Assess Eval Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which step in the assessment process involves identifying the specific need for evaluation?

a) Step 1: Determine the need for a specific assessment

b) Step 2: Locate the assessments that address the specific need(s)

c) Step 3: Analyze and compare similar assessments

d) Step 4: Implement the chosen assessment

A

Answer: a) Step 1: Determine the need for a specific assessment

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2
Q

What is the next step in the assessment process after identifying the need for evaluation?

a) Determine the need for a specific assessment

b) Locate the assessments that address the specific need(s)

c) Analyze and compare similar assessments
d) Implement the chosen assessment

A

Answer: b) Locate the assessments that address the specific need(s)

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3
Q

After locating assessments that address the specific need, what is the subsequent step in the assessment process?

a) Determine the need for a specific assessment

b) Locate the assessments that address the specific need(s)

c) Analyze and compare similar assessments
d) Implement the chosen assessment

A

Answer: c) Analyze and compare similar assessments

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4
Q

What should therapists be aware of when selecting assessments for research purposes?
a) The availability of assessments in multiple languages
b) The importance of obtaining approval for research protocols
c) The variety of assessment formats available
d) The legal concerns related to assessment administration

A

Answer: b) The importance of obtaining approval for research protocols

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5
Q

Which factor should be taken into account regarding the format of assessments?
a) The cost of the assessments
b) The popularity of the assessments among therapists
c) Whether the assessments are standardized or non-standardized
d) Whether the assessments are computerized or paper-based

A

Answer: d) Whether the assessments are computerized or paper-based

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6
Q

“Which of the following considerations is crucial when evaluating a Medicare patient? (select all that apply)

A. Understand what the facility wants to see when treating a medicare patient
B. Ensuring the physician’s signature upon completion of care.
C. Providing skilled services aimed at enhancing functionality.

A

All of the above

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7
Q

When evaluating a patient, which aspect of demographics should an occupational therapist consider?

A. Discharge setting(s).
B. Sound and privacy of the evaluation space.
C. Age, educational level, and diagnosis.

A

Answer: C.
Age, educational level, and diagnosis.

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8
Q

Why is it important for an occupational therapist to review the evidence and psychometric properties of an assessment tool?

A. To ensure the assessment is calibrated.
B. To confirm the assessment’s validity and reliability.
C. To consider the discharge setting(s) for the patient.

A

Answer: B. To confirm the assessment’s validity and reliability.

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9
Q

Which factors should an occupational therapist consider when conducting an evaluation for a patient?

A. Demographics such as age, educational level, and diagnosis.
B. Availability of assessment space, sound, and privacy.
C. Evidence and psychometric properties of the assessment, including validity and reliability.

A

Answer: All of the above.

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10
Q

What aspect of therapist competence should be considered when administering assessments?

A. Experience and maintain professional development.
B. Time management.
C. Format of assessments.

A

Answer: A. Experience and maintain professional development.

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11
Q

What is a key consideration when choosing between standardized and non-standardized assessments?

A. Time management during assessment procedures.
B. Adherence to exact instructions and set-up if you are comparing them to the norms in the manual. Administration and scoring are key.
C. Maintaining professional development.

A

Answer: B. Adherence to exact instructions and set-up if you are comparing them to the norms in the manual. Administration and scoring are key.

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12
Q

Why is it important for therapists to be mindful of legal concerns regarding assessments?

A. To ensure timely initiation of evaluations.
B. To maintain competence in assessment administration.
C. To address potential legal issues and serve as expert witnesses if necessary.

A

Answer: C. To address potential legal issues and serve as expert witnesses if necessary

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13
Q

What factors is crucial in determining the time required for assessment procedures? (Select all that apply)

A. Receipt of referral to initiation of eval.
B. Time for set up, administering and clean up of assessments.
C. Time for interpretation and documentation.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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14
Q

Which of the following recommendations is essential for improving the reliability and validity of hand strength evaluations?
A. Using different test instruments for pre- and post-testing.
B. Comparing scores to arbitrary norms.
C. Following standardized positioning and instructions.
D. Conducting only one trial for each evaluation.

A

Answer: C. Following standardized positioning and instructions.

