Assess Eval Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which step in the assessment process involves identifying the specific need for evaluation?

a) Step 1: Determine the need for a specific assessment

b) Step 2: Locate the assessments that address the specific need(s)

c) Step 3: Analyze and compare similar assessments

d) Step 4: Implement the chosen assessment

A

Answer: a) Step 1: Determine the need for a specific assessment

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2
Q

What is the next step in the assessment process after identifying the need for evaluation?

a) Determine the need for a specific assessment

b) Locate the assessments that address the specific need(s)

c) Analyze and compare similar assessments
d) Implement the chosen assessment

A

Answer: b) Locate the assessments that address the specific need(s)

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3
Q

After locating assessments that address the specific need, what is the subsequent step in the assessment process?

a) Determine the need for a specific assessment

b) Locate the assessments that address the specific need(s)

c) Analyze and compare similar assessments
d) Implement the chosen assessment

A

Answer: c) Analyze and compare similar assessments

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4
Q

What should therapists be aware of when selecting assessments for research purposes?
a) The availability of assessments in multiple languages
b) The importance of obtaining approval for research protocols
c) The variety of assessment formats available
d) The legal concerns related to assessment administration

A

Answer: b) The importance of obtaining approval for research protocols

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5
Q

Which factor should be taken into account regarding the format of assessments?
a) The cost of the assessments
b) The popularity of the assessments among therapists
c) Whether the assessments are standardized or non-standardized
d) Whether the assessments are computerized or paper-based

A

Answer: d) Whether the assessments are computerized or paper-based

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6
Q

“Which of the following considerations is crucial when evaluating a Medicare patient? (select all that apply)

A. Understand what the facility wants to see when treating a medicare patient
B. Ensuring the physician’s signature upon completion of care.
C. Providing skilled services aimed at enhancing functionality.

A

All of the above

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7
Q

When evaluating a patient, which aspect of demographics should an occupational therapist consider?

A. Discharge setting(s).
B. Sound and privacy of the evaluation space.
C. Age, educational level, and diagnosis.

A

Answer: C.
Age, educational level, and diagnosis.

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8
Q

Why is it important for an occupational therapist to review the evidence and psychometric properties of an assessment tool?

A. To ensure the assessment is calibrated.
B. To confirm the assessment’s validity and reliability.
C. To consider the discharge setting(s) for the patient.

A

Answer: B. To confirm the assessment’s validity and reliability.

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9
Q

Which factors should an occupational therapist consider when conducting an evaluation for a patient?

A. Demographics such as age, educational level, and diagnosis.
B. Availability of assessment space, sound, and privacy.
C. Evidence and psychometric properties of the assessment, including validity and reliability.

A

Answer: All of the above.

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10
Q

What aspect of therapist competence should be considered when administering assessments?

A. Experience and maintain professional development.
B. Time management.
C. Format of assessments.

A

Answer: A. Experience and maintain professional development.

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11
Q

What is a key consideration when choosing between standardized and non-standardized assessments?

A. Time management during assessment procedures.
B. Adherence to exact instructions and set-up if you are comparing them to the norms in the manual. Administration and scoring are key.
C. Maintaining professional development.

A

Answer: B. Adherence to exact instructions and set-up if you are comparing them to the norms in the manual. Administration and scoring are key.

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12
Q

Why is it important for therapists to be mindful of legal concerns regarding assessments?

A. To ensure timely initiation of evaluations.
B. To maintain competence in assessment administration.
C. To address potential legal issues and serve as expert witnesses if necessary.

A

Answer: C. To address potential legal issues and serve as expert witnesses if necessary

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13
Q

What factors is crucial in determining the time required for assessment procedures? (Select all that apply)

A. Receipt of referral to initiation of eval.
B. Time for set up, administering and clean up of assessments.
C. Time for interpretation and documentation.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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14
Q

Which of the following recommendations is essential for improving the reliability and validity of hand strength evaluations?
A. Using different test instruments for pre- and post-testing.
B. Comparing scores to arbitrary norms.
C. Following standardized positioning and instructions.
D. Conducting only one trial for each evaluation.

A

Answer: C. Following standardized positioning and instructions.

Reason: To improve the reliability and validity of hand strength
evaluations the following recommendations are made: (1)
Standardized positioning and instruction should be followed;
(2) the average of three trials should be used. (3) the
dynamometer and pinch gauge described should be used for
data collection; (4) scores obtained should be compared to the
appropriate age and sex categories for interpretation; (5) the
calibration of the dynamometer and pinch gauges should be
checked regularly; (6) the same test instrument should be used
for pre- and post-testing

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of standardized tests?
A. Screening.
B. Documenting developmental status.
C. Providing medical treatment.

