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Asp Flashcards

1
Q

Which system has as its primary functions to identify hazardous conditions assess their risk and establish effective risk control measures?

A

Loss control

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2
Q

When a project has been proposed, it must first go through a preliminary analysis in order to determine whether or not it has a positive net present value using the MARR as the discount rate the MARR is the target rate for evaluation of the project investment. What is the definition of MARR?

A

Minimum attractive rate of return

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3
Q

The Z 10 is a management system standard compatible in harmonized with quality (ISO9000 series) and environmental management systems (ISO14000 series). which of the following best describes the standards? 

A

Performance standards 

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4
Q

The first action to be considered in the hierarchy of control is.

A

Elimination of the hazard

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5
Q

Define one type of accident precursor that includes conditions, events or measures that proceed an undesirable event, and they have some value in predicting the event arrival whether it is an accident incident near miss or undesirable safety state.

A

Leading indicators 

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6
Q

The risk remaining after preventative measures have been taken

A

Residual risk

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7
Q

The management term “span of control” refers to

A

The number of subordinates a manager can supervise 

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8
Q

employee, motivation, or change a primary behavior model does not include which of the following

A

Having the ES & H department, write procedures

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9
Q

Which of the following defines the attributes of employee coaching?

A

Achievement, oriented, proactive, fact-finding process

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10
Q

Management and safety systems, built on the principles and processes developed by quality pioneer Edwards Deming are known as

A

Plan, do, check, act

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11
Q

Convincing someone to perform desired behaviors or actions is a part of psychology, known as

A

Motivation

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12
Q

Which of the following is not one of the major provisions of the consensus standard incorporating best practices in 0HSMS?

A

Regulatory compliance

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13
Q

What is the most effective method to fix accountability for environmental, safety, and health losses?

A

Charge the associated cost to each work center 

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14
Q

Measures of a system that are taken after events and assess outcomes in occurrences are called 

A

Lagging indicator’s

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15
Q

Safety, environmental, and health performance is best presented to upper management in terms of

A

Cost relationships 

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16
Q

Risk is a combination of 

A

Probability that An adverse event will occur and consequences of the adverse event

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17
Q

Which question cannot be answered by Pareto charts

What are the largest issues facing our team or business?
What 20% of sources are causing 80% of the problems parentheses 8020 rule?
Where should we focus our effort to achieve the greatest improvements? Where are the indirect cost of the incident?

A

Where are the indirect cost of the incident? 

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18
Q

A successful management system, according to 0HSAS18001, should be based on all of the following, except.

A generic, occupational health and safety policy
Identification of occupational health and safety risks along with legal requirements
Objectives, targets, and programs that ensure continual improvements
Management activities that control, occupational health, and safety risks 

A

A generic, occupational health and safety policy

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19
Q

Which of the following best defines a management system audit under ISO 19011?

A

A systematic independent and documented process for obtaining audit evidence, and evaluating it objectively to determine the extent to which the audit criteria are fulfilled

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20
Q

Auditing is characterized by reliance on many principles. Adherence to these principles, is a prerequisite for providing audit conclusions that are relevant and sufficient, and for enabling auditors working independently from one another to reach similar conclusions, in similar circumstances, which of the following are included in these principles. 

A

Integrity, confidentialities, due professional care 

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21
Q

Which is the best design for continuous input with precision for operator control 

A

Knob 

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22
Q

What would be an example of an engineering control? 

A

Design the job to fit the worker 

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23
Q

Back belts, (braces) used for support

A

I have not been shown to lessen the risk of back injury among uninjured workers

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24
Q

The term CLI, used in the professional practice of Ergonomics means

A a composite lifting index
B controlled lifting indices
C coordinated lifting indicator
D coupling lifting index 

A

A composite lifting index

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25
Q

The term psychophysical is most related to

A isotonic dynamic muscle force development
B the relationship between sensations and physical stimuli
C the study of how her emotions impact our health
D the study of biological indicators, such as heart rate and energy expenditure 

A

The relationship between sensations and physical stimuli 

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26
Q

Compression of nerves and blood vessels between the clavicle and first and second ribs is a disease known as
A polymorphous light irruption
B pneumothorax
C atelectasis
D thoracic outlet syndrome, 

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

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27
Q

What are two primary situations where bio mechanics analysis should be performed?

A during Manuel lifting, and to evaluate the effects of body posture’s
B during Manuel lifting and to evaluate the effects of work rest cycles
C during manual lifting and to evaluate the effects of dynamic loads
D during manual lifting, and to evaluate the effects of static loads

A

During manual, lifting, and to evaluate the effects of body postures 

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28
Q

To reduce eyestrain or transposing data from a paper to a computer it is best to
A place the paper next to the computer screen
B place the paper above the computer screen
C placed the paper on the desk
D place the paper below the computer screen 

A

Place the paper next to the computer screen 

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29
Q

What is the term for a postural analysis? System sensitive to musculoskeletal risk in a variety of jobs that is based on body segment specific ratings within specific movement planes using a scoring system for muscle activity, including static dynamic rapidly changing or unstable postures, and that provides a benchmark for urgency of action.