Reason: To improve the reliability and validity of hand strength
evaluations the following recommendations are made: (1)
Standardized positioning and instruction should be followed;
(2) the average of three trials should be used. (3) the
dynamometer and pinch gauge described should be used for
data collection; (4) scores obtained should be compared to the
appropriate age and sex categories for interpretation; (5) the
calibration of the dynamometer and pinch gauges should be
checked regularly; (6) the same test instrument should be used
for pre- and post-testing

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of standardized tests?
A. Screening.
B. Documenting developmental status.
C. Providing medical treatment.

A

Answer: C. Providing medical treatment.

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16
Q

What is one purpose of standardized tests?
A. To determine a child’s developmental, functional, and participation status.
B. To conduct medical interventions.
C. To document a child’s academic achievements.

A

Answer: A. To determine a child’s developmental, functional, and participation status.

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17
Q

What factors are essential in determining which assessment tool to use?
A. Therapist preference, time, and expense.
B. Reason for referral, eligibility concerns, and developmental appropriateness.
C. Educational relevance, professional training, and linked intervention.

A

Answer: B. Reason for referral, eligibility concerns, and developmental appropriateness.

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18
Q

Which type of assessment focuses on comparing an individual’s performance to a predetermined standard or norm?

A. Norm-Referenced Measures
B. Curriculum-Based Tools
C. Performance Assessment

A

Answer: A. Norm-Referenced Measures

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19
Q

What is an advantage of standardized testing?
A. Provides a comprehensive understanding of daily functioning.
B. Offers a brief “snapshot” of functioning.
C. Well-known and commercially available.

A

Answer: C. Well-known and commercially available.

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20
Q

Which disadvantage is associated with standardized testing?
A. It provides a comprehensive understanding of daily functioning.
B. It cannot be a stand-alone measure.
C. It offers an accurate interpretation of daily functioning.

A

Answer:
B. It cannot be a stand-alone measure.

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21
Q

What limitation is often attributed to standardized testing?
A. It monitors developmental progress effectively.
B. It provides a comprehensive overview of daily functioning.
C. Test situations are artificial and not a totally accurate interpretation of daily functioning.

A

Answer: C. Test situations are artificial and not a totally accurate interpretation of daily functioning.

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22
Q

Which statement accurately describes the role of standardized tests in occupational therapy?
A. Standardized tests only aid in determining medical diagnoses.
B. Standardized tests assist in the determination of medical or educational diagnoses, aid in intervention planning, and measure program outcomes.
C. Standardized tests primarily focus on documenting a child’s developmental progress.

A

Answer: B. Standardized tests assist in the determination of medical or educational diagnoses, aid in intervention planning, and measure program outcomes.

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23
Q

What is the primary purpose of criterion-referenced assessments?

A. To compare a child’s performance with their peers.
B. To determine what skills a child can or cannot accomplish.
C. To standardize administration and scoring.

A

Answer: B. To determine what skills a child can or cannot accomplish.

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24
Q

How does criterion-referenced testing differ from norm-referenced testing?

A. Criterion-referenced testing compares performance with a particular criterion, while norm-referenced testing compares performance with peers.

B. Criterion-referenced testing compares performance with peers, while norm-referenced testing determines what skills a child can or cannot accomplish.
C. Criterion-referenced testing focuses on standardized administration and scoring, while norm-referenced testing does not.

A

Answer: A. Criterion-referenced testing compares performance with a particular criterion, while norm-referenced testing compares performance with peers.