A

Answer: C. Providing medical treatment.

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16
Q

What is one purpose of standardized tests?
A. To determine a child’s developmental, functional, and participation status.
B. To conduct medical interventions.
C. To document a child’s academic achievements.

A

Answer: A. To determine a child’s developmental, functional, and participation status.

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17
Q

What factors are essential in determining which assessment tool to use?
A. Therapist preference, time, and expense.
B. Reason for referral, eligibility concerns, and developmental appropriateness.
C. Educational relevance, professional training, and linked intervention.

A

Answer: B. Reason for referral, eligibility concerns, and developmental appropriateness.

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18
Q

Which type of assessment focuses on comparing an individual’s performance to a predetermined standard or norm?

A. Norm-Referenced Measures
B. Curriculum-Based Tools
C. Performance Assessment

A

Answer: A. Norm-Referenced Measures

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19
Q

What is an advantage of standardized testing?
A. Provides a comprehensive understanding of daily functioning.
B. Offers a brief “snapshot” of functioning.
C. Well-known and commercially available.

A

Answer: C. Well-known and commercially available.

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20
Q

Which disadvantage is associated with standardized testing?
A. It provides a comprehensive understanding of daily functioning.
B. It cannot be a stand-alone measure.
C. It offers an accurate interpretation of daily functioning.

A

Answer:
B. It cannot be a stand-alone measure.

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21
Q

What limitation is often attributed to standardized testing?
A. It monitors developmental progress effectively.
B. It provides a comprehensive overview of daily functioning.
C. Test situations are artificial and not a totally accurate interpretation of daily functioning.

A

Answer: C. Test situations are artificial and not a totally accurate interpretation of daily functioning.

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22
Q

Which statement accurately describes the role of standardized tests in occupational therapy?
A. Standardized tests only aid in determining medical diagnoses.
B. Standardized tests assist in the determination of medical or educational diagnoses, aid in intervention planning, and measure program outcomes.
C. Standardized tests primarily focus on documenting a child’s developmental progress.

A

Answer: B. Standardized tests assist in the determination of medical or educational diagnoses, aid in intervention planning, and measure program outcomes.

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23
Q

What is the primary purpose of criterion-referenced assessments?

A. To compare a child’s performance with their peers.
B. To determine what skills a child can or cannot accomplish.
C. To standardize administration and scoring.

A

Answer: B. To determine what skills a child can or cannot accomplish.

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24
Q

How does criterion-referenced testing differ from norm-referenced testing?

A. Criterion-referenced testing compares performance with a particular criterion, while norm-referenced testing compares performance with peers.

B. Criterion-referenced testing compares performance with peers, while norm-referenced testing determines what skills a child can or cannot accomplish.
C. Criterion-referenced testing focuses on standardized administration and scoring, while norm-referenced testing does not.

A

Answer: A. Criterion-referenced testing compares performance with a particular criterion, while norm-referenced testing compares performance with peers.

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25
Q

Are all criterion-referenced assessments standardized in administration and scoring?

A. Yes, all criterion-referenced assessments are standardized.

B. No, administration and scoring may or may not be standardized.

C. Yes, but only certain scales are both norm and criterion referenced.

A

Answer: B. No, administration and scoring may or may not be standardized.

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26
Q

What aspect of standardized tests ensures uniformity in administration and scoring?
A. Standard scores
B. Interdisciplinary teams
C. Artificial test situations

A

Answer: A. Standard scores

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27
Q

How do standardized tests facilitate communication among interdisciplinary teams?
A. By providing artificial test situations
B. By allowing teams to compare performance to the “normal” population
C. By enabling teams to “speak the same language” with standard scores

A

Answer: C. By enabling teams to “speak the same language” with standard scores

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28
Q

What is the primary purpose of norm-referenced tests?
A. To provide uniformity in administration and scoring
B. To compare a child’s performance to that of the “normal” population
C. To reflect a child’s performance in the natural environment

A

Answer: B. To compare a child’s performance to that of the “normal” population

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29
Q

Why is it important to consider reliability and validity when interpreting standardized test results?
A. To ensure test situations are artificial
B. To facilitate communication among interdisciplinary teams
C. To make informed judgments about the accuracy and consistency of test scores

