the formation of emotional memories (linking emotions to specific stimuli and events).

120
Q

brain structures involved in memory

A

HAPT
hippocampus
amygdala
prefrontal cortex
temporal lobes

121
Q

Akathesia

A

motor restlessness.

122
Q

somatosensory cortex

A

processes somatosensory input (touch-pressure, kinesthesia, pain, and temperature) and integrates somatosensory information with other sensory information. in the parietal lobe

123
Q

Contralateral neglect

A

loss of knowledge about or interest in one side of the body and things in the environment on the same side, and most often involves the right (nondominant) parietal lobe.

124
Q

Gerstmann’s syndrome

A

Gerstmann’s syndrome is caused by lesions in the left (dominant) hemisphere and involves a combination of agraphia (difficulties with writing), acalculia (difficulties with math), finger agnosia (inability to recognize and distinguish the fingers), and left-right disorientation. parietal

125
Q

benzo withdrawal

A

anxiety, insomnia, nausea, and transient hallucinations, sweating, tremors

126
Q

cocaine withdrawal

A

dysphoria, fatigue, insomnia, vivid & unpleasant dreams

127
Q

opioid withdrawal

A

dysphoria, nausea, muscle aches, diarrhea

128
Q

PCP withdrawal / intoxication?

A

depression, ataxia, numbness, muscle rigidity

129
Q

Pons

A

pons connects two halves of the cerebellum and regulates arousal

130
Q

reticular activating system

A

controls sleep, arousal, and attention. Brain stem, connects to thalamus

131
Q

septum

A

inhibits emotionality

132
Q

extrapyramidal motor system

A

BSC: Basal Ganglia, substantia nigra, and cerebellum; these structures are involved in the control of posture and gross muscle movements and the coordination of movement on the right and left sides of the body.

133
Q

ventricles

A

Cerebrospinal fluid flows through a group of cavities in the brain known as ventricles.

134
Q

cingulate gyrus

A

A component of the limbic system, it is involved in processing emotions and behavior regulation. It also helps to regulate autonomic motor function

135
Q

corpus callosum

A

serve as a conduit allowing information to transmit from one side of the brain to the other (e.g., from the left to right frontal lobes). It is also hypothesized to play a major role in movement control, cognitive functions (such as memory and learning), and vision.

136
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

results when the flow through the ventricles is blocked, producing abnormal pressure which causes brain damage and mental retardation. signs: headaches, loss of balance, impaired cognitive skills, and bladder control problems.

137
Q

sleep changes in elderly people

A

in the elderly, the absolute amount of REM sleep decreases and there is an increased amount of non-REM sleep in stages 1 and 2 (lighter sleep) along with decreased amounts of non-REM sleep in stage four (deeper sleep).

distributed around the clock, with less sleep at night and naps during the day.

138
Q

delirium risk

A

Over 60: as well as children, are at increased risk for delirium. Conditions such as Pneumonia, congestive heart failure, and major surgery all increase the risk for delirium in the elderly.

Patients with decreased “cerebral reserve”: Dementia, stroke, HIV disease, and other disorders that cause CNS injury and/or impair cognitive processes lower the threshold for delirium.

Postcardiotomy patients: The risk for delirium among post- cardiotomy patients increases with several factors including increasing age, time since bypass, and complexity of the surgical procedure.

Patients going through drug withdrawal: Drug dependent patients going through withdrawal are at high risk for delirium, especially with rapid withdrawal from alcohol or a benzodiazepine.

general: infections, metabolic disorders, electrolyte imbalances, renal diseases, thiamine deficiency, postoperative states, hypertensive encephalopathy, head trauma, and certain brain lesions

139
Q

dyskinesia

A

(distortion of movement)

140
Q

dystonia

A

abnormal muscle tone; muscular spasms

141
Q

Anabolic steroid use

A

Anabolic steroid use can produce acne, edema, mood lability, and aggressiveness

142
Q

hyperthyroidism

A

anxiety and insomnia, but can also cause chest pain and tachycardia, weight loss, decreased libido and mood lability.

143
Q

tourette’s neurotransmitter

A

dopamine excess; serotonin and norepinephrine also linked?

