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Assessment And Diagnosis > Assessment > Flashcards

Assessment Flashcards

0
Q

What is Spearman’s “g” factor?

A

General intelligence and he proposes that intelligence tests should easier intelligence without becoming clouded by specific abilities.

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1
Q

What is the Raven’s Progressive Matricies?

A

Series of abstract patterns with one piece missing - u pick out the missing piece using a multiple choice format. It’s one of the best non verbal tests of intelligence. It is also a novel task.

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2
Q

A criterion based score describes what?

A

How a person did in relation to some external criterion. Like a percentage tells us exactly how the person did on the test or how much the criterion was mastered.

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3
Q

What is face validity?

A

Not technical validity bit what the test seems to superficially measure. Whether it “looks” valid to the untrained eye.

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4
Q

What does a norm based score tell us?

A

Tells us how they did relative to other test takers and say nothing about how much they mastered the material. Like percentiles, standard scores, an. iQ scores are all norm based scores standards scores, Z scores, T scores).

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5
Q

What is construct validity?

A

Looks at how well a test measures an underlying construct using methods such as factor analysis, or the multi trait, multi method matrix.

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6
Q

What is criterion related validity?

A

Looks at how well a test predicts criterion outcome by correlating scores on the predictor test with a measure of outcome.

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7
Q

Who is more likely to commit suicide middle to high SES or low SES?

A

Middle to high

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8
Q

What is frame of reference training used for?

A

Frame of reference training is used to improve the accuracy of performance ratings. Frame of reference training provides raters with common performance standards to help raters become clear on what constitutes good and bad behavior. While such training may in fact reduce Raytee-based sources of error, such as personal biases and the halo effect; it made to decrease the effect of biases that lead to unfair discrimination, but the goal for frame of reference training is broader than the amount then the elimination of anyone specific source of error.

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9
Q

The problem with the WISC-IV for assessing gifted children is what regarding to it’s ceiling?

A

It has a low ceiling with the maximum possible IQ score of about 150 which is three standard deviations above the mean that’s limiting its effectiveness in assessing giftedness and children.

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10
Q

The problem with the WISC-IV for assessing mental retardation in children is what regarding to it’s floor?

A

It has a high floor or a minimum possible scores about 50 or three standard deviations below the mean. As a result this test cannot provide an accurate assessment of the level of mental retardation and someone with this disorder.

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11
Q

What would be a better test for giftedness or mental retardation then why?

A

The Stanford-Binet

Because it has a high ceiling of 180 and a much lower floor then the WISC

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12
Q

What are the validity scales on the MMPI-2?

A

L F K

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13
Q

What is the L scale on the MMPI-2?

A

The L scale is the lie scale. Elevation on scale L indicates a naïve attempt to look good.

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14
Q

What does an elevation on the K scale suggest?

A

The K scale is the guardedness scale. High scores suggest that the person is making a more sophisticated attempt to present himself in a positive light or fake good. Alone score on K is suggestive of someone who is excessively open, has poor ego strength, and tends to openly reveal his or her negative aspects.

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15
Q

On the validity scales on the MMPI two what does a V-shaped pattern usually’s say?

A

Faking good

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16
Q

What do elevations on the F scale reflect?

A

They reflect pathology or an attempt to present in a negative light.

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17
Q

What would an inverted V shaped pattern on the MMPI-2 validity scales represent?

A

Someone trying to present in a negative light like claimant in a malpractice suit or patient with schizophrenia

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18
Q

When a behavior is not discrete and has no clear beginning or end because in such instances is not possible to measure the number of times that a child is on task for example what kind of recording would we use?

A

Interval recording- The time period of observation is divided into smaller interval intervals, for example an hours divided into 12 five-minute intervals.

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19
Q

During interval sampling what is called when the observer notes what is the behavior was present at the moment the interval ends?

A

Momentary time sampling

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20
Q

During interval sampling what is it called when the observer notes whether the behavior was present for the entire duration of the interval?

A

Whole interval sampling

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21
Q

What is the event recording and when is it used?

A

Event recording, the observer simply record the number of times the target behavior occurs for example how many times the child made his bed. It is used is also called frequency recording any use for discreet, easily measured behaviors

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22
Q

What is content sampling as a source if error?

A

Error due to content sampling occurs when a test, by chance, has items that tap into a testtakers knowledgebase, or item that don’t happen to a testtakers knowledge.

Content sampling is a source of error when assessing the reliability of a test, in particular, alternate forms reliability and split half reliability.

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23
Q

What is purposive sampling?

A

Is sampling procedure for selecting subjects. It involves selecting a particular sample because it is believed to be representative of the population. For example test marketing a new product in Los Angeles because it is believed that how Los Angeles people view the product will be similar to how people and the rest of the country will be at the product.

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24
Q

What disorder has the highest rate of comorbidity with Tourette’s syndrome?

A

ADHD

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25
Q

The lifetime prevalence ratio of depression among women and men is what?

A

Two to one

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26
Q

What is diagnostic overshadowing?

A

Diagnostic overshadowing is a bias that negatively affects clinicians diagnostic accuracy when diagnosing persons with mental retardation and other developmental disabilities. In essence, the intellectual deficits are such a notable feature and persons with developmental disabilities that any accompanying more minor psychiatric disturbance tends to be overshadowed and therefore not diagnosed.

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27
Q

What is another term for item response theory?

A

Latent trait model

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28
Q

What are latent trait models used to establish?

A

They are used to establish a uniform scale of measurement that can be applied to individuals of varying ability and to test content of varying difficulty.

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29
Q

What is the premise of classical test theory?

