Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Barbara is a 65-year-old and recently retired. She is experiencing trouble concentrating and sometimes suffers memory loss and was referred by her physician. Barbara completed the full WAIS-IV and received a Full-Scale IQ of 110. Barbara’s Verbal Comprehension Index was 115 and her Perceptual Reasoning Index was 95. Her Working Memory was 105 and her Processing Speed Index was 85. Briefly summarise her results and suggest the best next step.

A. Barbara’s general cognitive ability, as estimated by the WAIS-IV, is in the High Average range (FSIQ Range 110 to 119). The client’s general verbal comprehension abilities were also in the High Average range (VCI Range 110 to 119). Barbara’s ability to sustain attention, concentrate, and exert mental control is in the Average range (WMI Range 90 to 109) and her ability in processing simple or routine visual material without making errors is in the Low Average range when compared to her peers (PSI Range 80 to 89). Given that Barbara scored Low Average on the PSI subscale, work with Barbara to complete WMS-IV to get a more detailed measure of her global cognitive functioning. Further investigating Barabra’s processing speed capabilities will determine the nature of strengths and deficits in memory to help explain her current inability to retain information.

B. Barbara’s general cognitive ability, as estimated by the WAIS-IV, is in the High Average range (FSIQ Range 110 to 119). The client’s general verbal comprehension abilities were in the High Average range (VCI Range 110 to 119). Barbara’s ability to sustain attention, concentrate, and exert mental control is in the Average range (WMI Range 90 to 109), and her ability in processing simple or routine visual material without making errors is in the Average range when compared to her peers (PSI Range 80 to 89). Given that Barbara performed average or higher on all scales, work with the client to develop strategies that better manage her memory loss.

C. Barbara’s general cognitive ability, as estimated by the WAIS-IV, is in the High Average range (FSIQ Range 110 to 119). The client’s general verbal comprehension abilities were in the High Average range (VCI Range 110 to 119). Barbara’s ability to sustain attention, concentrate, and exert mental control is in the Average range (WMI Range 90 to 109), and her ability in processing simple or routine visual material without making errors is in the Low Average range when compared to her peers (PSI Range 80 to 89). Given that Barbara showed strength in verbal abilities, work with the client to develop these talents.

D. Barbara’s general cognitive ability, as estimated by the WAIS-IV, is in the High Average range (FSIQ Range 110 to 119). The client’s general verbal comprehension abilities were in the High Average range (VCI Range 110 to 119). Barbara’s ability to sustain attention, concentrate, and exert mental control is in the High Average range (WMI Range 90 to 109), and her ability in processing simple or routine visual material without making errors is in the High Average range when compared to her peers (PSI Range 80 to 89). Given that Barbara performed in the High Average across all scales, work with the client to develop a gifted and talented program for her retirement.

E. Barbara’s WAIS-IV results are inconclusive, and the WMS-IV should be administered.

A

A. is the most appropriate response. The WASI-IV indicate further investigation is required before you can confirm the nature of Barbara’s memory capabilities. Administering the WMS-IV can provide a comprehensive clinical assessment of the client’s memory functioning. Further investigating Barbara’s processing speed capabilities will help to determine the nature of strengths and deficits in memory to help explain her current inability to retain information.

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2
Q

Nathan is a 13-year-old boy, referred for an assessment of his intellectual functioning following concerns of school staff and parents about his low achievement levels that have become more of an issue in his first year of high school. Results of testing using the WISC-IV show Full-Scale IQ in the Very Low Range, with all Index scores within this range. From this information, you can conclude.

A. Nathan has an intellectual disability, unfortunately not identified during his primary school years.

B. Nathan does not have an intellectual disability, as 13 is too late to make this diagnosis.

C. Nathan may have an intellectual disability, but further assessment of academic achievement is needed.

D. Nathan may have an intellectual disability, but further assessment of adaptive behaviour is needed.

E. Nathan has an intellectual disability, and a treatment plan should be drawn up to support him.

A

D. is the most appropriate response. The results are consistent with a diagnosis of intellectual disability, but adaptive behaviour also needs to be assessed.