A rapid upper limb assessment
B Rogers muscle fatigue assessment
C strain index
D rapid entire body assessment 

A

Rapid entire body assessment

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30
Q

Which of the following best describes carpal tunnel syndrome
A elbow and shoulder, swelling and inflammation
B inflammation of ligaments in the wrist
C Raynaud syndrome of the hand and wrist
D numbness of the lower legs 

A

B inflammation of ligaments in the wrist 

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31
Q

For double handled, pinching, gripping or cutting tools, selector tool with handles that
A are designed with a grip span that is at least half an inch when fully closed
B are spring loaded to return the handles to the open position
C have finger grooves
D are bent when the force is applied vertically 

A

Our spring loaded to return the handle suit open position 

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32
Q

To reduce the chance of injury, work tasks should be designed to limit exposure to ergonomically risk factors, which of the following represents an administrative control

A use diverging conveyors off of Main line so that task are less repetitive
B use padding to reduce direct contact with any hard, sharp or vibrating surface
C staff floaters to provide periodic breaks between scheduled breaks
D install diverter‘s on conveyors to direct materials toward the worker to eliminate excessive, weaning or reaching 

A

Staff floaters to provide periodic breaks between scheduled breaks 

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33
Q

Excessive, leaning, and reaching, is required to access material on the far side of a conveyor, or slide in a poultry processing plant which of the following is the best solution?

A design, a diverter mechanism
B create a chute
C add a tilt or dumper
D install stationary seating

A

Design a diverter mechanism

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34
Q

A cooperative nursing home patient who weighs 150 pounds, cannot bear his own weight and needs to be moved which is the best method to illuminate manual lifting?

A use a stand in pivot technique
B use a friction reducing device
C use a lateral sliding aid
D use a portable lifting device 

A

Use a portable lifting device 

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35
Q

Truck, drivers and equipment operators are most likely to suffer from which of the following occupational diseases

A carpal tunnel syndrome from repetitive forceful tasks
B back disability from whole body vibration
C rotator cuff tendinitis
D quervain syndrome from gripping

A

Back disability from whole body vibration 

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36
Q

Three approaches for evaluating manual material, handling tasks and implementing acceptable workload. Criteria are.

A Anthropometric psychological and physical
B physiological, cardiovascular, and psychological
C anthropometric, physiological and ergonomic
D bio mechanical, physiological and psycho physical

A

Biomechanical physiological in psychophysical

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37
Q

A generally accepted practice for use of a video display terminal is to locate the VDT slightly below the operators, horizontal line of sight. The recommended angles suggested is.

A 5° below the horizontal line of sight
B 5° to 35° below the horizontal line of sight
C 15° to 35° below the horizontal line of sight
D 15 to 25° below the horizontal line of sight

A

15 to 25 below the horizontal line of sight

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38
Q

The science of measuring the human body for differences in various physical characteristics is

A kinesiology
B anthropometry
C physiology
D ergonomics 

A

Anthropometry

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39
Q

Disorders that affect the muscles nerves blood vessels, ligaments, and tendons are called
A chronic wasting disease
B musculoskeletal disorders,
C cumulative, trauma disorders,
D soft tissue diseases 

A

Musculoskeletal disorders

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40
Q

Which of the following is not a design parameter that could affect performance with foot controls

A whether the controls require a thrust with or without ankle action
B the location of the fulcrum (if the pedal is hinged)
C the color and brightness of the foot control pedal
D the load or force that is required to activate the foot pedal 

A

The color and brightness of the foot control pedal 

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41
Q

The movement of the body segment in a lateral playing away from the midline of the body is

A abduction
B adduction
C flexion
D extension 

A

Abduction 

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42
Q

Which of the following passed through the carpal tunnel

A medial, nerve and radial artery
B Ulnar nerve in ulnar artery
C Ulnar, nerve, and flexor tendons
D Median nerve and flexor tendons 

A

Median nerve and flexor tendons 

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43
Q

During a workplace evaluation for combustible dust, which of the following is a least important in the prevention of a dust explosion?

A a documented process, hazard analysis, and operator training
B physical and chemical properties establish hazardous characteristics of materials used in a facility
C housekeeping, and predictive preventative maintenance programs
D properly installed and operational sprinkler systems 

A

Properly installed and operational sprinkler system 

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44
Q

Which term best describes a subsonic explosion

A propagation
B detonation
C deflagration
D auto ignition 

A

Deflagration

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45
Q

In coal mining overexposure to respirable coal mine, dust can lead to coworkers pneumoconiosis, a lung disease that can be disabling and fatal in its most severe form. The best protective measure to control respirable coal dust during long wall mining shearer operations is.

