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RPA 4 > Assignment 3 - Investment Strategy > Flashcards

Assignment 3 - Investment Strategy Flashcards

1
Q
  • theory that seeks to achieve the highest level of return for an acceptable level of risk
  • evaluates total portf. risk rather than the risk presented by each component
  • based on diversification - pooling diff. inv. instruments to most optimally balance risk and return given fluctuations of mkts over the long run
  • advocates blending of several different kinds of inv. in order to balance risks w/ a targeted return for investor
  • takes into consideration the investor’s tolerance for risk, fin. constraints, overall inv. strat., and obj.
A

Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT)

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2
Q
  • theory that states that common stk prices already reflect all info available to buyers and sellers
  • mkt partic. cannot use this info to buy low and sell high
  • stk prices automatically adjust quick enough and instantaneously so that nobody can stay ahead of the chg w/ any rational approach
A

Efficient Mkt Hypothesis (MEH)

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3
Q

systematic risks versus unsystematic risks

A
  • SYSTEMATIC - cannot be reduced by diversifying one’s portfolio
  • UNSYSTEMATIC - can be diversified, so if 1 group of inv. goes up, the other group goes down.
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4
Q

based on long term historical averages for an asset

A

Expected Returns

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5
Q

variation of returns of an asset

A

Risk

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6
Q

(3) Forms of Efficient Mkt Hypo.

A
  1. Weak
  2. Semistrong
  3. Strong
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7
Q
  • Form of Efficient Mkt Hypo
  • security analysis is the only form of stock “science” that can identify stocks that are temporarily undervalued and overvalued, and thus allow investors to profit
A

Weak Form

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8
Q
  • Form of Efficient Mkt Hypo
  • states that only info that can result in rational stk pick profiting is insider trading -based info.
  • since this info isn’t made public, insiders find out first and are ahead of the game
A

Semistrong

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9
Q
  • Form of Efficient Mkt Hypo
  • states that stk prices already reflect all info and thus nothing can give an indiv. trader an “edge”
A

Strong

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10
Q

assuming a known business risk in hopes of a considerable gain

involves the weighing of risk versus reward

Purchasing securities or other assets that have large fluctuations in value, from which the investor expects to realize realtively large profits over a short period of time

A

stock speculation

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11
Q

creates risk where none previously existed

A

Gambling

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12
Q

unsystematic risk

Risk involving the nature of the industry in which a firm operates and the mgmt and operations of the firm itself

can be managed by diversification

A

business risk

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13
Q

This occurs when there is an increase in mkt i/r and the decline in bond prices is less than the corresponding increase in bond prices for the same amt of decline in the mkt i/r

A

bond convexity

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14
Q

measure that divides a portf’s excess return by its standard deviation as a measure of risk

useful when comparing 1 inv. or portf. w/ others

A

Sharpe Ratio

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15
Q

Theoretical model designed to measure the ER on an indiv. security or inv. portf. considering the security’s or portf’s inv. risk as measured by its beta

displays returns and risk combos of a risk-free asset and the broad mkt index of common stocks

A

Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)

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16
Q

Computed # that shows how a security or portf. performed, given its level of risk as shown by its beta, as compared w/ the stk mkt as a whole

A

alpha

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17
Q
  • Inv. approach that involves holding a well-diversified portf. of securities w/o making many active trading decisions
  • best illustrated by ‘indexing’ and not trying to beat the ‘market’
  • implies that there is low inv. manager risk
A

passive investing

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18
Q

term for the chg in an inv.’s price or value in one year + any CF for the year (such as divs, int, or rents)

A

Total Return

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19
Q
  • The weighted avg maturity of a bond’s CFs
  • measures price sensitivity to i/r risk by multiplying a chg in i/r times the # of yrs left until maturity
A

bond duration

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20
Q
  • graph that seeks to highlight the best possible combos of stks and bonds inv. at the lowest risk
A

efficient frontier

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21
Q

systematic risk involving how i/r affect stk prices

an increase in rates = decrease stk prices

high quality fin. assets are most affected by changes in i/r

A

Interest Rate Risk

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22
Q
  • risk that occurs when rate are lower than when bond or stk was issued
  • bonds or preferred stk are redeemed by their issuers prior to matureity
  • investor provided w/ a principal sum which she must reinvest at a lower rate
  • “calling the bond” prior to maturity
A

Reinv. Risk

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23
Q
  • Risk that occurs when securities and other inv. mature at a time when the mkt i/r are lower than those provided by maturing inv.
  • inv. may be forced to reinvest proceeds at a lower i/r yield
A

maturity risk

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24
Q
  • systematic risk that occurs when price levels in the econ. rise causing the purchasing power of the same amt of money to decline
  • when prices rise = purchasing power declines
A

purchasing power risk

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25
Q

systematic risk that is assumed by the investor in foreign inv. and foreign currency.

the strength of the currency relative to the $ fluctuates creating a risk that there may be a gain or loss due to this

A

exchg rate/currency risk

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26
Q

unsystematic risk

risk that involves the issuers of inv. may run into financial difficulties such as bankruptcy and may not be able to fulfill financial commitments

A

financial risk

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27
Q

unsystematic risk

risk of low or lack of performance by an inv. company or mgr which results in low or negative returns to the inv.