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3
Q

At you request, your client Lucy has completed the Sixteen Personality Factors Questionnaire (16PF). As you generate Lucy’s personality profile, you discover that Lucy falls at the 92nd percentile for Impression Management. What would be the most appropriate way to proceed.

A. Re-administer the 16PF to Lucy.

B. Re-test Lucy only on the Impression Management scale of the 16PF.

C. Ask Lucy to complete another measure of personality.

D. Finalise Lucy’s personality profile as her Impression Management Index would not be considered problematic.

E. Finalise Lucy’s personality profile even though her Impression Management Index would be considered problematic, indicating that her primary factor scores are inaccurate.

A

D. is the most appropriate response. Her Impression Management score does not fall within the ranges considered as potentially problematic (i.e., below the 5th percentile or above the 95th percentile).

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4
Q

Mary is a 10-year-old girl who was referred to you for academic difficulties at school. You administered a WISC-V, and her mother completed the ABAS-3 Parent Form. Mary’s WISC-V Full-Scale IQ (FSIQ) score of 88 falls within the Below Average and her ABAS-3 General Adaptive Composite (GAC) score of 71 falls within the Borderline range.
What would be the next step?

A. Given that her GAC score indicates that Mary’s overall adaptive behaviour is below that of most other children her age, recommend that her school implement a tailored individual support plan for Mary.

B. Recommend that Mary engage in ongoing supportive counselling with a focus on building her adaptive functioning skills and conduct a second ABAS-3 assessment in 6 months.

C. Review Mary’s performance within the Communication, Functional Academics, and Self-Direction skills areas to obtain a more detailed understanding of her unique profile of adaptive functioning and relative strengths and weaknesses. This will pinpoint areas for which Mary may need the most help and inform recommendations for an appropriate intervention stragey.

D. Conclude that Mary’s intellectual functioning is negatively impacting her adaptive behaviour and recommend interventions aimed at improving her cognitive abilities.

E. Request that Mary’s parents arrange a paediatric assessment to rule out medical factors which may account for her academic difficulties.

A

C. is the most appropriate response. Whilst the GAC provides an estimate of overall adaptive functioning, an examination of the client’s functioning within each of the skill areas highlights relative strengths and weaknesses, which then can inform appropriate recommendations for interventions.

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5
Q

17-year-old Tina is referred to you after concern over increasing conflict with her parents. Recently, she has been irritable, not sleeping well, and truant from school. You administer the Beck Depression Inventory, Second Edition (BDI-II) as part of the clinical assessment. Tina’s responses indicate an overall score for depression in the clinical range.
What is the most appropriate conclusion?

A. Tina meets the criteria for Major Depressive Disorder.

B. Tina’s difficulties are most likely rational.

C. Tina’s results are consistent with, but not sufficient to diagnose, a depressive disorder.

D. Tina requires medication for depression.

E. Tina’s responses should be viewed with caution as the BSDI-II is not appropriate for use with adolescents.

A

C. is the most appropriate response. Scoring in the clinical range of the BDI-II is consistent with depression, but best practice dictates further collateral be collected from multiple informants across a number of settings (as possible) to inform diagnosis.

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6
Q

A 7-year-old child is referred to you by her GP for treatment of anxiety. Her mother completes the Child Behaviour Checklist, and her teacher completes the Teacher Report Form. Her mother’s responses place the child’s scores on the three Internalising Behaviours scales in the clinical range. However, her teacher’s responses do not indicate any scores are in the clinical range. This means:

A. The child does not have difficulties with anxiety as the teacher has not noticed any issues.

B. The child is likely to have difficulties with anxiety across all situations, but as the items teachers respond to are different to the parents items, the Teacher Report Form just hasn’t asked the right questions to pick up anxiety in the school context.

C. The child is likely to have difficulties with separation anxiety when she is separating from her mother, but once she gets to her classroom, she is no longer anxious.

D. The child is likely to have difficulties with anxiety that her mother notices, but that is not evident to a teacher in the school setting.

E. It is uncertain whether the child has anxiety issues, and further testing is required to provide a comprehensive assessment.

A

D. is the most appropriate answer. The clinical range on either parent or teacher report forms indicates clinically significant anxiety in at least one context. Behaviour is often similar across contexts but sometimes it can be quite different.