A

Total variability in testtakers scores can be explained by combination of the tests reliability and error variability.

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30
Q

What is the prevalence of OCD in men versus women?

A

Equally common

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31
Q

What is the prevalence of OCD in girls versus boys?

A

It is much more common in boys and girls

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32
Q

At what age is the boys generally develop OCD?

A

Between six and 15

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33
Q

At what age do girls usually develop OCD?

A

Between the ages of 20 and 29.

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34
Q

What is it called when an employer’s rates and employee on one dimension influences ratings on other dimensions of the employees performance weather in a positive or negative direction?

A

The halo effect

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35
Q

What is it called when ratings are based on the employee’s most recent performance rather than on performance during the entire rating.?

A

The recency effect

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36
Q

What is it called when employers ratings of an applicant is influenced by prior applicants?

A

The contrast effect

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37
Q

What is it called when a rater uniformly evaluates candidates favorably?

A

A leniency bias

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38
Q

Autistic disorder is characterized by what three things?

A

Impairment in social interactions
Impairment in communication
Restricted repertoire of behavior

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39
Q

How common is autistic disorder in boys and girls?

A

4 to 5 times more common in males

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40
Q

What is the age of onset for autism and is prognosis best with late or early onset?

A

Before age 3

Best with late onset

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41
Q

What is a functional analysis of behavior?

A

Functional analysis of behavior involves looking at the behavior, its antecedents and consequences, as well as the contingencies and the reinforcers that served to maintain the behavior.

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42
Q

It researchers enlisted to design it early detection program for schizophrenia is fine example of primary secondary or tertiary prevention?

A

Secondary

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43
Q

What is the most established test children’s intelligence?

A

WISC IV

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44
Q

What is the most empirically validated theory Of human intelligence?

A

catell-horn-caroll theory

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45
Q

catell-horn-caroll theory is the foundation of popular test of aptitude and intelligence?

A

Woodcock Johnson III

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46
Q

What is a three stratum model, with general intelligence at the top level, broad cognitive abilities in the middle, and narrow cognitive abilities at the bottom?

A

catell-horn-caroll theory

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47
Q

What do we know about bipolar disorder with psychotic features related to both the mood and psychotic features?

A

When the mood symptoms we met the person does not experience psychotic symptoms.

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48
Q

What do we know about the mood and psychotic symptoms with schizoaffective disorder?

A

Mood and psychotic symptoms are concurrent except for a two-week period when there are psychotic symptoms without mood symptoms.

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49
Q

What are we testing when we are measuring subject on the same test at two point in time?

A

Test retest reliability

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50
Q

What are we call when we are measuring subjects onto similar versions of the test at two different points in time?

A

Alternate forms reliability

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51
Q

What can we do to specifically increase test reliability?

A

More items on a test
Homogeneity of the items
An unrestricted range of scores that results from a more heterogeneous sample
Difficulty of guessing

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52
Q

The Kappa coefficient would be used to measure what?

A

Interrater reliability

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53
Q

What are other measures of interrater reliability?

A

Percent agreement between raters

Pearson r between scores given by the raters

yules Y

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54
Q

Test retest reliability is typically expressed by the coefficient of what?

A

Stability

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55
Q

Parallel forms of reliability is typically expressed by the coefficient of what?

A

Equivalence

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56
Q

kuder-Richardson and Cronbach’s alpha are measures of what?

A

Internal consistency reliability

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57
Q

What percentage of individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia will experience auditory hallucinations?

A

75%

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58
Q

Olfactory hallucinations are more often indicative of what?

A

And organic brain disorder such as a tumor

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59
Q

Someone diagnosed with intermittent explosive disorder, do they have remorse after their behavior?

A

Yes

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60
Q

Children with autism show relative strength on what test? Compared to their peers

A

The embedded figures tests or the EFT. The EFT measures cognitive functioning by having the examinee try to locate simple geometrical shapes that are hidden in more complex diagrams.

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61
Q

What is the TONI-3?

A

The test of nonverbal intelligence measures intelligence, aptitude, abstract reasoning, and problem-solving completely free of the use of language.

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62
Q

What is the TONI-3 Best used with?

A

It is particularly well-suited for individuals were known or believed to have disorders of communication are thinking that may result from mental retardation, deafness, development of developmental disabilities, autism, cerebral palsy, stroke, disease, head injury, or other neurological impairment.

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63
Q

What is the ravens progressive matrices and who is the best used with?

A

Generally thought to be one of the best nonverbal test of intelligence. It is also stated for individuals with severe motor impairments and speech limitations. Spearman himself considered Raven’s progressive matrices to be the best nonverbal measure of the G factor.

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64
Q

What is an example of a false alarm?

A

A false alarm is a false positive or it is a false alarm if you think someone has HIV but he doesn’t

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65
Q

What is the definition of “hit”?

A

A means true positive

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66
Q

What is a miss?

A

A Miss means false-negative or it is a miss if you think someone is HIV negative when she’s actually HIV-positive

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67
Q

What is the correct rejection?

A

A correct rejection means true negative in this example the subject has had nine true negatives and one false positive or 90% correct rejections and 10% false alarms.

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68
Q

What is a false negative?

A

For example attest that incorrectly classifies those with less severe eating disorders as not having the disorder would be a false negative

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69
Q

What can psychologists do to increase the sensitivity of a test? For example if you’re concerned with having too many false negatives?

A

You lower the predictor cut off. If the test is not sensitive, it may incorrectly classify those with less severe of the said disorder as not having the disorder and in order to remedy this, the psychologist can lower the predictor cut off.