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25
Are all criterion-referenced assessments standardized in administration and scoring? A. Yes, all criterion-referenced assessments are standardized. B. No, administration and scoring may or may not be standardized. C. Yes, but only certain scales are both norm and criterion referenced.
Answer: B. No, administration and scoring may or may not be standardized.
26
What aspect of standardized tests ensures uniformity in administration and scoring? A. Standard scores B. Interdisciplinary teams C. Artificial test situations
Answer: A. Standard scores
27
How do standardized tests facilitate communication among interdisciplinary teams? A. By providing artificial test situations B. By allowing teams to compare performance to the "normal" population C. By enabling teams to "speak the same language" with standard scores
Answer: C. By enabling teams to "speak the same language" with standard scores
28
What is the primary purpose of norm-referenced tests? A. To provide uniformity in administration and scoring B. To compare a child's performance to that of the "normal" population C. To reflect a child's performance in the natural environment
Answer: B. To compare a child's performance to that of the "normal" population
29
Why is it important to consider reliability and validity when interpreting standardized test results? A. To ensure test situations are artificial B. To facilitate communication among interdisciplinary teams C. To make informed judgments about the accuracy and consistency of test scores
Answer: C. To make informed judgments about the accuracy and consistency of test scores
30
How can occupational therapists develop competency in using tests? A. By solely understanding concepts related to testing B. By observing others administer tests C. By familiarizing with test procedures, materials, and setting requirements, among other methods
Answer: C. By familiarizing with test procedures, materials, and setting requirements, among other methods
31
Which of the following are types of tests commonly used in occupational therapy? A. Ipsative, evaluative, and formative B. Norm-referenced, ipsative, and criterion-referenced C. Diagnostic, summative, and standardized
Answer: B. Norm-referenced, ipsative, and criterion-referenced
32
Which of the following are purposes of standardized tests in occupational therapy? A. Assistance with social diagnoses and documentation of personal preferences B. Documentation of developmental and functional status, and measurement instruments for research studies C. Assistance with medical or educational diagnoses, documentation of developmental and functional status, planning of intervention programs, and measurement instruments for research studies
Answer: C. Assistance with medical or educational diagnoses, documentation of developmental and functional status, planning of intervention programs, and measurement instruments for research studies
33
Which factors influence standardized testing in pediatric occupational therapy? A. Occupational therapy framework and "bottom-up" evaluation approach B. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) Part B and International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF) C. Client-centered models of practice and IDEA Part C
Answer: B. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) Part B and International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF)
34
Which characteristics are typically found in standardized test manuals? A. Open-ended purpose statements, variable administration protocols, and flexible scoring guidelines B. Detailed information on purpose, population, administration, scoring, and interpretation, along with fixed protocols for administration and scoring C. Randomized item numbers, flexible guidelines for scoring, and limited technical information
Answer: B. Detailed information on purpose, population, administration, scoring, and interpretation, along with fixed protocols for administration and scoring
35
What is the definition of validity in the context of standardized testing? A. The consistency of test scores over time B. The degree to which a test measures what it claims to measure C. The ability of a test to accurately predict future outcomes
Answer: B. The degree to which a test measures what it claims to measure
36
What does reliability refer to in standardized testing? A. The ability of a test to measure what it claims to measure B. The consistency of scores between multiple raters. C. The degree to which a test accurately predicts future outcomes
Answer: B. The consistency of scores between multiple raters.
37
Which aspect of validity involves determining whether a test accurately measures the intended constructs or concepts? A. Construct-related validity B. Discriminant validity C. Content-related validity
Answer: A. Construct-related validity
38
What are the primary standard scores used in standardized testing? A. A and B scores B. X and Y scores C. Z and T scores
Answer: C. Z and T scores
39
What is a key component of ethical testing procedures? A. Utilizing only standardized tests for assessment B. Ignoring cultural differences during testing procedures C. Adapting procedures to match child and family culture, characteristics, and values
Answer: C. Adapting procedures to match child and family culture, characteristics, and values
40