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7
Q

Which of the following provides the best description of the potential use of the Depression Anxiety and Stress Scales (DASS) and its shorter form the DASS-21?

A. The DASS and DASS-21 are excellent diagnostic tools that can assess the severity of Depression, Anxiety, and Stress-related disorders with great precision.

B. Given that the DASS and DASS-21 have been validated in Australia, they would be valid for use among Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples.

C. The DASS and DASS-21 have been validated in Australia and may give a practitioner valuable information about the levels of distress in a client.

D. The DASS and DASS-21 can be used with children as young as 7 years of age.

E. All of the above.

A

C. is the most appropriate response. The DASS and DASS-21 are reliable and valid measures of depression, anxiety, and stress that have been standardised in Australian and Western populations.

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8
Q

In the process of completing an assessment of diagnosis for a 16-year-old client, the referring clinician has requested that you provide a GAF (Global Assessment of Functioning) score in your report to the referring agency. What is the most appropriate action/response?

A. Complete the GAF and include the score alongside other standardised scales and assessed risk (i.e., suicidality from the Core-10 and interview).

B. Complete the GAF clinician-assessed rating as per instructions and report within DSM-IV-TR multiaxial structure.

C. Provide the GAF to the client to self-rate, as it is an easy to read visual rating.

D. Complete the GAF working from the lowest interval range up, to avoid overestimating the client’s global functioning.

E. Politely decline and use the WHODAS 2.0 instead as the functioning and risk assessment measure.

A

A. is the most appropriate response. Providing a GAF score can be useful in communicating a summary of function domains. However, this should be provided within the context of other standardised scales and assessment to cover the areas of functioning and risk.

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9
Q

A psychologist administered the KAIT (Kaufman Adolescent and Adult Intelligence Test) to identify the cognitive strengths and weaknesses of Katie, who is 17-years-old. She administers the core battery of the KAIT comprising of six subtests and generates the three Intelligence Quotients (Crystallised, Fluid, and Composite). Which subtests are used to compute the Crystallised Intelligence Quotient?

A. Logical Steps, Mystery Codes, and Rebus Learning.

B. Auditory Comprehensions, Definitions, and Double Meanings.

C. Rebus Delayed Recall and Auditory Delayed Recall.

D. Memory for Block Designs and Famous Faces.

E. The Mental Status subtest is a short form of crystallised intelligence.

A

B. is correct. The three crystallised subtests (Auditory Comprehension, Definitions, and Double Meanings) measure an individual’s vocabulary, factual knowledge, listening comprehension, and ability to solve word problems.

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10
Q

A GP has referred a 40-year-old female client under a Mental Health Care Plan. Her first language is Italian, and she has resided in Australia for 20 years. The client completed the K10 (Kessler Psychological Distress Scale) in English and obtained a score of 41. According to the Mental Health Care Plan, the GP has diagnosed an anxiety disorder.
What is an appropriate interpretation of the K10 score?

A. The client is likely to have a substance use disorder.

B. The K10 score is not valid because English is not the client’s first language.

C. The client is likely to have a mental disorder.

D. The client probably has an affective disorder because this is more likely than an anxiety disorder in this score range.

E. The test score suggests that the client is not experiencing psychological distress.

A

C. is the most appropriate response. The prevalence of affective and anxiety disorders for this score band in an Australian sample was high, so it is likely that the client could be diagnosed with a mental disorder. A follow-up clinical interview should be used to confirm or disconfirm diagnosis.

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11
Q

Charlie is 12 years old and his parents bring him to see the psychologist because they are unable to cope with his serious violations of home rules. He sneaks out at night without parental permission, and he has run away from home at least twice in the past 6 months. He doesn’t want to go to school and feels no guilt or remorse for his actions. What would be the most appropriate diagnosis?

A. Adjustment Disorder.

B. Antisocial Personality Disorder.

C. Attention-deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder.

D. Autism Spectrum Disorder.

E. Conduct Disorder.

A

E. is the most appropriate response. Conduct disorder is a repeated pattern of persistent behaviour that is characterised by a disregard for the rights of others or major violation of age-appropriate social rules and norms. At least three symptoms must have been present in the past 12 months, with at least one occurring in the past 6 months. Charlie’s behaviour shows a serious violation of rules, including staying out at night against his parents’ rules before age 13, running away from home at least twice, and often skipping school prior to age 13.

