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CC A+ 901 Quiz > Assessment Test > Flashcards

Assessment Test Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following is not considered a system component that can be found inside a
computer?
A. CPU
B. RAM
C. PCIe graphics adapter
D. Motherboard
A

C. System components are essential for the basic functionality of a computer system. Many
of the landmarks found on the motherboard can be considered system components, even
expansion slots to a degree. What you plug into those slots, however, must be considered
peripheral to the basic operation of the system. For more information, see Chapter 1

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2
Q 
Which of the following is a physical memory format installed directly in today’s desktop
computer systems?
A. DIMM
B. HDD
C. SSD
D. eMMC
A

A. Except for DIMMs, all options represent some form of secondary storage, all of which
are covered in Chapter 2. For more information, see Chapter 1.

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3
Q 
Which of the following are components that can commonly be found on a motherboard?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Slots
B. Fan connectors
C. Gyroscope
D. Scanner
E. HDD
A

A, B. Motherboards commonly have RAM slots and expansion slots. Older motherboards
even had CPU slots. Modern motherboards have connectors for powering cooling fans.
Gyroscopes are most commonly found in mobile devices. Scanners are external devices.
Although there might be one or more types of HDD interfaces built into the motherboard,
the HDD itself is not. For more information, see Chapter 1.

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4
Q 
What suffix indicates that the capacity of an optical disc is roughly twice that of its standard
counterpart?
A. DL
B. R
C. RW
D. RE
A

A. DL stands for double or dual layer. With DVDs, the capacity almost doubles, but with
Blu-ray discs, it actually does. For more information, see Chapter 2.

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5
Q

What is the name of the standard power connector that has been used with larger drives
since the first IBM personal computers were introduced?
A. AT system connector
B. Berg
C. Molex
D. ATX system connector

A

C. The standard peripheral power connector, or Molex connector, is commonly used on
larger drives because it allows more current to flow to the drive than smaller peripheral
connectors. For more information, see Chapter 2.

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6
Q

Except in the case of RAID 0, which two things do all types of RAID offer?
A. Faster read speeds
B. Faster write speeds
lviii Assessment Test
C. Redundancy
D. Fault tolerance
E. Ability to restore automatically from tape after a drive failure

A

C, D. Except for RAID 0, all implementations of RAID offer a way to recover from the
failure of at least one drive, which is an example of fault tolerance, through the implementation
of some mechanism that stores redundant information for that purpose. Some RAID
types offer faster read and/or write performance. RAID 1, for instance does not guarantee
either. For more information, see Chapter 2.

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7
Q

You are installing a new graphics adapter in a Windows 7 system. Which of the following
expansion slots is designed for high-speed, 3D graphics adapters?
A. USB
B. FireWire
C. PCI
D. PCIe

A

D. Although technically PCI could be used for graphics adapters, PCIe supports highspeed,
3D graphic video cards. PCIe offers better performance than older graphics adapters.
USB and FireWire can stream video, but they are not used for attachment of graphics adapters.
For more information, see Chapter 3.

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8
Q

A user complains that changing from a VGA graphics card to one that supports the latest
HDMI revision has resulted in not being able to play back certain content from the computer.
Some content does play back, however. What could be the problem?
A. Digital signal required
B. Resolution too low
C. DRM
D. VGA cable not compatible

A

C. Digital rights management (DRM), using High-bandwidth Content Protection (HDCP),
is supported by adapters and monitors that support HDMI and later versions of DVI. If
the content is protected, HDMI in the adapter will use HDCP to encrypt the stream across
the cable, and the monitor will use HDCP to decrypt it for playback. From the information
given, it cannot be assumed that the monitor changed when the adapter did. As a result, the
monitor might have an older DVI-D port that uses a passive converter to receive the HDMI
cable’s signal but that does not support HDCP. The signal over the HDMI cable is always
digital. As a result, a VGA cable, which only supports analog signals, cannot be used when
a DVI-D or HDMI interface is involved. HDMI supports all resolutions supported by a
VGA interface. For more information, see Chapter 3.