A

Answer: C. To make informed judgments about the accuracy and consistency of test scores

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30
Q

How can occupational therapists develop competency in using tests?
A. By solely understanding concepts related to testing
B. By observing others administer tests
C. By familiarizing with test procedures, materials, and setting requirements, among other methods

A

Answer: C. By familiarizing with test procedures, materials, and setting requirements, among other methods

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31
Q

Which of the following are types of tests commonly used in occupational therapy?
A. Ipsative, evaluative, and formative
B. Norm-referenced, ipsative, and criterion-referenced
C. Diagnostic, summative, and standardized

A

Answer: B. Norm-referenced, ipsative, and criterion-referenced

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32
Q

Which of the following are purposes of standardized tests in occupational therapy?
A. Assistance with social diagnoses and documentation of personal preferences
B. Documentation of developmental and functional status, and measurement instruments for research studies
C. Assistance with medical or educational diagnoses, documentation of developmental and functional status, planning of intervention programs, and measurement instruments for research studies

A

Answer: C. Assistance with medical or educational diagnoses, documentation of developmental and functional status, planning of intervention programs, and measurement instruments for research studies

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33
Q

Which factors influence standardized testing in pediatric occupational therapy?
A. Occupational therapy framework and “bottom-up” evaluation approach
B. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) Part B and International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF)
C. Client-centered models of practice and IDEA Part C

A

Answer: B. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) Part B and International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF)

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34
Q

Which characteristics are typically found in standardized test manuals?

A. Open-ended purpose statements, variable administration protocols, and flexible scoring guidelines

B. Detailed information on purpose, population, administration, scoring, and interpretation, along with fixed protocols for administration and scoring

C. Randomized item numbers, flexible guidelines for scoring, and limited technical information

A

Answer: B. Detailed information on purpose, population, administration, scoring, and interpretation, along with fixed protocols for administration and scoring

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35
Q

What is the definition of validity in the context of standardized testing?

A. The consistency of test scores over time
B. The degree to which a test measures what it claims to measure
C. The ability of a test to accurately predict future outcomes

A

Answer: B. The degree to which a test measures what it claims to measure

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36
Q

What does reliability refer to in standardized testing?

A. The ability of a test to measure what it claims to measure
B. The consistency of scores between multiple raters.
C. The degree to which a test accurately predicts future outcomes

A

Answer: B. The consistency of scores between
multiple raters.

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37
Q

Which aspect of validity involves determining whether a test accurately measures the intended constructs or concepts?

A. Construct-related validity
B. Discriminant validity
C. Content-related validity

A

Answer: A. Construct-related validity

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38
Q

What are the primary standard scores used in standardized testing?
A. A and B scores
B. X and Y scores
C. Z and T scores

A

Answer: C. Z and T scores

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39
Q

What is a key component of ethical testing procedures?
A. Utilizing only standardized tests for assessment
B. Ignoring cultural differences during testing procedures
C. Adapting procedures to match child and family culture, characteristics, and values

A

Answer: C. Adapting procedures to match child and family culture, characteristics, and values

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40
Q

Why is it important to adjust for testing context in ethical testing procedures?

A. To ensure the test is administered in a controlled environment

B. To avoid considering observations and interviews during testing

C. To account for factors that may influence the child’s performance

A

Answer: C. To account for factors that may influence the child’s performance

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41
Q

Which of the following is a crucial aspect of ethical testing procedures?

A. Relying solely on standardized tests for assessment

B. Disregarding the purpose of the assessment

C. Synthesizing information from standardized tests, observations, and interviews

A

Answer: C. Synthesizing information from standardized tests, observations, and interviews

42
Q

What is a key consideration regarding the comparison made by norm-referenced tests?
A. Comparison of the child’s performance with past performances
B. Comparison of the child’s performance with the “normal” population
C. Comparison of the child’s performance with the test administrator’s expectations

A

Answer: B. Comparison of the child’s performance with the “normal” population

43
Q

Why is it important for professionals to consider reliability and validity in standardized testing?