Why is it important to adjust for testing context in ethical testing procedures? A. To ensure the test is administered in a controlled environment B. To avoid considering observations and interviews during testing C. To account for factors that may influence the child's performance
Answer: C. To account for factors that may influence the child's performance
41
Which of the following is a crucial aspect of ethical testing procedures? A. Relying solely on standardized tests for assessment B. Disregarding the purpose of the assessment C. Synthesizing information from standardized tests, observations, and interviews
Answer: C. Synthesizing information from standardized tests, observations, and interviews
42
What is a key consideration regarding the comparison made by norm-referenced tests? A. Comparison of the child's performance with past performances B. Comparison of the child's performance with the "normal" population C. Comparison of the child's performance with the test administrator's expectations
Answer: B. Comparison of the child's performance with the "normal" population
43
Why is it important for professionals to consider reliability and validity in standardized testing? A. To ensure the test situation is artificial B. To facilitate communication among interdisciplinary teams C. To make informed judgments about the accuracy and consistency of test scores
Answer: C. To make informed judgments about the accuracy and consistency of test scores
44
What is the primary purpose of the Activity Measure for Post-Acute Care (AM-PAC)? A. To evaluate chronic care services B. To evaluate post-acute care services C. To assess acute care interventions
Answer: B. To evaluate post-acute care services
45
How many items are included in the AM-PAC assessment? A. 20 items B. 41 items C. 60 items
Answer: B. 41 items
46
Which domains does the AM-PAC assess? A. Basic mobility only B. Daily activities only C. Basic mobility, daily activities, and applied cognition
Answer: C. Basic mobility, daily activities, and applied cognition
47
What are the "6-Clicks" in relation to the Activity Measure for Post-Acute Care (AM-PAC)? A. Short forms for Basic mobility and Applied cognition B. Short forms for Basic mobility and Daily activities C. Short forms for Applied cognition and Social interaction
Answer: B. Short forms for Basic mobility and Daily activities
48
Who are the intended population for the AM-PAC assessment? A. Children with developmental disabilities B. Older adults only C. Adults with a range of diagnoses
Answer: C. Adults with a range of diagnoses
49
What is one of the primary purposes of using the AM-PAC assessment? A. To measure intelligence quotient (IQ) B. To determine the need for skilled services and drive discharge planning C. To assess emotional well-being
Answer: B. To determine the need for skilled services and drive discharge planning
50
In the 4-point scale used in this assessment, what does a 1 score indicate? A. Total need of assistance B. A lot " " C. A little " " D. None " "
A) Total need of assistance
51
In the 4-point scale used in the PAM assessment, what does a 2 score indicate? A. Total B. A lot C. A little D. None
B) A lot of need for assist
52
n the 4-point scale used in this assessment, what does a 3 score indicate? A. Total B. A lot C. A little D. None
C) A little need of assist
53
in the 4-point scale used in PAM assessment, what does a 4 score indicate? A. Total B. A lot C. A little D. None
D) None, no need for assistance independent
54
Which of the following is NOT included in the Daily Activities section of the AM-PAC assessment? A. Bathing B. Ambulation C. Grooming D. Toileting E. Eating F. Clothing UB & LB
Answer: B. Ambulation
55
Which of the following is NOT part of the Bed Mobility section in the AM-PAC assessment? A. Supine to sit B. Seated transfers C. Bathing D. Turning in bed E. Sit to stand F. Ascending stairs
Answer: C. Bathing
56
Which is NOT a purpose of the Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility- Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI)? A. Clinical assessment for treatment planning B. Reimbursement purposes C. Research data collection D. Replacing the functional independence measure
Answer: C. Research data collection
57
What type of data is collected in the IRF-PAI version 4.2? A. Clinical outcomes only B. Demographic data and admission prior level of function C. Medical history
Answer: B. Demographic data and admission prior level of function
58
Which of the following is NOT included as an item in the Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility- Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI)? A. Mobility B. Medications C. Blood pressure
Answer: C. Blood pressure
59
Which domain in the IRF-PAI assesses a patient's ability to perform tasks related to daily living such as eating, toileting, and dressing? A. Cognitive patterns B. Mobility C. Self-care
Answer: C. Self-care
60
What does a score of "7" signify in the IRF-PAI scoring system? A. Not attempted due to medical concerns or safety concerns B. Patient refused C. Not applicable
Answer: B. Patient refused
61
Which score indicates that the patient requires substantial assistance in the IRF-PAI? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5
Answer: B. 2
62
When would a score of "9" be used in the IRF-PAI? A. When the patient refuses to attempt the task B. When the task is not attempted due to environmental limitations C. When the patient requires maximal assistance
Answer: B. When the task is not attempted due to environmental limitations
63
What does a score of "3" represent in the IRF-PAI scoring system? A. Patient refused B. Supervision or touching assistance C. Partial/moderate assistance