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9
Q 
Which of the following are modular ports used in data communications? (Choose two.)
A. RG-6
B. RJ-45
C. RJ-11
D. Thunderbolt
E. RG-11
A

B, C. RJ-11 ports are used in analog telephony, and they allow modems attached to computer
serial ports to transmit modulated digital information across the public switched telephone
network (PSTN). RJ-45 ports are used by various network interface controller (NIC)
cards for attachment to networks such as Ethernet. RG-6 and RG-11 are coaxial cable
types, and Thunderbolt connectors are not modular. For more information, see Chapter 3.

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10
Q 
The\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_is the measurement of the number of pixels an LCD monitor can display
without the image appearing distorted.
A. Native resolution
B. Contrast ratio
C. Pixelation
D. Base frequency
A

A. The native resolution refers to how many pixels an LCD screen can display (across and
down) without distortion. The native resolution is based on the placement of the actual
transistors that create the image by twisting the liquid crystals. The contrast ratio is the
measurement between the darkest color and the lightest color that an LCD screen can display.
For more information, see Chapter 4

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11
Q 
Which of the following is not a common monitor technology?
A. LCD
B. Plasma
C. OLED
D. Super PMOLED
A

D. Although there is a Super AMOLED display, employing active-matrix technology, there
is no corresponding “super” passive-matrix version. The other technologies exist and are
discussed in further detail in Chapter 4.

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12
Q 
What can be used at the check-in desk of a doctor’s office to prevent patients from viewing
confidential information?
A. An antiglare filter
B. A privacy filter
C. An LED-backlit display
D. A thin client
A

B. Privacy filters are used to limit the viewing angle for a monitor. With such filters, the
screen image becomes indiscernible when viewed at just a few degrees from center. For
more information, see Chapter 4.

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13
Q

Which of the following is a standard computer that can access resources locally as well as
from servers but requires no specialized enhancements?
A. Gaming PC
B. Home server
C. Thin client
D. Thick client

A

D. A thick client is any computer system with a standard configuration. The gaming PC has
enhancements over thick clients to their CPU, video, audio, and cooling. The home server
PC must have specialized capabilities and services along with a faster NIC than the thick
client and a RAID array. The thin client is a lesser device in comparison to the thick client,
but that cost-saving feature is its enhancement. These less expensive computers can connect
over the network to servers for their operating system images and applications. For more
information, see Chapter 5.

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14
Q 
Which of the following is a requirement for virtualization workstations?
A. Enhanced video
B. Enhanced audio
C. Maximum RAM and CPU cores
D. RAID array
A

C. Virtualization workstations require more RAM than standard systems and need to be
equipped with as many multicore processors as possible. Video and audio are not resources
that need to be enhanced for such workstations. Although a RAID array is a wise addition
whenever servers with valuable information are involved, a virtualization workstation does
not require one. For more information, see Chapter 5.

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15
Q 
Which of the following is not a requirement for a home server PC?
A. TV tuner
B. Print and file sharing services
C. Gigabit NIC
D. RAID array
A

A. A TV tuner card is a requirement for a home theater PC but not for a home server.
The other options are among those features that are required. For more information, see
Chapter 5.

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16
Q 
Which network connectivity device stops broadcasts from being sent to computers on a different
network segment?
A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Firewall
A

C. A router does not pass along broadcasts to computers on other segments. Hubs and
switches send broadcasts along because they do not segment traffic at the logical network
address level. See Chapter 6 for more information.

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17
Q 
Which layer of the OSI model has the important role of providing error checking?
A. Session layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Application layer
D. Transport layer
A

D. A key role of the Transport layer is to provide error checking. The Transport layer also
provides functions such as reliable end-to-end communications, segmentation and reassembly
of larger messages, and combining smaller messages into a single larger message. See
Chapter 6 for more information.