A. To ensure the test situation is artificial

B. To facilitate communication among interdisciplinary teams

C. To make informed judgments about the accuracy and consistency of test scores

A

Answer: C. To make informed judgments about the accuracy and consistency of test scores

44
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Activity Measure for Post-Acute Care (AM-PAC)?
A. To evaluate chronic care services
B. To evaluate post-acute care services
C. To assess acute care interventions

A

Answer: B. To evaluate post-acute care services

45
Q

How many items are included in the AM-PAC assessment?
A. 20 items
B. 41 items
C. 60 items

A

Answer: B. 41 items

46
Q

Which domains does the AM-PAC assess?
A. Basic mobility only
B. Daily activities only
C. Basic mobility, daily activities, and applied cognition

A

Answer: C. Basic mobility, daily activities, and applied cognition

47
Q

What are the “6-Clicks” in relation to the Activity Measure for Post-Acute Care (AM-PAC)?

A. Short forms for Basic mobility and Applied cognition
B. Short forms for Basic mobility and Daily activities
C. Short forms for Applied cognition and Social interaction

A

Answer: B. Short forms for Basic mobility and Daily activities

48
Q

Who are the intended population for the AM-PAC assessment?

A. Children with developmental disabilities
B. Older adults only
C. Adults with a range of diagnoses

A

Answer: C. Adults with a range of diagnoses

49
Q

What is one of the primary purposes of using the AM-PAC assessment?
A. To measure intelligence quotient (IQ)
B. To determine the need for skilled services and drive discharge planning
C. To assess emotional well-being

A

Answer: B. To determine the need for skilled services and drive discharge planning

50
Q

In the 4-point scale used in this assessment, what does a 1 score indicate?

A. Total need of assistance
B. A lot “ “
C. A little “ “
D. None “ “

A

A) Total need of assistance

51
Q

In the 4-point scale used in the PAM assessment, what does a 2 score indicate?

A. Total
B. A lot
C. A little
D. None

A

B) A lot of need for assist

52
Q

n the 4-point scale used in this assessment, what does a 3 score indicate?

A. Total
B. A lot
C. A little
D. None

A

C) A little need of assist

53
Q

in the 4-point scale used in PAM assessment, what does a 4 score indicate?

A. Total
B. A lot
C. A little
D. None

A

D) None, no need for assistance independent

54
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the Daily Activities section of the AM-PAC assessment?
A. Bathing
B. Ambulation
C. Grooming
D. Toileting
E. Eating
F. Clothing UB & LB

A

Answer: B. Ambulation

55
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the Bed Mobility section in the AM-PAC assessment?

A. Supine to sit
B. Seated transfers
C. Bathing
D. Turning in bed
E. Sit to stand
F. Ascending stairs

A

Answer: C. Bathing

56
Q

Which is NOT a purpose of the Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility- Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI)?

A. Clinical assessment for treatment planning
B. Reimbursement purposes
C. Research data collection
D. Replacing the functional independence measure

A

Answer: C. Research data collection

57
Q

What type of data is collected in the IRF-PAI version 4.2?
A. Clinical outcomes only
B. Demographic data and admission prior level of function
C. Medical history

A

Answer: B. Demographic data and admission prior level of function

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT included as an item in the Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility- Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI)?

A. Mobility
B. Medications
C. Blood pressure

A

Answer: C. Blood pressure

59
Q

Which domain in the IRF-PAI assesses a patient’s ability to perform tasks related to daily living such as eating, toileting, and dressing?
A. Cognitive patterns
B. Mobility
C. Self-care

A

Answer: C. Self-care

60
Q

What does a score of “7” signify in the IRF-PAI scoring system?
A. Not attempted due to medical concerns or safety concerns
B. Patient refused
C. Not applicable

A

Answer: B. Patient refused

61
Q

Which score indicates that the patient requires substantial assistance in the IRF-PAI?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5

A

Answer: B. 2

62
Q

When would a score of “9” be used in the IRF-PAI?

A. When the patient refuses to attempt the task
B. When the task is not attempted due to environmental limitations
C. When the patient requires maximal assistance

A

Answer: B. When the task is not attempted due to environmental limitations

63
Q

What does a score of “3” represent in the IRF-PAI scoring system?

A. Patient refused
B. Supervision or touching assistance
C. Partial/moderate assistance

A

Answer: C. Partial/moderate assistance

64
Q

What does a score of “6” indicate in the Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility- Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI)?

A. Set up or clean-up assistance
B. Partial/moderate assistance
C. Independent (with or without adaptive equipment)

A

Answer: C. Independent (with or without adaptive equipment)

65
Q

Which oral care activities are included in the OT-specific section of the IRF-PAI?
A. Only dentures and brushing gums
B. Only oral hygiene
C. Both dentures and brushing gums, and oral hygiene

A

Answer: C. Both dentures and brushing gums, and oral hygiene

66
Q

What aspect of eating is assessed in the OT-specific section of the IRF-PAI?