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12
Q

Simone had her first panic attack 1 year ago. She was at a dress rehearsal and about to perform on stage when, suddenly, she felt an intense wave of fear. The stage started spinning and she felt like she was going to throw up. Her whole body started shaking, she found it difficult to breathe, and her heart was thumping out of her chest. She sat down on the stage until the episode passed, but ut left her feeling number and deeply shaken. Simone has been unable to perform on stage since this first episode. Simone had another panick attack 1 month later, and since then, they’ve been occuring reguarly, almost monthly. She’s afraid to go out in public becasue she doesn’t know when she’ll next suffer a panic attack. She refuses to perform again, and her friends and family are concerned for her well-being. The psychologist has diagnosed Simone with panic disorder. Which of the following statements does not support this diagnosis?

A. Simone experiences frequently, unexpected panic attacks.

B. Simone has had at least one attack followed by at least 1 month of worry about additional panic attacks.

C. Simone does not go out in public to avoid future panic attacks.

D. Simone is unsure why she experienced stage fright and began taking medication to help control the intense fear she experiences when on stage.

E. None of the above.

A

D. does not support the diagnosis of a panic disorder. It is important to determine the history of her medication and whether or not the panic can be attributed to the effects of drugs and/or another medical condition.

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13
Q

Diagnosing an individual with a mental disorder involves identifying the presenting symptoms and/or characteristics of behaviour in the client and ruling out other mental health disorders and determining that symptoms aren’t due to another explanation. The diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia do not include which of the following?

A. Presenting with one or more positive symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, or disorganised speech) along with disorganised or catatonic behaviour and/or negative symptoms (e.g., reduced emotional expression) that have been present a significant amount of time during a 1-month period (unless successfully treated).

B. Showing lower-than-previous levels of functioning in one or more areas for a significant portion of the time since onset of the behaviour.

C. Presenting with signs the disturbance has persisted for at least 6 months.

D. Showing a significant decrease in the ability to work, attend school, or perform normal daily tasks most of the time.

E. Ruling out that the disturbance was not due to substances, medication or a medical condition.

A

D. is correct. Although people with schizophrenia might show significant decrease in the ability to work, attend school, or perform normal daily tasks, most of the time, this is not the central feature of the clinical diagnosis.

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14
Q

In order to assist you in diagnosing and deciding what the most suitable treatment for your client is, you have administered the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2).
Which of the following statements regarding your administration of the MMPI-2 is the most correct?

A. Administering the MMPI-2 to assist in diagnosing and selecting appropriate treatments is appropriate.

B. Administering the MMPI-2 to assist in diagnosing and selecting appropriate treatments is appropriate for personality disorder.

C. It was inappropriate to administer the MMPI-2 for these reasons as the MMPI-2 should only be utilised to assist in making the diagnosis, not for informing the appropriate treatment method.

D. It is inappropriate to administer the MMPI-2 for these reasons as the MMPI-2 should only be utilised to assist in informing the appropriate treatment method, not making the diagnosis.

E. inappropriate to administer the MMPI-2 for these reasons as the MMPI-2 does not measure psychopathology.

A

A. is the most appropriate answer. The MMPI-2 is typically used to assist with the diagnosis and the selection of treatments.

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15
Q

Your client John has recently completed the Revised NEO Personality Inventory (NEO PI-R) and has received average scores for each of the domains, excluding Neuroticism. For this domain, John received a score which was classified as very high. As a result, which of the following statements would be most accurate?

A. John’s very high classification on the Neuroticism domain indicates the presence of a diagnosable psychopathology.

B. John’s very high classification on the Neuroticism scale indicates the presence of an anxiety and/or depressive disorder; however, a diagnosis cannot be made unless each facet score is examined.

C. The NEO PI-R is not a measure of psychopathology or a diagnostic tool, and therefore it would not be used in a clinical setting.

D. The NEO PI-R is not a measure of psychopathology or a diagnostic tool, and therefore it would be inappropriate to conclude the presence of psychopathology based on his score.