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18
Q 
On which port does FTP run by default?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 63
D. 89
A

A. FTP listens on port 21. See Chapter 7 for more information.

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19
Q 
Which of the following protocols can be used by a client to access email on a server?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. IMAP
A

D. The IMAP and POP3 protocols can be used to retrieve email from mail servers. See
Chapter 7 for more information.

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20
Q 
Which of the following is a company that provides direct access to the Internet for home
and business computer users?
A. ASP
B. ISP
C. DNS
D. DNP
A

B. An Internet service provider (ISP) provides direct access to the Internet. See Chapter 8
for more information.

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21
Q 
What is the data throughput provided by one ISDN bearer channel?
A. 16Kbps
B. 56Kbps
C. 64Kbps
D. 128Kbps
A

C. An ISDN B (bearer) channel provides 64Kbps data throughput. A home-based BRI
ISDN provides two B channels. See Chapter 8 for more information.

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22
Q 
Which LCD component in a laptop is responsible for providing brightness?
A. Backlight
B. Inverter
C. Screen
D. Backdrop
A

A. The backlight provides light to the LCD screen. The inverter provides power to the
backlight, and the screen displays the picture. See Chapter 9 for more information.

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23
Q

Your laptop has 2GB of installed memory and uses shared video memory. If the video card
is using 512MB, how much is left for the rest of the system?
A. 2GB
B. 1.5GB
C. 512MB
D. Cannot determine

A

B. If the laptop is using shared video memory, then the system memory is shared with the
video card. If the video card is using 512MB (half a gigabyte), then there is 1.5GB left for
the system. See Chapter 9 for more information.

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24
Q 
Which of the following standards supports both PCIe and USB 3.0?
A. PC Card
B. PlugCard
lx Assessment Test
C. ExpandCard
D. ExpressCard
A

D. ExpressCard supports PCIe and USB 3.0. See Chapter 9 for more information.

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25
Q 
When using a capacitive touchscreen on a mobile device, what is the most common tool
used to input data?
A. Keyboard
B. Trackball
C. Stylus
D. Finger
A

D. Capacitive touchscreens react to slight changes in electrical charges. The human finger is
used as an input device for capacitive touchscreens. For more information, see Chapter 10.

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26
Q 
Which technology used by e-Readers gives them longer battery life than tablets?
A. Lithium-polymer battery
B. Low-power backlight
C. Electrophoretic ink
D. Capacitive touchscreen
A

C. e-Readers use electrophoretic ink, also known as E Ink. E Ink uses less energy than
other LCD displays, prolonging battery life. For more information, see Chapter 10.

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27
Q 
What is the name of the mode that allows two NFC-enabled devices to transmit data to
each other?
A. Emulation mode
B. Peer-to-peer mode
C. Reader/writer mode
D. Ad hoc mode
A

B. Card emulation mode, reader/writer mode, and peer-to-peer mode are the three valid
NFC communication modes. For two devices to transmit to each other, they will use peerto-
peer mode. For more information, see Chapter 10.

28
Q

What is the function of the laser in a laser printer?
A. It heats up the toner so that it adheres to the page.
B. It charges the paper so that it will attract toner.
C. It creates an image of the page on the drum.
D. It cleans the drum before a page is printed

A

C. The laser creates an image on the photosensitive drum that is then transferred to the
paper by the transfer corona. The fuser heats up the toner so that it adheres to the page.
The transfer corona charges the page, and the eraser lamp cleans the drum before a page
is printed. A rubber blade is also used to remove toner physically from the drum. See
Chapter 11 for more information.

29
Q 
What is the component called that stores the material that ends up printed to the page in a
laser printer?
A. Toner cartridge
B. Ink cartridge
C. Laser module
D. Laser cartridge
A

A. Laser printers use toner, which they melt to the page in the image of the text and graphics
being printed. A toner cartridge holds the fine toner dust until it is used in the printing
process. See Chapter 11 for more information.

30
Q 
What service was created by Apple to allow iPhones and iPads to print without installing
printer drivers?
A. TCP printing
B. Bonjour
C. AirPrint
D. iPrint
A

C. AirPrint was created by Apple to let iPhones and iPads print without installing a printer
driver. See Chapter 11 for more information.