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70
Q

Can the criterion cut off of the test be changed?

A

No

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71
Q

What is incremental validity?

A

It is the proportion of improvement in the success rate achieved by adding a predictor test over and above the starting base rate.

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72
Q

What is the base rate?

A

The base rate is the rate of selecting successful employees without a predictor test.

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73
Q

What is the selection ratio?

A

The selection ratio is the ratio of the number of openings to the number of applicants for example one opening for every 10 applicants is 1:10 or .1.

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74
Q

What are the Taylor Russell tables?

A

According to Taylor Russell tables, incremental validity is optimized when the base rate is moderate about .5 and the selection rate is low close to .1. In other words a good predictor test will make the biggest difference when there has been moderate success in choosing successful employees without the predictive text, and there is a large pool of applicants with a relatively few openings.

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75
Q

What and what are alternatives to classical test theory?

A

Latent trait model and item response theory

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76
Q

What is item response theory or latent trAit model?

A

It is assumed that item performance is related to the amount of the respondents late tree like statistics ability. Later trait models are used to establish a uniform scale of measurement that can be applied to individual the varying ability and to test content of varying difficulty.

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77
Q

What is classical test theory?

A

Total variability in testtakers scores can be explained by combination of the test reliability and error variability.

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78
Q

Children with autism show relative strength on the following test?

A

Embedded figures test

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79
Q

What is an embedded figures test or EFT?

A

The EFT measures cognitive functioning by having the examinee try to locate simple geometrical shapes that are hidden in more complex diagrams.

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80
Q

Spearman himself consider the following test to be the best nonverbal measure of the G factor.

A

Raven’s progressive matrices

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81
Q

This occurs when the criterion is subjectively scored, and the reader has knowledge of the employees predictor scores?

A

Criterion contamination

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82
Q

Criterion contamination results in a spuriously high blank validity coefficient?

A

Hi criterion related validity coefficient

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83
Q

What is something that could reduce the recency effect?

A

Quarterly appraisals or evaluations

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84
Q

This is a tendency bias that occurs when a rater tends to write all employees as about average?

A

The central tendency bias

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85
Q

On the MMPI – two, which validity scale also serves as a moderator variable? And what does the scale adjust for?

A

The K scale

Defensiveness

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86
Q

The following scales on the MMPI – to measure response inconsistency or random responding?

A

Vrin

TRIN

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87
Q

The standard errors of the mean, the standard errors of measurement, and standard error of the estimate express errors in terms of what?

A

Standard deviation units

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88
Q

Blank applies to the standard error of the mean only?

A

Sampling error

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89
Q

This source of error happens or is taken into account in the standard error of measurement only?

A

The testing situation is a source of error

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90
Q

When validity is high what happens to error in prediction?

A

When validities hi there should be little error in prediction and when validity is low, there should be a lot of Error in prediction

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91
Q

What kind of relationship is the standard error of estimate have with the standard deviation?

A

The standard error of estimate has a direct relationship with the standard deviation, the larger the standard deviation, the larger the standard error.

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92
Q

What is a forced choice or a forced response and what does it help control?

A

A forced response format in which the rater is forced to choose between two equally desirable or undesirable attributes. And it helps to reduce the halos

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93
Q

What is BARS and what might it help reduce?

A

Behaviorally anchored rating scales
Objective rating scales for work performance

The halo effect

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94
Q

What three things are known to help with the halo effect?

A

Training the Raters
Utilizing forced choice or a forced response format

Objective rating methods such as BARS

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95
Q

What is utilizing relative methods?

A

Relative methods involve comparing employees with one another and does not control for Halo effects

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96
Q

What is the range for reliability coefficients?

What is the range of the validity coefficient?

What is the range of the standard error of measurement?

What is the range of the standard error of estimate?

A
  1. 0 - 1.0 Reliability
    - 1.0 to 1.0 validity

Standard error of measurement = 0-SDx (of the test)

Standard error of the estimate = 0- SDy (criterion)

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97
Q

The following reflects the degree of relationship between pairs of scores from the same group of people who were are administered an identical test at two points in time?

A

The test – retest reliability coefficient

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98
Q

The following indicates the strength of the relationship between a predictor test and a criterion outcomes such as how well SAT scores predict college GPA?

A

Criterion related validity coefficient

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99
Q

The following measures the degree to which a test is actually measuring the construct for the trade it is attempting to measure for example aggression?

A

Construct validity

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100
Q

The two following forms of validity are necessary to establish construct validity?

A

Convergent and divergent validity

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101
Q

What is diuresis?

A

Excessive urination

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102
Q

Blank is the rate of successful hiring without using a test.

A

Base rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

A moderate base rate optimizes what kind of validity?

A

Incremental

104
Q

Blank is the ratio of number of openings to number of applicants?

A

Selection ratio

105
Q

A low selection ratio optimizes what kind of validity

A

Incremental

106
Q

Blank kind of validity of the test is the correlation between scores on the test and scores on some outcome measure of performance and productivity

A

Criterion related validity

107
Q

The higher the criterion related validity of the test the higher the blank validity

A

Incremental

108
Q

Good Taylor – Russell tables are used to evaluate —– validity, the benefit of using a test for improving selection decisions. The key variables that tables take into account include base rate, selection ratio, and what else?

A

Criterion related validity

Incremental validity

109
Q

Disorders that are equally common in males and females are what? There are three

A

Schizophrenia, bipolar one, and OCD

110
Q

How much more common is autistic disorder in boys than girls?