144
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

A

rare, potentially lethal, can resolve after 1 month d/c
sxs: muscle rigidity, tachycardia, sweating, hyperthermia, and altered consciousness

145
Q

neuroleptic

A

antipsychotic

146
Q

EPS

A

Extrapyramidal side effects can result from antipsychotic use but include parkinsonism, characterized by muscle stiffness, shuffling gait, slurred speech, as well as, akathesia (restlessness) and dystonia (muscular spasms).

147
Q

TD

A

type of EPS - Tardive Dyskinesia is a delayed and more serious set of extrapyramidal side effects of TYPICAL antipsychotics. The symptoms of TD are abnormal involuntary movements, especially of the face, tongue, and jaw.

148
Q

threats to internal validity

A

A study is said to have internal validity when it permits the conclusion that there is a causal relationship between the independent and dependent variables.

A number of “generic” threats to internal validity have been identified; these are factors that, rather than the IV, may be causally responsible for observed scores or status on the DV. These threats include the following: history (an external event); maturation (an internal process within subjects); testing (experience with a pre-test); instrumentation (a change in the nature of the measuring instrument); statistical regression (the tendency of extreme scores to be less extreme upon re-testing); selection (pre-existing subject characteristics); differential mortality (systematic differences between drop-outs and non-dropouts); and experimenter bias (the influence of the researcher’s expectations or other biases).

149
Q

regression to the mean

A

the tendency of extreme scores to be less extreme upon retesting.

150
Q

when alpha increases, power

151
Q

bigger sample size, power

152
Q

two tailed test, power

153
Q

Path analysis

A

is a causal modeling technique. It is somewhat limited compared to other techniques because it permits only one-way (unidirectional) paths between variables and involves looking only at the relationships among measured variables.

154
Q

LISREL

A

a more complicated technique. looks at both measured variables and the latent traits measured by those variables and permits one- and two-way paths

155
Q

Type 1 error

A

A Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true — in other words, when one concludes that a difference exists when it really does not.

156
Q

p value

A

p-value, also known as the alpha level, indicates the probability that the null hypothesis is false

157
Q

Stratified random sampling

A

involves dividing a population of interest into sub-populations (strata) and obtaining random samples from each strata. For instance, a researcher interested in studying the American population as a whole may break it down by ethnic groups and take proportionate random samples from each. The technique is designed to ensure that subjects are representative of the population of interest

158
Q

useful for controlling or assessing the effects of an extraneous variable

A

blocking, matching, ANCOVA

159
Q

F ratio

A

MSB (between group variability) / MSW (within group variability)
treatment + error / error
=1 if null hypothesis

160
Q

regression equation

A

correlation not causation

161
Q

assumption of homoscedasticity.

A

the variability of Y scores is equal throughout the range of X scores.

161
Q

social loafing

A

tendency of people to exert less effort when working on a task as part of a group than when working on the task alone
more likely to occur when tasks are simple and boring
reduced or eliminated when group members believe their individual contributions to the group are identifiable or when they view group membership as important or the group task as intrinsically interesting or meaningful

162
Q

Group polarization

A

the tendency of individuals who start off with similar views to end up with a more extreme position after group discussion.

163
Q

Social facilitation

A

refers to improved performance on tasks due to the presence of other people - impacted by arousal, likely with a familiar or easy task

164
Q

Negative framing

A

refers to presenting a problem in negative terms

165
Q

Doll Study

A

Used in Brown v BOE - Kenneth and his wife Mamie Clark conducted the famous Doll Study which found that two-thirds of African-American children preferred playing with white dolls and perceived the brown dolls as “bad”.

166
Q

coronary heart disease tied to

A

depression, anger, hostility

167
Q

Lewin’s Field Theory

A

Lewin’s field theory (1936) was one of the first theories to provide a framework for understanding how individual and environmental factors influence behavior in a variety of circumstances. It proposes that a person’s behavior is a function of interactions between the person and his or her perception of the physical and social environment and that these interactions occur within the person’s “life space.” Lewin applied field theory to several issues including intrapersonal conflict. He proposed that this type of conflict occurs within a person’s life space when forces directing the person toward or away from one or more goals are about equal in desirability or attractiveness. Lewin identified three types of intrapersonal conflict and a fourth was added later by Miller (1944):