E. Results on the NEO PI-R cannot be interpreted unless a person who is well acquainted with John completes the Rater (R) Form.

A

D. This statement is the most accurate as the NEO PI-R is not a measure of psychopathology or a diagnostic tool and therefore it would be inappropriate to conclude the presence on psychopathology based on his score.

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16
Q

The Outcome Rating Scale (ORS) completed at the beginning of eighth session by your client, indicates an overall well-being score of 38, which is consistent with scores from the previous two sessions (34 and 37 respectively), This indicates that:

A. The therapeutic relationship is contributing to positive outcomes for the client.

B. Your client is experiencing sustained improvement in his overall well-being over the course of therapy. The client and therapist might begin to discuss treatment termination and relapse prevention.

C. The specific psychological intervention employed by the psychologist is proving to be effective.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

A

B. is the most appropriate response. The correct application of the ORS is for the clients to complete at the beginning of each session, and then for the psychologist to score and interpret findings, and discuss the client’s progress together to monitor treatment progress. Higher overall scores (CB: maximum score is 40) are indications of high levels of well-being and decreases in distress, and that treatment is assisting the client’s recovery. Sustained high scores on the ORS may suggest that termination of treatment and relapse prevention planning may be appropriate.

17
Q

An adult client has completed the PAI, prior to your interview with him. The most elevated scores on his profile are Negative Impression (NIM) at 90T and schizophrenic disorders (SCZ) at 80T. Most other scales are around the mean of 50T and Treatment Rejection (RXR) has a score of 20T.
What would be the most appropriate interpretation? What would be the most appropriate next step?

A. The client has schizophrenia. Consider referral to a psychiatrist for assessment and treatment of psychosis.

B. The client is malingering and unwilling to engage in treatment. Do not assess the client further.

C. The client most likely has schizophrenia and is unwilling to engage in treatment. Refer the client for psychiatric assessment and pharmacological treatment.

D. The client is very willing to engage in treatment, although probably exhibiting schizophrenia and low self-esteem. Consider engaging the client got psychological therapy.

E. The client may be exaggerating symptoms. Conduct clinical assessment and score supplementary PAI scales.

A

E. is the most appropriate response. The NIM scale score suggests exaggeration of symptoms. Possible explanations for this elevated score should be considered, including malingering or another possibility such as borderline personality. Clinical interview should be conducted to assess evidence for psychotic and other symptoms.

18
Q

Yan was feeling down and lethargic. Her psychologist was concerned for her welfare and recommended she complete the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) for Depression. She scored 19 on the total scale and indicated that she had lost interest or pleasure in doing things nearly every day over the past 2 weeks. She rated herself a 1 on Item 9 (thoughts better off dead or hurting yourself).
what would be the most appropriate next step?

A. Yan’s score of 19 on the PHQ-9 gives a diagnosis of mild depression and suggests she may not need treatment for depression.

B. Yan’s score of 19 on the PHQ-9 gives a diagnosis of moderate depression and suggests that the psychologist should use her clinical judgement about treatment, based on the patient’s duration of symptoms and functional impairment.

C. Yan’s score of 19 on the PHQ-19 gives a diagnosis of moderately severe depression and suggests that the psychologist should begin treating for depression straight away. The treatment should involve a combination of antidepressants and psychotherapy.

D. Yan’s score of 19 on the PHQ-9 gives a diagnosis of severe depression and warrants immediate action by the psychologist because she gave a positive response to Item 9 indicating high risk of self-harm.

E. Yan’s score of 19 on the PHQ-9 is unreliable and the test should be readministered within 24 hours to determine the severity of her depression and risk of self-harm.

A

C. is the most appropriate response. A total score on the PHQ-9 indicates moderately severe depression. Additionally, she indicated she had lost interest or pleasure in doing things nearly every day over the past 2 weeks and provided a positive response to Item 9 (thoughts better off dead or hurting yourself). This demands an immediate response bu the clinician. The psychologist should conduct a clinical interview to determine actual risk of self-harm and begin a treatment of antidepressants and psychotherapy.