A

4 to 5 times more common in males

111
Q

What is the prevalence ratio of ADHD and boys and girls

A

6 to 9 times more common in boys

112
Q

What is the concordance rate for identical twins for bipolar one disorder?

A

75%

113
Q

By increasing the length of the test which will be affected reliability or validity?

A

Both

114
Q

What can you tell me about validity and reliability when we increase the length of a test?

A

Increasing test length will have a direct impact on reliability since it is one of the key factors that affect reliability. Since reliability, in turn, puts a ceiling on validity increasing test length will also affect the validity. However the effect on validity will be less direct overall, reliability would be more effective than validity

115
Q

The degree of correlation between the predictor and the criterion is called what?

A

Criterion related validity

116
Q

The following is the extent to which the actual criterion for example church attendance truly measures the conceptual criterion or what we are measuring in this case morality?

A

Criterion relevance

117
Q

What is the relationship between criterion deficiency and criterion relevance?

A

The greater the criterion deficiency the less criterion relevance

118
Q

What is the age of onset for autistic disorder?

A

Three years old

119
Q

What is the age onset for asperger’s ?

A

There is no specified age

120
Q

The requirement of blank years of normal development is a marker for childhood disintegrated disorder?

A

2

121
Q

What is a type a personality

A

Stressed, hard-driving, inpatient, competitive

122
Q

For type a personalities what is the most predictive quality that leads to the cardiovascular disease?

A

Hostility and conflicts about expressing anger

123
Q

Diseases that are X – linked are more common in what gender?

A

Men

124
Q

Early centuries interested in how well IQ predicts success in high school gPA. She selects a random sample of eighth-graders. The standard error of measurement is what?

A

The standard error of measurement is the average amount of error in each person’s IQ score as measured as measured by the IQ test

125
Q

What is the average amount of error in prediction?

A

The standard error of the estimate

126
Q

What is the average amount of error in the groups mean, in relation to the population mean?

A

The standard error of the mean

127
Q

What is another word for the average amount of spread of IQ scores?

A

Standard deviation

128
Q

What is empirical criterion keying?

A

Used in the original development of the MMPI? Items are chosen based on their ability to discriminate group membership. In other words, a specific item on the MMPI was only kept on the schizophrenia scale if people without schizophrenia and people with schizophrenia answered it differently.

129
Q

What is an ipsative measure?

A

These measures yield only information on an individual, without any information about how the individual compares to others. For example, and a positive measure might show that Mr. Smith likes gardening more than cooking, but doesn’t tell us whether he likes gardening more or less than the average person does.

130
Q

What is another word for item response theory?

A

Latent trait theory

131
Q

What is item response theory or otherwise known as latent response theory?

A

It is used to calculate to what extent the specific item on a test correlates with an underlying construct. Put differently, item response theory looks at a subjects performance on a test item as representing the degree to which the subject has a latent trait. For example, correctly answering it difficult statistics question would indicate subject is high in the latent trait of statistics ability. It can be used, therefore, to compare subject performance on two measures that have different types or numbers of items or our score differently. Item response theory is used to develop individually tailored adaptive test in which an answer to one question in a domain area determines whether another question in that area will be asked such tests and up having the fewest number of items necessary to assess the subjects performance.

132
Q

When operant conditioning is measuring operant strength what else is it measuring?

A

Response rate or the frequency with which a behavior is emitted

133
Q

What age range our night terrors typically occurring?

A

3 - 12 years old

134
Q

What is the peak age of onset from night terrors?

A

3 1/2

135
Q

What percentage of children experience night terrors?

A

1 - 6 %

136
Q

When do night terrors typically remit?

A

Adolescents

137
Q

Biographical data shows good blank validity

A

Criterion related validity

138
Q

What kind of validity is this: finding a correlation between current motivation and current work performance?

A

Concurrent validity

139
Q

What kind of validity is this: a new intelligent test correlating highly with theWAIS IV?

A

Convergent validity

140
Q

What kind of validity measures and underline hypothetical construct a trait?

A

Construct validity

141
Q

Criterion related validity may also be called what kind of other validity?

A

Predictive validity

142
Q

Blank is defined as the amount of consistency, repeatability, and dependability in scores obtained on a given test.

A

Reliability

143
Q

What is another word for classical test theory?

A

The true score model

144
Q

What does classical test. Or the true score model say? What is the formula about total variability in testtakers scores?

A

Total variability in scores equals true score variability plus error variability

145
Q

What is true score variability?

A

The variability in scores due to real differences in ability or knowledge in the test takers

146
Q

What is Error variability?

A

Variability in scores that is caused by chance or random factors

147
Q

Reliability is the proportion of blank?

A

True score variability

148
Q

What is the minimum acceptable score for reliability?

A

.80

149
Q

What are three common sources of error in tests?

A
  1. Content sampling error
  2. Time sampling
  3. Test heterogeneity
150
Q

What is time sampling?

A

Times sampling error occurs when a test is given it to different points in time, and the scores on each administration are different because of factors related to the passage of time e.g. forgetting overtime.

151
Q

What is test heterogeneity?

A

It is error due to the test heterogeneity occurs when a test test heterogeneous items tapping more than one domain

152
Q

What four factors affect reliability?

A
  1. Number of items
  2. Homogeneity of items
  3. Range of scores
  4. Ability to guess
153
Q

How is reliability affected by number of items on a test

A

Reliability is increased when the number of items is increased, and it is decreased when the number of items is reduced

154
Q

How does the homogeneity of items affect reliability?

A

Homogeneity of items refers to items tapping similar content areas. All things being equal, the more homogeneous the items are the greater the reliability.