A. Only the use of suitable utensils
B. Container management
C. Swallowing

A

Answer: B. Container management

67
Q

Which of the following is NOT included as an OT-specific item in the Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility- Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI)?

A. Swallowing
B. Use of suitable utensils
C. Ambulation

A

Answer: C. Ambulation

68
Q

Which activity is included in the OT-specific section of the Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility- Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI)?

A. Car transfer
B. Lower body dressing
C. Putting on/taking off footwear

A

Answer: B. Lower body dressing

69
Q

What does the Upper body Dressing item include?

A. Putting on/taking off footwear
B. Shower, rinse, dry
C. Retrieving items

A

Answer: C. Retrieving items

70
Q

Which clothing items are considered as part of the Lower body dressing activity in the OT-specific section of the IRF-PAI?

A. Knee brace, LE prosthetic, and residual limb shrinker
B. TLSO, back brace, and UE prosthetics
C. AFO, foot orthotics, and compression stockings

A

Answer: A. Knee brace, LE prosthetic, and residual limb shrinker

71
Q

Why is it important to ensure that assessments are standardized on the appropriate population based on the client’s demographics and disabilities?

A. To guarantee that the assessment is administered in a standardized environment
B. To ensure that the assessment results are valid and reliable
C. To establish discriminative validity

A

Answer: B. To ensure that the assessment results are valid and reliable

72
Q

What factors within the personal context can influence assessment results?

A. Environmental factors
B. Age, educational status, and gender
C. Health conditions

A

Answer: B. Age, educational status, and gender

73
Q

Which type of validity studies are associated with the personal context to establish discriminative validity?

A. Criterion-related validity
B. Concurrent validity
C. Known group differences

A

Answer: C. Known group differences

74
Q

How does temporal context influence assessment results?

A. It determines the environmental factors affecting the assessment
B. It reflects the stages of life which can influence assessment content and interpretation
C. It establishes the validity of the assessment

A

Answer: B. It reflects the stages of life which can influence assessment content and interpretation

75
Q

What is the primary focus of the Standardized Assessment of the Environment for children?
A. Safety and accessibility of the physical environment
B. Role of physical and social environments in promoting skill development
C. Workplace supports or social supports

A

Answer: B. Role of physical and social environments in promoting skill development

76
Q

In assessments for adults using the Standardized Assessment of the Environment, what aspects of the environment are typically evaluated?
A. Availability of toys and learning materials
B. Workplace supports and social supports
C. Parent support and responsiveness

A

Answer: B. Workplace supports and social supports

77
Q

What is the overarching purpose of the Standardized Assessment of the Environment?

A. To measure individual skills and abilities
B. To assess the effectiveness of therapy interventions
C. To determine whether the environment inhibits or supports occupational performance and how it can be adapted

A

Answer: C. To determine whether the environment inhibits or supports occupational performance and how it can be adapted

78
Q

Why are there few assessments available for evaluating the actual environment?

A. Environments are static and simple
B. Environments are dynamic and complex
C. Assessments focus on individual skills rather than environmental factors

A

Answer: B. Environments are dynamic and complex

79
Q

What is a typical focus of assessments for home environments?
A. Identifying individual’s skills and abilities
B. Identifying barriers/problems that can be changed to promote participation
C. Assessing caregiver’s personal preferences

A

Answer: B. Identifying barriers/problems that can be changed to promote participation

80
Q

What aspect of the work environment is typically evaluated in assessments?

A. Identifying leisure opportunities
B. Modifying the environment to increase safety, access, and optimal function
C. Evaluating individual’s productivity

A

Answer: B. Modifying the environment to increase safety, access, and optimal function

81
Q

Which method is used to focus on the client’s lived experience and context of their lives?