19
Q

Your 16-year-old client is in her final year of secondary school and is trying to decide on a career. She intends to go to university. Her grades have consistently been in the top 2% of her year level. Her parents want her to study medicine, but she is considering acting, music therapy, and primary school teaching. She is a talented musician, having just received an A on her AMEB Piano Grade 7 exam. Her three-letter Holland code from the Seld Directed Search (SDS) is ASI, with scores in the 93rd, 89th, and 76th percentiles, respectively for Artistic, Social, and Investigative.
What would be the appropriate next step?

A. Assist your client to interpret her SDS results and explore occupations matching her ASI code.

B. Assist your client to interpret her SDS results, use the SDS Occupation Finder to identify occupations aligned with each combination of her ASI code (e.g., ASI, SIA, ISA, AIS), and assist your client to gather more information about occupations that hold the strongest interest for her, taking into consideration other important influences on her career decision-making (e.g., her parents, costs, course duration, and job prospects).

C. Help your client to choose an occupation that fits with her interests in the Investigative category because that will most likely align more closely with what her parents would like her to do.

D. Administer an achievement test to assess whether your client is likely to succeed at university.

E. Administer further interest tests to help narrow her career choice.

A

B. is the most appropriate response. This is the most appropriate next step because the SDS Occupations Finder will provide a range of different career options based on different combinations of the client’s code, some of which the client may not have considered. Various other influencing factors should also be taken into account before the client makes a decision about her future career direction.

20
Q

Test-retest reliability coefficients for the A-Trait of the STAI are ______, indicating _______ stability when compared to the test-retest reliability coefficients of the A-State Scale.

A. Higher, more.

B. Higher, less.

C. Lower, more.

D. Lower, less.

E. None of the above.

A

A. is the correct answer. Across personality psychology, trait-based constructs tend towards higher reliability, and the higher reliability indicates higher stability of the construct.

21
Q

Andrew is a gifted child. From an early age of 3 years, he was able to reason abstractly, think metaphorically, and he showed insight on social and moral issues. He is now about to enter high school, and his parents want to strengthen his cognitive talents through a specific gifted and talented program. The psychologist decides to administer the SB5 (Standford-Binet 5) to inform intervention options. Which of the following is not one of the main benefits of administering the SB5 over other intelligence tests?

A. The FSIQ obtained from the SB5 measures the general ability to reason, solve problems, and adapt to the environment. It reflects five major facets of intelligence, including reasoning, stored information, memory, visualisation, and the ability to solve novel problems.

B. The SB5 is appealing and engaging to gifted children.

C. Clinicians who administer the SB5 can make their own judgements when scoring and interpreting the results of a gifted child.

D. The SB5 has continued the Binet tradition of being largely untimed.

E. The SB5 provides a quick and easy measure of intelligence, especially if the ABIQ is administered to the gifted child, taking less than 20 minutes to complete.

A

E. is incorrect. Most intelligence tests take about 1 hour to administer, on average. The ABIQ wouldn’t be administered to a gifted child because the clinician needs to remain flexible for new situations and select those tasks that best measure the abilities of the specific gifted child on the day. The results of the FSIQ can then inform an intervention program that best supports the gifted child’s cognitive, social, and emotional needs.

22
Q

You have assessed a 10-year-old boy. He lives with his urban Aboriginal family, and his mother has completed the Strengths and Difficulties Questionnaire. The scores indicate emotional and behavioural problems on the peer problems and conduct problems scales. From your reading on the validity of the SDQ (Strengths and Difficulties Questionnaire) with urban Aboriginal children, you conclude that:

A. This boy is likely to be experiencing a broad range of emotional and behavioural problems.

B. The SDQ is not valid with urban Aboriginal children and should not have been administered.

C. This boy is likely to be experiencing clinically significant conduct problems, but the peer problems scale needs to be interpreted with caution as family relationships are considered a more important indicator of mental health than peer relations.

D. The most significant problem for this boy is likely to be peer relationships. Friendship is a key area contributing to mental health in Aboriginal children.

E. The boy has major behavioural problems, and the next steps should include working closely with the boy to better support him.