155
Q

How does range of scores affect reliability?

A

An unrestricted range, or a full spread of scores, maximizes reliability. A restricted range has the reverse effect and reduces the reliability coefficient. The range of scores obtained is related to the heterogeneity of the the more heterogeneous the subjects are on the dimension being measured the greater the range of scores.

156
Q

How does the ability to guess affect reliability?

A

The easier it is to guess for example with true false test the lower reliability is. This is because reliability indicates to score variability or how much of the scores based on with the test-taker really knows. If it’s easy to guess one’s score will be less dependent on what one knows, and more due to chance factors.

157
Q

Test retest reliability is expressed as a coefficient of blank? The major source of error for test retest reliability is blank?

A

The coefficient of stability

Time sampling

158
Q

Parallel forms or alternate forms or equivalent forms of reliability are expressed as the coefficient of blank? There are two forms of error in parallel alternate equivalent forms reliability what are those?

A

Coefficient of equivalents

Time and content sampling

159
Q

Name for estimates of reliability?

A
  1. Test retest reliability
  2. Parallel forms reliability
  3. Internal consistency reliability
  4. Interrater reliability
160
Q

What is internal consistency reliability?

A

It looks at the consistency of the scores within the test

161
Q

What are the two different types of internal consistency reliability?

A
  1. Split – half reliability

2. Kuder – Richardson and Cronbach’s coefficient alpha

162
Q

What is split half reliability and what bigger category of reliability it is it part of?

A
  1. Split half reliability falls under internal consistency reliability
  2. Split have reliability is calculated by splitting the testing half and then correlating the scores obtained that each half by each person. When the test is split in half, the correlation is based on half the number of items.
163
Q

The split half reliability overestimate or underestimate the true reliability of a test?

A

Underestimates

164
Q

That Spearman – Brown prophecy formula falls under what type of reliability and what does it tell us?

A

Split half reliability which falls under internal consistency reliability

It tells us how much more reliable the test would be if it were longer

165
Q

What is the source of error for split half reliability?

A

Item or content sampling

166
Q

First speeded tests what types of reliability would be appropriate and what types of reliability would not be appropriate?

A

Split half would be inappropriate

Alternate forms is best next best is test retest reliability

167
Q

What is a power test?

A

How are tests have items that are of varying difficulty level, and subject of provided sufficient time to complete them all. Scores are generally expressed in terms of percentage correct. The E triple P is an example of a power test

168
Q

What is an example of the standard error of measurement think of the WAIS-IV?

A

Plus or minus the error of measurement is added to the IQ score that leads you to the confidence intervals

169
Q

What is validity?

A

Validity is about accuracy

170
Q

Name three types of validity (range of score)

Name four types of reliability (range of score)

A
  1. Content validity
  2. Criterion related validity
  3. Construct validity
    - 1.0 - 1.0
  4. Test retest
  5. Alternate / parallel forms
  6. Internal consistency
  7. Inter rater
  8. 0 - 1.0
171
Q

What are the differences between the three types of validity? (Content, criterion related, construct)

A
  1. Content- tests but it is supposed to test so a test on statistics
  2. Criterion related validity how adequately a predictor score can be used to predict a criterion score like how accurate is a score on the SAT to graduate school GPA
  3. Construct validity is how adequately it measures the hypothetical construct of fear or aggression
172
Q

Name the three types of validity and the two that are mutually exclusive

A

Content criteria three and related and construct. Content and construct are mutually exclusive

173
Q

What is convergent validity and what category does it fall under

A

Convergent validity is correlating the new test two other available measures of the same test so the test with teacher ratings of aggression they should have moderately high correlations and it falls under construct validity

174
Q

What is the divergent validity and what bigger category does a fall under?

A

It falls under construct validity. Discriminate validity is correlating the new test with scores that permit measure a different construct this correlation should be low

175
Q

What is an acceptable number for criterion related validity

A

.20

176
Q

Criterion related validity has to validities what are those

A
  1. Concurrent validity

2. Predictive validity

177
Q

What is concurrent validity and what larger category doesn’t fall under?

A

Concurrent validity falls under criterion related validity. It measures the Preidt the predictor in the criterion at about the same time like taking the PE triple P and the each of a peek within a few days

178
Q

What is predictive validity and what bigger category doesn’t Fahlander

A

Predictive validity falls under criterion related validity. This is where the predictor in the criterion are measured but with a delay between each one for example you take the SAT and then four years later you get the GPA and see the correlation

179
Q

Does the standard error of the measurement have to do with reliability or validity? Does the standard error of the estimate have to do with reliability or validity?

A

Measurement goes with reliability and estimate goes with validity

180
Q

What is the standard error of the estimate and is it related to reliability or validity?

A

The lady. The standard error of the estimate predicts how well the predictor predicts the criterion and the ranges zero to the standard deviation of the criteria

181
Q

What are the three applications of criterion related validity

A
  1. Expectancy tables
  2. Taylor Russell tables
  3. Decision-making theory
182
Q

What are expectancy tables and what kind of validity do they apply to

A

Criterion related validity expectancy tables with the probability that a person’s criterion score will fall in a specified range based on the range in which the persons predictor score fell

183
Q

Taylor Russell tables are applications of what kind of validity

A

Criterion related

184
Q

Decision-making theory is an application of what kind of validity

A

Criterion related validity

185
Q

Under decision-making theory which falls under Blank validity what can we say about applicant them fall above the predictor cut off are below the predictor cut?