Answer: C. Partial/moderate assistance
64
What does a score of "6" indicate in the Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility- Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI)? A. Set up or clean-up assistance B. Partial/moderate assistance C. Independent (with or without adaptive equipment)
Answer: C. Independent (with or without adaptive equipment)
65
Which oral care activities are included in the OT-specific section of the IRF-PAI? A. Only dentures and brushing gums B. Only oral hygiene C. Both dentures and brushing gums, and oral hygiene
Answer: C. Both dentures and brushing gums, and oral hygiene
66
What aspect of eating is assessed in the OT-specific section of the IRF-PAI? A. Only the use of suitable utensils B. Container management C. Swallowing
Answer: B. Container management
67
Which of the following is NOT included as an OT-specific item in the Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility- Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI)? A. Swallowing B. Use of suitable utensils C. Ambulation
Answer: C. Ambulation
68
Which activity is included in the OT-specific section of the Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility- Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI)? A. Car transfer B. Lower body dressing C. Putting on/taking off footwear
Answer: B. Lower body dressing
69
What does the Upper body Dressing item include? A. Putting on/taking off footwear B. Shower, rinse, dry C. Retrieving items
Answer: C. Retrieving items
70
Which clothing items are considered as part of the Lower body dressing activity in the OT-specific section of the IRF-PAI? A. Knee brace, LE prosthetic, and residual limb shrinker B. TLSO, back brace, and UE prosthetics C. AFO, foot orthotics, and compression stockings
Answer: A. Knee brace, LE prosthetic, and residual limb shrinker
71
Why is it important to ensure that assessments are standardized on the appropriate population based on the client's demographics and disabilities? A. To guarantee that the assessment is administered in a standardized environment B. To ensure that the assessment results are valid and reliable C. To establish discriminative validity
Answer: B. To ensure that the assessment results are valid and reliable
72
What factors within the personal context can influence assessment results? A. Environmental factors B. Age, educational status, and gender C. Health conditions
Answer: B. Age, educational status, and gender
73
Which type of validity studies are associated with the personal context to establish discriminative validity? A. Criterion-related validity B. Concurrent validity C. Known group differences
Answer: C. Known group differences
74
How does temporal context influence assessment results? A. It determines the environmental factors affecting the assessment B. It reflects the stages of life which can influence assessment content and interpretation C. It establishes the validity of the assessment
Answer: B. It reflects the stages of life which can influence assessment content and interpretation
75
What is the primary focus of the Standardized Assessment of the Environment for children? A. Safety and accessibility of the physical environment B. Role of physical and social environments in promoting skill development C. Workplace supports or social supports
Answer: B. Role of physical and social environments in promoting skill development
76
In assessments for adults using the Standardized Assessment of the Environment, what aspects of the environment are typically evaluated? A. Availability of toys and learning materials B. Workplace supports and social supports C. Parent support and responsiveness
Answer: B. Workplace supports and social supports
77
What is the overarching purpose of the Standardized Assessment of the Environment? A. To measure individual skills and abilities B. To assess the effectiveness of therapy interventions C. To determine whether the environment inhibits or supports occupational performance and how it can be adapted
Answer: C. To determine whether the environment inhibits or supports occupational performance and how it can be adapted
78
Why are there few assessments available for evaluating the actual environment? A. Environments are static and simple B. Environments are dynamic and complex C. Assessments focus on individual skills rather than environmental factors
Answer: B. Environments are dynamic and complex
79
What is a typical focus of assessments for home environments? A. Identifying individual's skills and abilities B. Identifying barriers/problems that can be changed to promote participation C. Assessing caregiver's personal preferences
Answer: B. Identifying barriers/problems that can be changed to promote participation
80
What aspect of the work environment is typically evaluated in assessments? A. Identifying leisure opportunities B. Modifying the environment to increase safety, access, and optimal function C. Evaluating individual's productivity
Answer: B. Modifying the environment to increase safety, access, and optimal function
81
Which method is used to focus on the client's lived experience and context of their lives? A. Drawing or painting to express their context B. Standardized testing C. Providing written instructions
Answer: A. Drawing or painting to express their context
82