A

C. is the most appropriate answer. Research with urban Aboriginal families suggests that the peer problems scale is not likely to be a good indicator of emotional and behavioural problems for the parent completed SDQ, as family relationships are more central to mental health functioning.

23
Q

You have been seeing a 45-year-old man who has worked as a builder for 23 years. He sustained a severe back injury from a site accident 2 years ago and has been on a disability support pension since that time. He is looking for a career change and wants to explore his options. He is considering teaching, social work, and graphic design. His highest SII (Strong Interest Inventory) scores for the General Occupational Themes (GOTs) were for Social, Investigative, and Realistic, and his highest Basic Interest Scale scores were Teaching and Education, Mathematics, and Mechanics and Construction. His Personal Style Scale (PSS) scores demonstrated clear preferences for working with people and learning in a practical setting.
What would be the next appropriate step?

A. Encourage your client to use his extensive knowledge of building to pursue a career as a building inspector.

B. Provide the client with a list of all the social, Investigative, and Realistic occupations to choose from.

C. Help the client to select an appropriate university degree program.

D. Work with the client to understand his SII scores, identify other significant influences on his career choice and decision-making, and to research occupations that align with his interests, with due consideration to the other important influencing factors identified by the client.

E. Help the client select an appropriate career that doesn’t involve university studies.

A

D. is the most appropriate response. It is important to ensure that the client understands what his scores mean and to identify other important influences. Career interests are typically not the only consideration when making career decisions.

24
Q

A psychologist draws a random sample of 50 clients from a population list of 500 current clients of your health clinic. The psychologist then randomly assigns 25 of these clients to get some new additional treatment and the other 25 to be controls. ________ has implications for internal validity and ________ has implications for external validity.

A. Causality, generalisability.

B. Random selection. random assignment.

C. Random assignment, random selection.

D. Reliability, representative sample.

E. Representative sample, cultural bias.

A

C. is the appropriate response. Random assignment is relelvant to internal validity becasue it looks at the design of your research and the equivalence of expeiremental groups prior to treatment on measured and unmeasured covariates. Random selection is relevant to external validity ecasue a representative sample strengthens generalisability of findings to the population of interest.

25
Q

A 30-year-old woman was referred by her GP due to anxiety and difficulties at her work, but has trouble getting to sessions. After interview and screening tests, you decide to administer the WASI-II due to time constraints, which takes 30 minutes. Her results indicate a FSIQ-2 of 147.
What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Write to GP and her workplace, with her permission, outlining her high IQ and need for greater stimulation in her role.

B. Write an assessment report including FSIQ-2 results with recommendations for her workplace amd complete a WIAT-III to test her level of achievement.

C. Complete an assessment report including the FSIQ-4 results, percentile, and Strengths and Weaknesses and recommendations for therapy with an anxious, low-functioning client.

D. Conduct the remaining test items in the WAIS-IV to get a more comprehensive assessment of her cognitive ability.

E. Administer the full WAIS-IV to her so that you have a more comprehensive stand-alone measure of her IQ.

A

D. is the most appropriate response. The WASi-II provides an estimate of cognitive capacity only and a more comprehensive picture from the WAIS-IV of her strengths, and weaknesses, may be used to further inform GP and workplace support recommendations if required as wanted by the client, and assist with therapeutic intervention planning. As the WASI-II subtests may be used to substitute the corresponding WAIS-IV subtests, only those wt\ich do not correspond with the WASI-II need to be administered.

26
Q

As a psychologist in rural practice, you are referred a client who reports problems with forgetfulness. Before referring on to clinical neuropsychologist in the city you elect to conduct an initial screening assessment. Your best option is to administer:

A. The full Wechsler Memory Scale - Fourth Edition (WMS-IV).

B. Those WMS-IV subtests that appear most relevant to the client’s concerns.

C. A brief memory battery like the WMS-IV Brief Cognitive Status Exam.

D. A standardised self-report questionnaire concerning memory functioning.

E. The full WAIS-IV to get an indication of overall intellectual capability, including working memory capacity.

A

C. is the most appropriate response. For screening purposes, the WMS-IV Brief Cognitive Status Exam (BCSE) or other brief neuropsychological batteries like the RBANS are appropriate.