A

Criterion related validity

Those that fall above the predictor cut off a classified as past as positive or passing and successful while those who score below the predictor cut off I classified as negative or failing and unsuccessful

186
Q

In creating a predictor test there are five steps that are typically taken in order to develop it

A
  1. Conceptualization
  2. Test construction
  3. Test to try out
  4. Item analysis
  5. Test revision
187
Q

What is conceptualization and what bigger category doesn’t Fahlander

A

The development of a predictor test

Conceptualization is where the test developer decides on the test subjective, administration, and overall format for example this will be a 20 item that test designed to predict sales potential

188
Q

What is test construction and what category does it fall under

A

The development of a predictor test

Test construction is whether developer decides an item format is it multiple-choice picture and false and writes the items

189
Q

What is test try out and what larger category does this fall under

A

Development of a predictor test

This is where the developer tries out all the items on the available sample

190
Q

What is item analysis and what bigger category does it fall under

A

Item analysis is where each item is analyzed in a variety of ways with the goal of deciding which items are best and should be kept

Falls under the development of predictor test

191
Q

Item analysis which falls under what bigger category has underneath it for subcategories please list

A

Item analysis falls under the video category of development of a predictor test

  1. Item difficulty
  2. Item discrimination
  3. Item validity
  4. Item characteristic curve
192
Q

What is item difficulty and what two categories does it fall under

A
  1. Development of a predictor test
  2. Criterion related validity

Item difficulty symbolized by AP, can range in value from .01 2.99. Game difficulty level is the proportion of people that got the item right for example, AP of point one event only 10% of people got it right and that it was a difficult item in general book is desirable for items to have an average difficulty of .5 with a range of .3 .8

193
Q

What is item discrimination what two categories does it fall under

A
  1. Development of a predictor test
  2. Criterion related validity

Item discrimination looks at how well a particular item discriminates between high scorers and low scorers

194
Q

What is item validity and what two categories doesn’t fall under

A
  1. Development of a predictor test
  2. Criterion related validity

Item validity is simply the correlation between item score and criterion score the higher the correlation the more valid the item is

195
Q

What is item characteristic curve and what to category doesn’t fall under

A
  1. Development of a predictor test
  2. Criterion related validity

I am characteristic curve is the plot of the relationship between item performance and total score. Item difficulty level is defined as the 50% threshold or the score at which respondents have a 50-50 chance of getting them right

196
Q

The mathematical approach involved in plotting and analyzing item correct characteristic curves is called blank or blank

A

Item response theory or latent trait theory

197
Q

What is test revision and what two categories doesn’t fall under

A

Development of a predictor test and criterion related validity

Test revision is the final step after item analysis, subtest of the test items is kept and the rest of the items are thrown out

198
Q

What is cross validation and what’s three categories does it fall under? What is it and what does it lead to?

A
  1. Test revision under
  2. Constructing a predictor test under
  3. Criterion related validity

Cross validation and is administered to a new sample in order to test out its validity and another group of people. Cost validation always results in shrinkage of the criterion related validity coefficient. Shrinkage occurs because of sample differences is the items were selected because they were the best for that specific original sample, I cannot possibly be as good for a different sample of people.

199
Q

What four factors affect criterion related validity

A
  1. Range of scores
  2. Reliability of the predictor
  3. Reliability of the predictor and criterion
  4. Criterion contamination
200
Q

What do we know about range of scores and what kind of validity does it affect

A

The range of scores affects criterion related validity. Validity is maximized by an unrestricted range of scores I’m both the predictor and the criterion. Any restriction in range will reduce criterion related validity. The range of scores is obtained related to the heterogeneity of the subjects. the more heterogeneous the subjects are in terms of the factor being assessed, the greater the range of scores will be

201
Q

The reliability of the predictor affects what kind of validity and what is it

A

It affects criterion related validity. Test cannot be valid unless there is some degree of reliability. A reliable test, however, does not imply that there will be any validity whatsoever. In other words reliability sets of feeling on validity. Validity can actually be higher than reliability. This concept is sometimes expressed in the following terms: attests correlation with another test which is validity can be higher than attests correlation with itself which is reliability.

202
Q

What do we know about the relationship between validity and reliability?

A

Reliability is used to determine the feeling for validity but validity can actually be higher than reliability.

203
Q

A tests correlation with another test is an example of blank and it can be higher than a tests correlation with itself which is an example of blank

A

Validity and reliability

204
Q

Reliability of the predictor in the criterion affects what kind of validity? And what is

A

Neither the predictor nor the criterion is perfectly reliable. This imperfect reliability creates measurement error when the predictor and criterion our quarterly. The correlation is less than what it would have been if the predictor and criterion had been perfectly reliable, or put differently, validity is attenuated by the lack of reliability.

205
Q

What is the correction for attenuation and what validity is it associated with

A

Criterion related

The correction for attenuation formula calculates how much higher validity would be if the predictor and criterion were both perfectly reliable

206
Q

What is the multi trade, multi method method matrix and what kind of validity is it associated with

A

Construct validity

It is a table with information about both convergent and divergent validity both of which are necessary for construct validity

207
Q

What is the difference between an objective and subjective test?

A

Objective test: does not rely on a rater’s judgment and has a scoring key (MMPI, EPPP)

Subjective test: involve some element of the rater’s judgement like the TAT and Roschach

208
Q

What is the difference between a normative score and an ipsative score? What kind of tests usually yield ipsative scores?

A

a normative score (t score or pecentile rank) tells us someone performed relative to others

an ipsative score provides us information on relative strengths and weaknesses of the person only does not compare it to others.

Vocational preference tests (Strong Campbell).

209
Q

What is empirical criterion keying?