31
Q

Your laser printer has recently starting printing vertical white lines on the documents that it
prints. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The print driver is faulty.
B. The fuser is not heating properly.
C. There is toner on the transfer corona wire.
D. There is a scratch on the EP drum.

A

C. Toner on the transfer corona wire is most likely the cause of white streaks on printouts.
A scratch or a groove in the EP drum causes vertical black lines. If the fuser was not heating
properly, toner would not bond to the paper and you would have smearing. Faulty print
drivers will cause garbage to print or there will be no printing at all. See Chapter 12 for
more information.

32
Q

You are working with a Windows 7 computer that is assigned IP configuration information
from a central server. You wish to refresh the IP information on the system manually.
Which of the following commands would you use?
A. IPCONFIG /refresh
B. IPCONFIG /all
C. IPCONFIG /renew
D. WINIPCFG /all

A

C. The IPCONFIG utility can be used with Windows computers to see the networking configuration
values at the command line. It is one of the most commonly used command-line
utilities that can be used in troubleshooting and network configurations. To renew IP configuration
information, the IPCONFIG /renew command is used to force the DHCP server
to renew the IP information assigned to the system. See Chapter 12 for more information.

33
Q 
One laser printer in your office experiences frequent paper jams. What is the most likely
cause of the problem?
A. Worn paper feed rollers.
B. Faulty stepper motor.
C. Faulty fuser assembly.
D. The EP drum isn’t advancing properly.
A

A. The most likely cause of those listed is a worn paper feed roller. Stepper motors control
the back-and-forth motion of a print head in an inkjet printer. If the fuser assembly were
faulty, the images would smear. See Chapter 12 for more information.

34
Q

One of your network users was recently caught browsing pornographic websites at work.
Which of the following servers could be installed to prohibit this activity?
A. Web
B. Security
C. Proxy
D. DNS

A

C. A proxy server can be configured to block access to websites containing potentially
objectionable material. See Chapter 20 for more information.

35
Q 
Google Docs is an example of what type of cloud service?
A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. PaaS
D. GaaS
A

A. Google Docs is software, so it is an example of Software as a Service (SaaS). See
Chapter
20 for more information.

36
Q 
Which type of software is required to run client-side virtualization on your home network?
A. Terminal emulation
B. Process replication
C. Hyperthreading
D. Hypervisor
A

D. The hypervisor is the key piece of software needed for virtualization. See Chapter 20 for
more information.

37
Q 
Which of the following are popular mobile-device operating systems? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Android
B. Windows 7
C. Ubuntu
D. iOS
A

A, D. Google’s Android and Apple’s iOS are two of the most popular operating systems
for mobile devices on the market. The other two are not. Although some mobile operating
systems are based on Linux or UNIX, Ubuntu is a Linux distribution not used for mobile
devices. For more information, see Chapter 21.

38
Q

Which of the following protocols can be used in close range to transfer data between a
mobile device and a computer system or to allow media to stream from the mobile device to
an audio system?
A. SMTP
B. Bluetooth
C. NFC
D. Pegasus

A

B. Bluetooth allows you to pair a mobile device to a computer or to a device such as an
automotive sound system or headset. Data can be transferred between devices, and media
can be streamed from the mobile device. For more information, see Chapter 21.

39
Q

What term refers to copying data between a mobile device and a computer system to mirror
such things as contacts, programs, pictures, and music?
A. Calibration
B. Remote wipe
C. Pairing
D. Synchronization

A

D. Synchronizing a mobile device with a computer system allows you to mirror personal
data between the devices, regardless of which one contains the most current data.
Calibration refers to matching the device’s and user’s perceptions of where the user is
touching the screen. Remote wipes allow you to remove personal data from a lost or stolen
device. Pairing is what must be done in Bluetooth for two Bluetooth devices to connect and
communicate. For more information, see Chapter 21.

40
Q 
Which of the following computer components can retain a lethal electrical charge even after
the device is unplugged? (Choose two.)
A. Monitor
B. Processor
C. Power supply
D. RAM
A

A, C. Monitors and power supplies can retain significant electrical charges, even after
they’re unplugged. Don’t open the back of a monitor or the power supply unless you are
specifically trained to do so. See Chapter 23 for more information.