27
Q

You were referred a 4-year-old girl for assessment of her intellectual functioning. Childcare staff have suggested to her parents that she may be gifted. You assess her using the WPPSI-IV. Her scores on all Index scores are in the Average and High Average range for her age her FSIQ is in the Average range. Her parents are disappointed by these results and take her to another psychologist, who repeats the WPPSI-IV 2 weeks later not having been told about your assessment. The new report shows the girl’s abilities are higher on all scales with her FSIQ in the High Average range. What is the most likely explanation for these higher scores?

A. The child may have been more comfortable with the second psychologist.

B. The test is not reliable in 4-year-olds and so a problem with test-retest reliability is the most likely explanation.

C. The child likely performed better due to a practice effect.

D. The child is likely to have benefited from coaching from her parents after reading your report that described the abilities the test assesses.

E. The child has an exceptional memory.

A

C. is most appropriate response. Children score higher on this test when it is re-administered within a short period of time. The second assessment is not likely to be valid as a result.

28
Q

You are designing a research project that includes an assessment of memory functioning as part of a battery of cognitive tests in 16-year-old participants. You choose the WRAML because:

A. It has a Screening Memory Index that enables a brief but reliable assessment of memory.

B. It has subtests that assess memory recognition that have excellent reliability.

C. It has recent Australian norms.

D. A and C.

E. A and B.

A

A. is the most appropriate response. The index scores have strong reliability, and the Screening Index can be administered to screen for memory problems.

29
Q

Tenzin is a 16-year-old male who was referred to you for the assessment of potential Dyslexia due to difficulties in writing. You administered a WISC-V to Tenzin to first assess his intellectual functioning and found that his FSIQ score of 103 fell within the Average range. You then administered the WIAT-II to assess his academic achievement abilities. During assessment, you noticed that Tenzin appeared distracted and unmotivated. Tenzin’s WIAT=II Written Language composite score fell within the borderline range.
What can be concluded from these results?

A. Tenzin’s FSIQ indicates that he cannot be diagnosed with a Learning Disorder regardless of an low scores in the WIAT-II as his intellectual ability is within the Average range.

B. Tenzin warrants a diagnosis of “Specific Learning Disorder with impairment in written language” (also referred to as Dyslexia).

C. Written language may be an areas of difficulty or weakness for Tenzin, and he may require additional assistance at school to accommodate his written skills.

D. Tenzin does not require additional assistance at school to help address any written difficulties as it is likely that his Written Language score was a reflection of boredom and/or lack of motivation rather than difficulty in writing skills.

E. The results are inconclusive as Tenzin was not focused on the tasks and further investigation is required

A

C. is the most appropriate response. When interpreting assessment scores, examiners are able to male informed hypotheses regarding the examinee’s performance. While this statement may not be true for Tenzin, it is an appropriate hypothesis to make and should be considered in the context pf all other relevant information. Recommendations for increased educational services at school may also be ideal if Tenzi nwarrants a diagnosis of Dyslexia. Examiners must make recommendations with careful consideration of the information attained.

30
Q

A school psychologist administered the Woodcock-Johnson Test to identify the cognitive strengths and weaknesses of Ben, who has just commenced high school and is 12 years old. Which of the following statements is false?

A. The Woodcock-Johnson III Tests of Cognitive Abilities were developed based on the theories of Raymond B. Cattell, John Horn, and John B. Carroll.

B. The Woodcock-Johnson III Tests measure cognitive abilities in participants aged from 2 years to late adulthood (over 90 years).

C. An overall General Intellectual Ability (GIA) score is formed by scores on 7 of the 10 tests: Verbal Comprehension, VIsual-Auditory Learning, Spatial Relations, Sound Blending, Concept Formation, Visual Matching, and Numbers Reversed.

D. A relative Profile Index (RPI) is a criterion-referenced measure of the relative ease or difficulty an individual is likely to encounter with age-level tasks.

E. There are no Australian norms available for the Woodcock-Johnson Test.

A

E. is false and therefore the correct answer. An Australian normative study comprising a sample of 1396 was completed in 2009. An Australian Adaptation of the the Woodcock-Johnson III Tests includes these norms and was released by Psychological Assessments Australia in 2009.