A

A process for selecting items to use in a test. The items are keyed to an external criterion. They are intended to differentiate between groups who have a trait and those who do not. EG MMPI, scale 8, only items that were found to differentiate between normals and those with schizophrenia were included in the test.

210
Q

Over the years, psychologists have basically been of two camps related to the meaning of intelligence: those that agree that it is a ______, and those who believe there are _______.

A

single general ability

several distinct kinds of intelligence

211
Q

Who are the six main theorists of intelligence?

A
  1. Spearman
  2. Thurstone
  3. Catell
  4. Catell-Horn-Carroll
  5. Gardner
  6. Sternberg
212
Q

What is Spearman’s 1927 theory?

A

intelligence is a single factor, mainly the “g” factor

the most widely tests of intelligence use the “g” factor (Wechsler and Stanford-Binet)

213
Q

What is Thurstone’s 1938 theory?

A

There are seven distinct primary mental abilities:

  1. verbal comprehension
  2. word fluency
  3. numerical fluency
  4. spatial visualization
  5. associative memory
  6. perceptual speed
  7. reasoning
214
Q

What is Cattell’s theory?

A

Cattell said that the “g” factor does exist with two subtypes, namely fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence.

215
Q

What is fluid versus crystallized intelligence?

A

Fluid - partially determined by biological and genetic factors, is the capacity to acquire new knowledge, and solve new problems

Crystallized - is more about culture and education, and is knowledge and learning gained over one’s lifetime through an interaction between fluid intelligence and environment

216
Q

What is Cattell-Horn-Carroll’s theory?

A

The most empirically validated theory of human intelligence.

Three levels:
III. “g” or general intelligence

II. 10 broad cognitive abilities such as fluid reasoning, short term memory, visual processing, reading and writing

I. 70 narrow cognitive abilities

217
Q

What is Gardner’s theory of intelligence? (1986, 1996)

A

He has 8 areas and says people differ in their profile of intelligence and have relative strengths and weaknesses.

  1. linguistic
  2. logical-mathematical
  3. spatial
  4. musical
  5. bodily-kinesthetic
  6. interpersonal
  7. intrapersonal
  8. naturalistic
218
Q

What is Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence? 1985

A

Focuses on process rather than product - the process by which you used to arrive at answers to problems.

  1. internal components (those we use to acquire, store, perceive, and remember)
  2. the capacity to adapt to environmental changes
  3. the ability to apply past experience to current novel problems
219
Q

The WAIS-IV is appropriate for person from ___ to ___ years old. It has ___ core subtests and ____ supplemental subtests. It allows for the calculation of a _____, four _______, and an optional ______. IQ scores have a mean of ______, and a standard deviation of _____, subtests have a mean of _____ and a standard deviation of ____.

A 
16 - 90
10; and 5
FSIQ and four primary index scores, GAI
100, 15
10, 3
220
Q

The VCI or ______ includes subtests ____, ____, and ____ with ____ with supplemental.

A

verbal comprehension index
similarities, information, vocabulary
comprehension

221
Q

The PRI or ______ includes subtests ____, ____, and ____ with ____ and _____ with supplemental.

A

perceptual reasoning index
block design, matrix reasoning, and visual puzzles
picture completion and figure weights

222
Q

The WMI or ______ includes subtests ____, and ____ with ____ as supplemental.

A

working memory index
digit span and arithmetic
letter number sequencing

223
Q

The PSI or ______ includes subtests ____, and ____ with ____ as supplemental.

A

processing speed index
coding and symbol search
cancellation

224
Q

What is the GAI?

A

General Abilities Index is when you only use the VCI and PRI for a composite score to reduce the impact of the WMI and PSI.

225
Q

Although the WAIS-IV is based on the Wechsler four factor model, may of the subtests can be interpreted along the lines of the _____.

A

CHC or Catell-Horn-Carroll model three strata model of intelligence.

226
Q

The WISC-IV is for children aged ___ to ____. There are ____ core substests and ____ supplemental tests. The test was normed on many demographic variables such as ____(5). A ___ version is available. Allows for a full calculation of a ____, four ______, and an optional ____. The IQ score mean is ____, with a SD of ___, and subtest scores have a mean of ___ with a SD of ___.

A 
6-16
10; 5
age, sex, parent education level, region, and race/ethnicity
Spanish
FSIQ and primary index scores, GAI
100; 15
10; 3
227
Q

On the WISC-IV the VCI or ______ includes subtests ____, ____, and ____ with ____ with supplemental.

A

verbal comprehension index
similarities, vocabulary and comprehension
supplemental: information and word reasoning

228
Q

On the WISC-IV the PRI or ______ includes subtests ____(3), ____, and ____ supplemental.

A

perceptual reasoning index
block design, picture, concepts, matrix reasoning
supp: picture completion

229
Q

On the WISC-IV the WMI or ______ includes subtests ____, ____, and ____ with ____ with supplemental.

A

digit span and letter number sequencing

supp: arithmetic

230
Q

On the WISC-IV the PSI or ______ includes subtests ____, ____, and ____ with ____ with supplemental.

A

coding and symbol search

cancellation supp

231
Q

_____ abilities do NOT decrease with age, they remain intact and improve. _____ abilities peak in adolescence and decline thereafter in a steady and gradual manner.

A

Crystallized (VCI)

Fluid (PRI)

232
Q

_____ subtests tend to be more culturally loaded than the ____ subtests. And may therefore be inappropriate for those individuals of _____. The PRI would not be appropriate for those with ____.