41
Q 
Roughly how much time spent communicating should be devoted to listening?
A. 23 percent
B. 40 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 80 percent
A

C. Roughly half the time spent communicating should be devoted to listening. See
Chapter 23 for more information.

42
Q

You have found prohibited content on a user’s machine and need to follow proper procedures.
What is the term used to describe the handling of evidence from discovery to delivery
to the proper authorities?
A. First response
B. Chain of custody
C. Data preservation
D. Documentation flow changes

A

B. Chain of custody describes the procedure used to track handling and the location of
evidence in the event of an incident such as discovering illegal or improper material on a
user’s computer. See Chapter 23 for more information.

43
Q 
Which of the following is a security mechanism used by HTTPS to encrypt web traffic
between a web client and server?
A. IPSec
B. SSL
C. L2TP
D. PPPoE
A 
B. HTTPS connections are secured using either Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport
Layer Security (TLS).
44
Q 
Which of the following are 4G technologies? (Choose all that apply.)
A. LTE
B. GSM
C. CDMA
D. WiMax
A

A, D. WiMax and LTE are the two current 4G cellular technologies. GSM and CDMA are
3G technologies.

45
Q 
Which of the following standards is also known as CardBus?
A. PCMCIA 1.0
B. PCMCIA 2.0
C. PCMCIA 5.0
D. ExpressCard
A

C. PCMCIA 5.0 is also known as CardBus.

46
Q

When lifting heavy equipment, what is the proper technique?
A. Get the heaviest part closest to your body and lift with your legs.
B. Get the heaviest part closest to your body and lift with your back.
C. Get the lightest part closest to your body and lift with your legs.
D. Get the lightest part closest to your body and lift with your back.

A

A. When lifting heavy equipment, center the weight as close to your body as possible.
Then, keep your back straight and lift with your legs.

47
Q 
Which of the following is a chip that is integrated into PATA drives, as opposed to being
mounted on a daughter card?
A. Controller
B. CPU
C. Host adapter
D. IDE
A

A. A controller chip is responsible for encoding data to be stored on the disk platters as
well as performing geometry translation for the BIOS. Translation is necessary because the
true number of sectors per track of the hard disk drive system usually exceeds what is supported
by the BIOS.

48
Q 
After SATA was introduced, what was the retroactive term used for the original ATA
specification?
A. EIDE
B. IDE
C. PATA
D. SCSI
A

C. IDE (ATA-1) and EIDE (ATA-2 and later) were specific nicknames for the ATA series of
standards. Although ATA is technically accurate, it refers to legacy IDE standards as well as newer SATA standards. Instead of using the term ATA to be synonymous with IDE and
EIDE, as had been done in the past, the term PATA was coined, referring to the parallel
nature of IDE communications. The term PATA differentiates the IDE and EIDE form of
ATA from Serial ATA. SCSI is a related, yet completely different type of technology.

49
Q 
Which of the following is a virtual machine manager—the software that allows the virtual
machines to exist?
A. Comptroller
B. Shell
C. Kernel
D. Hypervisor
A

D. The hypervisor is a virtual machine manager—the software that allows the virtual
machines to exist.

50
Q 
Which of the following would not be considered a standard permission in Windows using
NTFS?
A. Full Control
B. Modify
C. Allow
D. Write
A

C. Standard permissions are collections of special permissions, including Full Control,
Modify, Read & Execute, Read, and Write.

51
Q

Which feature is designed to keep Windows current by automatically downloading updates
such as patches and security fixes and installing these fixes automatically?
A. Security Center
B. Action Center
C. Windows Update
D. Windows Anytime

A

C. Windows includes Windows Update, a feature designed to keep Windows current by
automatically downloading updates such as patches and security fixes and installing these
fixes automatically.

52
Q 
With dynamic storage, which of the following partition types are possible?
A. Complex, bridged, or mirrored
B. Simple, spanned, or striped
C. Simple, complex, or interleaved
D. Spanned, interleaved, or striped
A

B. Windows supports both basic and dynamic storage. Basic can have a primary and an
extended partition, while dynamic can be simple, spanned, or striped.