An approach-approach conflict occurs when a person must choose between two equally desirable goals. A recently licensed psychologist who has received two good job offers is faced with an approach-approach conflict. This conflict is usually the easiest to resolve.
An avoidance-avoidance conflict occurs when a person must choose between two equally undesirable goals. An employee who has to choose between quitting her job or taking a pay cut is faced with an avoidance-avoidance conflict. This conflict is difficult to resolve and can cause a person to freeze or escape the situation.
An approach-avoidance conflict occurs when there is only one goal but it has both desirable and undesirable qualities. A psychologist studying for the licensing exam is faced with an approach-avoidance conflict – i.e., he doesn’t want to study but, if he does, he increases the likelihood that he’ll pass the exam. This conflict is difficult to resolve because, when the person moves closer to the goal, the avoidance force becomes stronger and, when a person moves away from the goal, the approach force becomes stronger.
A double approach-avoidance conflict occurs when there are two goals and both have desirable and undesirable qualities. A person is faced with a double approach-avoidance conflict when she’s deciding whether to buy a house in the country where it’s quiet and housing is cheaper but doing so will require a long commute to work or to buy a condo in the city which will be noisier and more expensive but will allow her to walk to work. The double approach-avoidance conflict is the hardest to resolve and often results in vacillation between the two goals.

168
Q

Social inhibition

A

presence of others causes a decrement in performance - maybe due to arousal - more likely with new or difficult tasks

169
Q

brainstorming

A

better alone, or via computer (not face to face); trained facilitation is helpful

170
Q

Prisoner’s dilemma

A

competition over cooperation; can be influenced towards cooperation if they speak before, if cooperation is emphasized, or if they play the game repeatedly

171
Q

Schachter’s research on obesity

A

obese people rely more on external than internal cues in their eating behaviors.

172
Q

altruism

A

Whiting and J. Whiting’s study of six cultures: responsibility for the welfare of others was the most important factor in the development of altruism

Cohen: found altruism linked more to a nuclear than an extended family structure

173
Q

WEINER’S attributions for success/failure

A

(a) Attributing performance to ability is an internal/stable attribution.
(b) Attributing performance to effort to effort is an internal/unstable attribution.
(c) Attributing performance to task difficulty is an external/stable attribution.
(d) Attributing performance to luck is an external/unstable attribution.

174
Q

WEINER’S attributions for success/failure w/r/t achievement

A

High achievers tend to approach (rather than avoid) tasks because they view success as the result of their own ability and effort and failure to be due to insufficient effort. In contrast, low achievers tend to avoid tasks because they regard success to be the result of low task difficulty or good luck and failure to be due to a lack of ability. In other words, high achievers view success as the result of their own behaviors and are, therefore, motivated to work hard to ensure positive outcomes, while low achievers are less likely to work hard because feel they have little control over their outcomes.

175
Q

aggressive bx (Patterson)

A

aggressive behavior often develops from the parent’s style of parenting; an aggressive child’s parent used lots of directives combined with inconsistent harsh physical punishment.

176
Q

what percentage of the general population a test is intended for can be expected to obtain a T-score between 40 and 60?

A

68 (1 SD in either direction)

177
Q

Rotation is used in factor analysis to:

A

get an easier pattern of factor loadings to interpret. does not alter error or magnitude of communality

178
Q

multitrait-multimethod matrix is a complicated method for assessing

A

construct validity. convergent v discriminant/divergent validity

179
Q

monotrait-monomethod

A

reliability

180
Q

Criterion contamination

A

occurs when a rater’s knowledge of ratees’ performance on the predictor biases his/her ratings of ratees’ performance on the criterion.

181
Q

Differential prediction

A

occurs when the use of scores on a selection test systematically over- or under-predict the job performance of members of one group as compared to members of another group. causes test unfairness / possible adverse impact

182
Q

Differential validity

A

occurs when a predictor’s validity coefficient differs for different groups. also a possible cause of adverse impact

183
Q

split half

A

measures internal consistency reliability

184
Q

differential item functioning (DIF), or item bias analysis

A

refers to a difference in the probability of individuals from different subpopulations making a correct or positive response to an item, who are equal on the latent or underlying attribute measured by the test

can be identified with The SIBTEST or simultaneous item bias test, Mantel-Haenszel, and Lord’s chi-square

185
Q

Cluster analysis

A

a statistical technique used to develop a classification system or taxonomy