A

culturally
a different cultural background or language
impaired motor functioning

233
Q

In terms of psychological functioning, the performance subtests are more suceptible to effects of ____ and ____. And persons with a hx of ____ or _____ have a tendency for the PRI to be lower than the VCI.

A

depression and anxiety

substance abuse, schizophrenia

234
Q

On the WAIS and WISC the BEST overall estimate of the VCI is the ____ and the BEST overall estimate of the PRI is the ____

A

vocabulary, block design

235
Q

What are the two best “hold tests” of the VCI and what does that show?

A

A “hold test” is one that holds steady and does not usually decline after brain damage or injury and are good indicators of pre-moribid intellectual functioning.

vocabulary and information

236
Q

Scores on the ___ and ___ decline more than age with ___ declining more significantly. Scores on ___ do not tend to decline and ___ decline slightly.

A

PSI and PRI
PSI more
VCI no decline
WMI decline slightly

237
Q

____% of the population have IQs between ____ and ___.

A

50%; 90 - 110

238
Q

To be diagnosed with mental retardation, IQ must be ___ or below. or ____ or more SD below the mean. A person must also demonstrate significant deficits of ____ in at least ___ areas such as ___, ___, ____). A test used to assess is the ____.

A 
70; 2 SD
adaptive functioning deficits 
TWO areas at least 
communication, self care, social/interpersonal skills
Vineland Test of Adaptive Fx
239
Q

The WISC-IV has a floor of ____ and a ceiling of ____. Whereas the Standford Binet 5 has a floor in the ____ and a ceiling of ____ thus making it the best choice in a test testing for ____ or _____.

A

40 and 160
teens and 180
MR or giftedness

240
Q

The ___ is considered to be one of the best non verbal tests of intelligence and Speaman considered it the best non verbal measure of the “g” factor. The test consists of ___. It is appropriate for ___ and ____.

A

Raven’s Progressive Matricies Test
a series of abstract patterns with one piece missing / Multiple choice
children and adults.

241
Q

A high score on the L scale indicates what?

A

a naive attempt to present himself favorably - should be in the normal range or 50.

242
Q

A high score on the F scale indicates what ?

A

high scores = psychotic processes or a tremendous degree of distress, or an attempt to appear in a negative light or a cry for help.

Scores => 100 would invalidate the profile and may be malingering

“fake bad scale”

243
Q

A high score on the K scale indicates what ? What about a low K score?

A

“fake good scale”

guardedess scale - a more sophisticated attempt to present in a positive light

A low score is someone is excessively open, has poor ego strength and tends to openly reveal his/her negative aspects.

244
Q

The _____ is used to adjust other clinical scales. the higher the person’s score on ____, the more points are added to other scales.

A

K correction

K

245
Q

What are the 10 clinical scales on the MMPI-2?

A
  1. hypochrondriases
  2. depression
  3. hysteria
  4. psychopathic deviate
  5. masculine/feminine
  6. paranoia
  7. pyschasthenia
  8. schizophrenia
  9. hypomania
  10. social introversion
246
Q

If a man scores high on on scale 5 or low, what does it mean? Same question for women.

A

Men high: have aesthetic interests and express warmth
Men low: more masculine interests
Women high: endorse male interests
Women low: passive and yielding

247
Q 
What are the following supplementary scales?
MAC-R, APS, AAS?
PK, PS
MDS
O-H
A
R
Es
Do
Re
A 
MAC-R, APS, AAS = substance abuse
PK, PS = ptsd
MDS = marital distress
O-H= over  controlled hostility
A = anxiety
R = repression
Es = ego strength
Do= dominance
Re = social responsibility
248
Q

Is the MMPI-2RF a replacement or an alternative to the MMPI-2?

A

alternative

249
Q

The MMPI-RF has —- questions and ___ validity scales, ___ high order and restructured clinical scales, ____ somatic/cognitive and internalizing scales, __ externalizing, interpersonal, and interest scales, and __ personality psychopathology scales, .

A 
338
8
12
14 somatic/cog
11 externalizing
5 psychopathology
250
Q

The MCMI-III has — questions. And answers correspond closely to —-. This test should not be used with a ____ population bc ____.

A

175
DSM-IV axis I and II disorders.
non clinical bc it exaggerates pathology

251
Q

The Rorschach has ___ ink blots.

A

10

252
Q 
Describe the following scoring dimenstions on the Rorschach.
content
location
form quality
developmental quality
A

content - clothing, science, a whole human
location - W, D, Dd or S (white space)
form quality - accuracy to wha the blot representes
developmental quality - evaluating each answer wrt its response in terms of degree of integration

253
Q

What is the R-PAS?

A

Rorschach Performance Assessment System

254
Q

The R-PAS is a significant ____ of the _____. It’s ____ oriented approach is designed to decrease _____ and alight the test with ____ and simplify ___ and ____ of data.

A 
reformulation of the Roschach
internationally
variability between examiners
evidence base
simplify procedures and presentation of data
255
Q

Neuropsychological tests measure : 5 things

A

perceptual, motor, verbal, memory and cognitive

256
Q

What do the following neuropsych tests measures?
Wechsler Memory Scale
Stroop Test
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test

A

W: memory (verbal and nonverbal)
Stroop: cognitive functioning (problem solving and cognitive flexiblity)
Bender (perceptual / motor abilities)

257
Q

What two neuropsych batters examine a patient’s neuropsych fx?

A

Halstead Reiten

Luria Nebraska

258
Q 
Achievement tests (2)
What would be indicative of a learning disorder?
A

WRAT4 and WIAT

achievement test scores lower than IQ (2 SD)

Assessment And Diagnosis (2 decks)

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