A

inv. mgr risk

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28
Q

unsystematic risk

risk that an asset may not be marketable or liquid at the time sale is desired

A

liquidity/marketability risk

29
Q

volatility of stock in relation to its index

A

beta

30
Q

this displays how much of a portf. is allocated to risky assets and how much to safe ones

A

Capital Allocation Line (CAL)

31
Q

“R-Squared” indicates the fraction of the variance that is explained by an independent variable and the Beta

higher the R-squared = more reliable the independent variable and the beta

ranges b/w -1 and 1, with 1 indicated a perfect correlation and -1 indicates an inverse correlation

A

Coefficient of Determination

32
Q
  1. for returns on 2 inv. -
  • 1 = returns move in the same directions
  • -1 = returns move in opposite directions.
A

Correlation Coefficent

33
Q

term for nominal yields on bonds

A

coupon rate

34
Q
  • this number indicates the degree to which the returns of 2 assets move with each other
    • = moves together
    • = moves opposite
A

covariance

35
Q

term for nominal yields on PS

A

dividend rates

36
Q
  • a statistical measure showing the change over time of component items relative to a base date
  • may represnt the market
  • not an avg
A

index

37
Q
  • condition under which an investor can dispose of an inv. quickly and can also receive approx. the amt put into it.
A

liquidity

38
Q
  • condition under which an investor can find a ready mkt in the event she’d like to sell an inv. in a short time
A

marketability

39
Q

active inv. strat. of buying low and selling high by forecasting bull and bear mkt

A

market timing

40
Q

bell-shaped frequency distrib. curve w/ an equal range of items above and below the avg.

A

normal distribution

41
Q

the difference b/w an asset’s ER and that of a risk free asset effectively the “payoff” to an investor for selecting a riskier asset

A

risk premium

42
Q

analyzing the fundamental aspects of indiv. securities in attempting to select undervalued securities in the mkt or securiteis w/ above-avg growth potential

A

security selection

43
Q

a measure of the distance from the avg of a series of returns

A

standard deviation

44
Q

the distance fromt he avg of returns, including both gains and losses

A

variance

45
Q

way to measure annual rates of return

annual interest or div. divided by inv’s par or FV

A

nominal yield

46
Q

way to measure annual rates of return

annual inv. income divided by inv’s current price or value

A

current yield

47
Q

considered the most accurate measure of annual inv. return

A

Yield to Maturity

48
Q

this results from the appreciation of value of assets

A

capital gains

49
Q

advantages of realizing capital gains

A
  • not taxed until realized or recognized by sale of the asset, so investor can avoid taxation indefinitely
  • investor can choose best inv. to sell for both the inv and tax considerations
  • income taxes on capital gains are lower than those on ordinary income
  • numerous planning strats are available to avoid or defer cap. gains taxes
50
Q

disadv. of captial gains

A
  • involves higher degree of inv. risk than interest or div. returns
  • lock-in may occur where the person fears selling appreciated assets for profit due to anticipated cap gains taxes
  • this investing may require more skill b/c achieving the gains in the first place is difficult
51
Q
  • way to measure inv. gains over time
  • annual rate at which an initial inv. will accumulate to = the final value of inv. at the end of the period considered, assuming reinv. of CFs received during the period
A

geometric avg

52
Q
  • way to measure inv. gains over time
  • the rate determined by the sum of the total returns divided by the # of yrs analyzed
  • does NOT involve the compounding of returns
A

arithmetic avg

53
Q

examples of taxable ordinary income

A
  • some inv. income is full taxable as ordinary income
  • interest on CDs
  • taxable MMF
  • corp. bonds
  • U.S. T-Bonds
54
Q

this tax is calculated by

multiplying the current yield by 1 - inv’s highest marginal income tax rate

A

after-tax yield

55
Q

tax-exempt income and taxable equivalent yield

A

the A/T income for tax-exempt inv. = the current yield

municipal bond

56
Q

basic inv. objective of most indiv.

A

earn the highest possible A/T rate of return on their investment funds

57
Q

Factors that s/b considered in choosing different categories of inv.

A
  • security of principal and income
  • rate of return
  • maketability and liquidity
  • diversification
  • tax status
  • size of inv. units or denominations
  • possible use as collateral for loans
  • protection against creditors’ claims
  • bond or PS’s callability
  • freedom from care
58
Q
  • this type of risk can be reduced by diversification
  • called - nonmkt risks or firm-specific risks
A

unsystematic risk

59
Q

types of unsystematic risks

A
  • financial (or credit) risk
  • business risk
  • liquidity and marketability risk
  • inv. manager risk
60
Q
  • this type of risk remains AFTER diversification
  • also referred to as mkt risks which implies price fluctuations for a whole securities mkt, regardless of the financial soundness or inv. merits or indiv. securities
A

systematic risk

61
Q

types of systematic risk

A
  • Int. Rate Risk
  • Purchasing Power Risk
  • Exchg. Rate Risk
  • Political Risk
  • Tax Risk
62
Q

a systematic risk that arises from uncertainty concerning possible unfavorable changes in the gov’t, cultural and business climates of a country

policy changes will have an immediate effect on this

A

political risk

63
Q

systematic risk that is posed by possible unfavorable changes in the tax laws

A

tax risk

64
Q

when securities are callable, the issuers (e.g. municipalities) can pay them off (redeem them) before maturity under certain conditions.

this may save int. expense for the issuer

for the holder, the risk is that now they have to reinv. the principal at the present and possible lower mkt yields

A

redemption/call risk

65
Q
A

Yield to Maturity (for a bond selling at a discount)

66
Q
A

Yield to Maturity (for a bond selling at a premium)

67
Q

the situation where an investor is reluctant to sell a security for fear of cap gains taxation

A

cap gains lock-in prob

68
Q

this theoretical model shows the return in an indiv. inv. or portf. that exceeds what could have been earned in risk-free assets

it is the extra return an investor receives for taking an inv. risk

A

Equity risk premium

69
Q

this measure divides excess return by the portf’s beta.

useful when comparing 1 inv. or portf. w/ others

A

Treynor Ratio

RPA 4 (12 decks)

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