A. Drawing or painting to express their context
B. Standardized testing
C. Providing written instructions

A

Answer: A. Drawing or painting to express their context

82
Q

Why is it important not to rely solely on observation for assessing social context and culture?
a) Observation provides limited information about the client’s cultural background
b) Observation can be biased and may not accurately reflect the client’s beliefs and customs
c) Observation is the most effective method for understanding a client’s social context

A

Answer: b) Observation can be biased and may not accurately reflect the client’s beliefs and customs

83
Q

Why are clients and caregivers considered the most vital resources in occupation-based interventions?
a) They provide financial support for the interventions
b) They best know the client’s strengths, limitations, and priorities
c) They have the most experience in implementing interventions

A

Answer: b) They best know the client’s strengths, limitations, and priorities

84
Q

What is the primary goal of occupation-based interventions in relation to client involvement?
a) To limit client involvement to reduce decision-making burden
b) To promote client self-determination and engagement in decision-making
c) To impose interventions on the client without their input

A

Answer: b) To promote client self-determination and engagement in decision-making

85
Q

Which theory is promoted by occupation-based interventions, emphasizing autonomy, competence, and relatedness?

a) Behavioral theory
b) Cognitive theory
c) Self-determination theory

A

Answer: c) Self-determination theory

86
Q

What is the primary focus of strength-based assessments?
a) Identifying weaknesses and deficits
b) Investigating how the disability experience can shape occupations
c) Assessing cognitive abilities

A

Answer: b) Investigating how the disability experience can shape occupations

  • looking at strengths, motives, habits and skills
87
Q

How does the social model of disability interpret disability?

a) It focuses solely on individual factors
b) It interprets disability within a social context resulting from societal barriers
c) It emphasizes medical interventions as the primary solution

A

Answer: b) It interprets disability within a social context resulting from societal barriers

88
Q

According to Beukelman & Mirenda’s participation model for individuals with complex communication needs, what is required for full participation and inclusion?
a) Access to advanced technology
b) Access and opportunity
c) Isolation from peers

A

Answer: b) Access and opportunity

89
Q

What is emphasized as essential for promoting inclusion in the context of this discussion?
a) Belief in a client’s skill and competence
b) External rewards and incentives
c) Isolation from others with disabilities

A

Answer: a) Belief in a client’s skill and competence

90
Q

What are Ethics?

a) Understanding human psychology
b) Exploring various aspects of morality
c) Analyzing historical events

A

Answer: b) Exploring various aspects of morality

91
Q

What are Morals?

A

Morality refers to personal, group, or societal views of right and wrong .

92
Q

What do moral codes represent?
a) Personal beliefs only
b) Group consensus only
c) The development of moral values

A

Answer: c) The development of moral values

93
Q

What are moral norms?

a) Individual moral codes
b) Shared personal, group, and societal moral codes
c) The same as moral values

A

Answer: b) Shared personal, group, and societal moral codes

94
Q

True or false: In psychometrics, a high correlation between two test scores from the same assessment suggests convergent validity.

A

False

If the scores of the two DIFFERENT methods are similar, this suggests that they indeed measure the same construct. A high correlation between the two test scores suggests convergent validity.

95
Q

True or false: In psychometrics, the discriminate validity of a survey instrument, like an IQ-test, indicates that the results obtained by this instrument do not correlate too strongly with measurements of a similar but distinct trait.

A

True

96
Q

Order the following steps in the correct order for developing a new standardized assessment.

A. Evaluate the items (e.g., reliability, correlations, variance, dimensionality)
B. Face validity
C. Determine format for measurement (e.g., Likert, response categories)
D. Generate item pool (consider redundancy, # items)
E. Cognitive interviewing (qualitative method)
F. Determine clearly what it is you want to measure
G. Administer items to development sample
H. Content validity
I. Optimize scale length

A

F Determine measurements
D Generate item pool
C Determine measurement format
H Content validity
B Face validity
E Cognitive interviewing
G Development sample
A Evaluate the items
I Optimize scale length

97
Q

Why might you use non-standardized assessments in pediatric or older adult contexts?

A

Peds: Emphasis on evaluations of elements of context that promote development

OAs: Emphasis on evaluation of safety, accessibility, workplace supports, community supports

Activity analysis and observation: May be in client’s natural environment

98
Q

The Activity Card Sort, Late-Life Function and Disability
Instrument, Canadian Occupational Performance Measure, and WHO Disability Assessment Schedule are example of ___________________________ of context.

A

Standardized assessments

99
Q

True or false: Context can affect a client’s access to occupations.

A

True

100
Q

The Activity Card Sort assesses what type of context?

A. Personal context
B. Cultural context
C. Social context
D. Virtual context
E. Temporal context
F. Physical context

A

C

101
Q

What role does context play in an individual’s life?

A

For people to truly achieve full participation, meaning, and purpose, they must not only function but also engage comfortably within their own distinct combination of contexts

102
Q

A broad construct including the factors specific to each client is called…

A

context