53
Q 
You have been told to use Task Manager to change the priority of a process to Below Normal.
This equates to a base priority of what?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
A

C. For applications that don’t need to drop all of the way down to Low, this equates to a
base priority of 6.

54
Q 
Encrypting File System (EFS) is available in which editions of Windows 7? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Professional
B. Home Premium
C. Enterprise
D. Ultimate
E. Business
A

A, C, D. EFS is available in the Professional, Enterprise, and Ultimate editions of Windows
7, allowing for encryption/decryption on files stored in NTFS volumes.

55
Q 
Which of the following can provide electrical power over Ethernet cabling?
A. PoE
B. QoS
C. DoS
D. WoL
A

A. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a handy technology to supply both power and an Ethernet
connection. The purpose of Power over Ethernet (PoE) is pretty much described in its name:
Electrical power is transmitted over twisted-pair Ethernet cable (along with data).

56
Q 
With which type of duplexing do communications travel in both directions but in only one
direction at any given time?
A. Full
B. Half
C. Auto
D. Mechanical
A

B. With half duplex, communications travel in both directions but in only one direction at
any given time.

57
Q 
Which applet in Windows Vista is the primary interface for configuring synchronization of
offline files?
A. Synchronization Wizard
B. Action Center
C. Merge
D. Sync Center
A

D. The Sync Center in Windows Vista is the primary interface for configuring synchronization.

58
Q 
Which Control Panel applet allows you to administer, as well as deploy, component services
and configure behavior like security?
A. SFC
B. Data Sources
C. Component Services
D. DDR
A

C. Component Services allows you to administer as well as deploy component services and
configure behavior like security.

59
Q

In Windows, the Account Lockout Counter in an Account Lockout policy keeps track of
the number of invalid attempts before lockout occurs. The default is 0 (meaning the feature
is turned off), but it can be set from 1 to what?
A. 9999
B. 999
C. 99
D. 24

A

B. It can be set from 1 to 999.

60
Q 
What Windows operating system tool can be used to block access from the network (be it
internal or the Internet)?
A. Windows Firewall
B. Windows Defender
C. Advanced Security
D. Device Manager
A

A. Windows Firewall (Start ➢ Control Panel ➢ Windows Firewall) is used to block access
from the network (be it internal or the Internet).

61
Q

Which of the following are programs that enter a system or network under the guise of
another program? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Worms
B. Trojans
C. Rootkits
D. Spyware

A

B. Trojans are programs that enter a system or network under the guise of another program.
While rootkits may do this, it is not their primary feature and thus not the best
answer for this question.

62
Q 
Which of the following involves applying a strong magnetic field to initialize the media
before tossing it away?
A. Fraying
B. Fracking
C. Degaussing
D. Spreading
A

C. Degaussing involves applying a strong magnetic field to initialize the media (this is also
referred to as disk wiping). This process helps ensure that information doesn’t fall into the
wrong hands.

63
Q 
Which term is synonymous with MAC filtering?
A. Disabling Autorun
B. Shredding
C. Port disabling
D. Network Lock
A

D. On a number of wireless devices, the term Network Lock is used in place of MAC filtering,
and the two are synonymous.

64
Q 
Which of the following is a copy of your system configuration at a given point in time?
A. Restore point
B. MBR
C. Registry
D. BOOT.INI
A

A. A restore point is a copy of your system configuration at a given point in time. It’s like a
backup of your configuration but not necessarily your data.

65
Q

Which of the following could be described as a small, deviously ingenious program that
replicates itself to other computers, generally causing those computers to behave abnormally?
(Choose the best answer.)
A. Rogue
B. Redirector
C. Virus
D. Pop-up

A

C. A computer virus is a small, deviously ingenious program that replicates itself to other
computers, generally causing those computers to behave abnormally. Generally speaking, a
virus’s main function is to reproduce.

CC A+ 901 Quiz (14 decks)

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