assessment 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Dx that is a result of genetic deficiency of FoxP3 in Tregs  autoimmunity :

A

IPEX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Type of virus – influenza?

A

Negative sense RNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Antigenic shift causes huge change in this influenza protein:

A

hemagluttination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Insect born protozoa that replicate in EC tissue spaces:

A

trypanosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Trypanosomes coated with single type of glycoprotein:

A

VSG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Trypanosome evasion of host immune system?

A

Programmed re-arrangement of DNA: cassette system to express only 1 of 1000 different VSG (variant specific glycoprotein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

State in which no viral proteins produced (no disease caused, no CTL’s active) –

A

Latency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Herpes simplex virus occupies what cells?

A

Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why are neurons susceptible to viral infections?

A

Low # MHC I to decrease unnecessary killing by CTL’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mononucleosis is caused by?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Epstein-Barr infects what cells?

A

Causes them to proliferate until they are killed by CTL’s: B Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pathogens most likely to subvert host defenses?

A

Viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mycobacterium TB resistance to immune system?

A

Prevents fusions of lysosome and phagosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Listeria evasion of immune system?

A

Escapes phagosome until macrophage killed by CTLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Toxoplasma gondii evasion of the immune system?

A

Makes its own vesicles inside phagosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What produces toxic shock syndrome toxin 1?

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does a super antigen bind?

A

Vb region of TCR and MHC II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Superantigen activates… % T cells?

A

2%-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Superantigen causes…

A

Massive release of cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Phase of Ag specific Antibody present and detectable in the serum

A

Seroconversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lentivirus? Example?

A

slow, HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HIV: profound decrease in?

A

CD4 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HIV binds with high affinity to_____ and must interact with_____ to gain entry into the cell.

A

CD4 and chemokine receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Antigenic variation in HIV is due to _____?

A

Error prone reverse transcriptase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Asplenia increases susceptibility to?

A

Septic infections (encapsulated bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Neutropenia is a deficiency in _____? must be less than ____ cell/ul?

A

Granulocytes, <500 cells/ul

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Severe congenital neutropenia called____? defect?

A

Kostman syndrome, G-CSF or its receptor

28
Q

Autosomal dominant type of neutropenia that occurs every 2-4 weeks, defect in ELA-2?

A

Cyclic neutropenia

29
Q

Absence/non functional NK and NKT cells?

A

Absolute NKD

30
Q

Absence of NK cells/ function?

A

Classical NKD

31
Q

Loss of NK cell fuction?

A

Functional NKD

32
Q

Most toll signals through what Trx factor?

A

NF-KB

33
Q

X linked hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia immunodeficiency= defect in what protein?

A

NEMO

34
Q

Usual results of deficiencies in complements?

A

EC bacteria

35
Q

Deficiencies in complement regulatory proteins can cause what 2 problems?

A
  1. Encapsulated bacterial susceptibility due to depletion of Cs
  2. Destruction of RBCs
36
Q

Mannose Binding Lectin Deficiency: increases … meningitis?

A

Neisseria

37
Q

Paroxymal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria caused by? Complement induced intravascular hemolytic anemia due to

def … and …

A

DAF and CD59 (Protects host cells)

38
Q

X-linked agammaglobulinemia caused by defect in? Vulnerable to? ……; leads to lack of signal transduction in B

cells; 2 pathogens?

A

Bruton’s tyrosine kinase leads to lack of signal transduction in B cells; EC bacteria and cannot neutralize viruses

39
Q

Surrogate light chain that pairs with mu heavy chain? (deficiency causes lack of pre-B receptors)

A

Gamma 5

40
Q

2 mutations that can cause X-linked hyper IgM syndrome:

A

1- defect in CD40L (no 2nd activation) 2-deficiency in activation induced cytidine deaminase (cannot isotype

switch or somatic hypermutate)

41
Q

IgA deficiency leads to increased susceptibility to?

A

Parasites

42
Q

Selective IgG deficiency – most common in kids? In adults? Kids: … and adults ….

A

Kids: G2 and adults G3

43
Q

Group of 150 primary immunodeficiencies: reduced levels of antibodies; most common primary immunodeficiency disorder: (dx in 20s or 30s):

A

common variable immunodeficiency

44
Q

Classical bare lymphocyte syndrome is a deficiency in …?

A

MHC II; no positive selection of CD4 cells in thymus

45
Q

2 defects to cause defect in CD8 function?

A

1-TAP deficiency 2-CD8 alpha chain defect

46
Q

Defect in cytoskeletal reorganization that is needed for T cells to deliver cytokines and other signals to B cells and macrophages – …… (SCID – T cells cannot talk to B cells)

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

47
Q

Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ADA) or purine nucleotide phosphorylase def results in?

A

Accumulation of toxic nucleotide catabolites that kill developing B and T cells

48
Q

CD4 defects can result in ______?

A

CD4 defects can result in… SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency – CD4 are important for cell-mediated and humoral response)

49
Q

Common gamma chain def, Jak3, and CD3 def result in?

A

defects in T cell function causing SCID

50
Q

Mis-sense mutation that partially inactivates RAG causing absence of B cells and oligoclonal autoreactive T-cells

– (shares a phenotype with common gamma chain def)

A

Omenn Syndrome

51
Q

DiGeorge results in small deletion in what chromosome resulting in what?

A

Chromosome 22, no thymus

52
Q

APECED, results in a myriad of autoimmune diseases due to a deficiency in what?

A

AIRE

53
Q

IPEX , onset 1st year of life: 3 symptoms?

A

Watery diarrhea, eczematous dermatitis, endocrinopathy

54
Q

Role of Factor P (properdin) – enhances…

A

enhances the alternative complement pathway (prevents destruction of C3b)

55
Q

Genetic dx characterized by lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly: immune cells fail to … following immune

response –> overpopulation of secondary lymphoid tissue:

A

ALPS (autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome)

56
Q

Delivery of initial smallpox vaccine –

A

variolation

57
Q

Virus used to vaccinate against smallpox (cow pox)

A

vaccinia (vacus = cow)

58
Q

Only part of pathogen is used as immunogen =

A

subunit vaccine

59
Q

Inactivated toxin

A

toxoid

60
Q

Most widely used live bacterial vaccine that is not used in the US is used against? And called?

A

BCG Bacille-Calmette –Guerin; Mycobacterium tuberculosis

61
Q

What does DTP vaccine consist of and what does it target?

A

Diphtheria & tetanus toxoids combined with killed Bordetalla pertussis (whopping cough)

62
Q

2 killed virus vaccines?

A

Salk polio, influenza

63
Q

Most anti-virals are what?

A

Live attenuated vaccines

64
Q

Name 4 live-attenuted viral vaccines:

A

measles, mumps, Sabin polio, yellow fever

65
Q

Substance that enhances the immunogenicity of the antigen –

A

Adjuvant

66
Q

Adjuvants can turn a … protein antigen into a … antigen which is more readily taken up by APCs

A

soluble > particulate

67
Q

What is added as a source of PAMPs and to increase inflammation around vaccine?

A

Mycobacterial cell wall components