Why is it important not to rely solely on observation for assessing social context and culture? a) Observation provides limited information about the client's cultural background b) Observation can be biased and may not accurately reflect the client's beliefs and customs c) Observation is the most effective method for understanding a client's social context
Answer: b) Observation can be biased and may not accurately reflect the client's beliefs and customs
83
Why are clients and caregivers considered the most vital resources in occupation-based interventions? a) They provide financial support for the interventions b) They best know the client's strengths, limitations, and priorities c) They have the most experience in implementing interventions
Answer: b) They best know the client's strengths, limitations, and priorities
84
What is the primary goal of occupation-based interventions in relation to client involvement? a) To limit client involvement to reduce decision-making burden b) To promote client self-determination and engagement in decision-making c) To impose interventions on the client without their input
Answer: b) To promote client self-determination and engagement in decision-making
85
Which theory is promoted by occupation-based interventions, emphasizing autonomy, competence, and relatedness? a) Behavioral theory b) Cognitive theory c) Self-determination theory
Answer: c) Self-determination theory
86
What is the primary focus of strength-based assessments? a) Identifying weaknesses and deficits b) Investigating how the disability experience can shape occupations c) Assessing cognitive abilities
Answer: b) Investigating how the disability experience can shape occupations * looking at strengths, motives, habits and skills
87
How does the social model of disability interpret disability? a) It focuses solely on individual factors b) It interprets disability within a social context resulting from societal barriers c) It emphasizes medical interventions as the primary solution
Answer: b) It interprets disability within a social context resulting from societal barriers
88
According to Beukelman & Mirenda's participation model for individuals with complex communication needs, what is required for full participation and inclusion? a) Access to advanced technology b) Access and opportunity c) Isolation from peers
Answer: b) Access and opportunity
89
What is emphasized as essential for promoting inclusion in the context of this discussion? a) Belief in a client's skill and competence b) External rewards and incentives c) Isolation from others with disabilities
Answer: a) Belief in a client's skill and competence
90
What are Ethics? a) Understanding human psychology b) Exploring various aspects of morality c) Analyzing historical events
Answer: b) Exploring various aspects of morality
91
What are Morals?
Morality refers to personal, group, or societal views of right and wrong .
92
What do moral codes represent? a) Personal beliefs only b) Group consensus only c) The development of moral values
Answer: c) The development of moral values
93
What are moral norms? a) Individual moral codes b) Shared personal, group, and societal moral codes c) The same as moral values
Answer: b) Shared personal, group, and societal moral codes
94
True or false: In psychometrics, a high correlation between two test scores from the same assessment suggests convergent validity.
False If the scores of the two DIFFERENT methods are similar, this suggests that they indeed measure the same construct. A high correlation between the two test scores suggests convergent validity.
95
True or false: In psychometrics, the discriminate validity of a survey instrument, like an IQ-test, indicates that the results obtained by this instrument do not correlate too strongly with measurements of a similar but distinct trait.
True
96
Order the following steps in the correct order for developing a new standardized assessment. A. Evaluate the items (e.g., reliability, correlations, variance, dimensionality) B. Face validity C. Determine format for measurement (e.g., Likert, response categories) D. Generate item pool (consider redundancy, # items) E. Cognitive interviewing (qualitative method) F. Determine clearly what it is you want to measure G. Administer items to development sample H. Content validity I. Optimize scale length
F Determine measurements D Generate item pool C Determine measurement format H Content validity B Face validity E Cognitive interviewing G Development sample A Evaluate the items I Optimize scale length
97
Why might you use non-standardized assessments in pediatric or older adult contexts?
Peds: Emphasis on evaluations of elements of context that promote development OAs: Emphasis on evaluation of safety, accessibility, workplace supports, community supports Activity analysis and observation: May be in client’s natural environment
98
The Activity Card Sort, Late-Life Function and Disability Instrument, Canadian Occupational Performance Measure, and WHO Disability Assessment Schedule are example of ___________________________ of context.
Standardized assessments
99
True or false: Context can affect a client’s access to occupations.
True
100
The Activity Card Sort assesses what type of context? A. Personal context B. Cultural context C. Social context D. Virtual context E. Temporal context F. Physical context
C
101
What role does context play in an individual’s life?
For people to truly achieve full participation, meaning, and purpose, they must not only function but also engage comfortably within their own distinct combination of contexts
102
A broad construct including the factors specific to each client is called…
context