A face ventilation
B drum mounted water sprays
C cutting drum bit maintenance
D directional, water, spray systems 

A

Face ventilation 

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46
Q

a type of protective signaling (fire alarm) system that does not notify the local fire department in the event of an alarm condition is

A auxiliary
B remote
C Local
D proprietary 

A

Local

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47
Q

A paint spray booth operation according to OSHA should provide enough dilution air to reduce the vapor of flammable materials to ____ of the lower explosive limit

A 10%
B 15%
C 20%
D 25%

A

25%

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48
Q

When welding, immovable object in an area with a fire hazard, which action is the least appropriate?

A suitable fire extinguishing equipment shall be maintained nearby in a state of readiness
B all movable object, must be covered with a fire resistive material
C whenever they’re floor openings or cracks and flooring that cannot be closed for caution Shall be taken, so that no readily combustible material on the floor below shall be exposed to Sparks, potentially dropping through the floor
D before cutting or welding is permitted the area shall be inspected by the individual responsible for authorizing cutting and welding operations by means of a written permit 

A

All movable object must be covered with a fire resistant material

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49
Q

Flammable inside storage locations must be provided with all of the following except

A a clear Isle at least 22 inches wide
B a raised for inch sill
C self closing, fire doors
D either a gravity or mechanical exhaust system 

A

A clear I’ll add at least 22 inches wide

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50
Q

And overcurrent device is best defined as a/an

A electrical capacitor with discharge resistor
B step up transformer
C pendant, push button controls station with metal messenger
D expulsion fuse 

A

Expulsion fuse

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51
Q

Which of the following is not an oxidizer?

A fluorine
B hydrazine
C potassium, permanganate
D Hydrogen peroxide

A

Hydrazine

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52
Q

Water is immediately available in a sprinkler piping in a wet pipe system in the event of a fire. The sprinkler head fuse is melted by heat from the fire and water is delivered to control or extinguish the ensuing fire. In a pre action fire, sprinkler system:

A air under pressure is maintained in the system piping
B piping includes open sprinklers
C the building occupant manually open the deluge valve
D sprinkler heads are connected to a rate of rise detector that assures a dual fault-tolerance

A

Air under pressure is maintained in the system piping 

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53
Q

The NFPA identifies a combustible liquid as one having a flashpoint:

A at or above 140°F
B at or above 100°F
C at or above 200°F
D at or below 70°F

A

At or above 100°F

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54
Q

An inspector checklist for a dry pipe sprinkler system requires opening the inspector, test valve and timing delay between the valve opening and water discharge. NFPA 13 requires that dry systems must deliver water to the inspector test pipe outlet within:

A three minutes
B 15 seconds
C one minute
D 30 seconds

A

1 minute

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55
Q

The three distinct parts of a “ means of egress” include:

A exit access, exit, and exit discharge
B door, passageway, and ramps
C door opening device, door, and exit light
D horizontal exits, stairs, and, ramps

A

Exit access, exit, and exit discharge 

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56
Q

NFPA 101, life safety code, requires emergency, lighting to illuminate the means of egress in some occupancies (places of assembly, educational buildings, healthcare facilities, etc). When required these lights must provide not less than 1 foot candle for a period of 1 1/2 hours if the normal lighting fails. What are the periodic testing requirements for these lights?

A a 30 second functional test every 30 days in a one and a half hour test annually
B a 30 second functional test monthly
C a five minute functional test, every 30 days and a one and a half hour test annually
D a one and a half hour functional test annually 

A

A 30 second functional test every 30 days and a one and a half hour test annually

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57
Q

Building sprinkler systems often do not pass the inspection. Criteria due to:

A broken water pipes
B a closed post indicator valve (PIV)
C electrical failure
D lack of pressure

A

A closed post indicator valve 

58
Q

One example of a class A incident includes a fire involving:

A ordinary combustibles
B flammable liquids
C combustible metals
D live electrical equipment

A

Ordinary combustibles

59
Q

What class is combustible metals?

A
B
C
D

A

D

60
Q

What class is flammable or combustible liquids

A
B
C
D

A

B

61
Q

What class involves live electrical equipment?

A

C

62
Q

The forklift truck primarily recommended for use in an area that contains a flammable vapor is:

A electric
B diesel
C LP gas
D gasoline

A

Electric

63
Q

An electrical conduit that is very warm to the touch is discovered during industrial safety inspection, which of the following descriptions, best fits this condition?

A the conduit, is hot it was electric energy due to a ground fault
B conduits are always warm to the touch
C the conduit is likely absorbing radiant heat from the furnace
D the conduit likely contains overloaded, electrical wiring

A

The conduit likely contains overloaded, electrical wiring

64
Q

Flow testing in industrial fire hydrant requires what instrument?
A pitot tube with gauge
B aneroid with gauge
C magnehelic with gauge
D burdon gauge with pick up tube

A

Pitot tube with Gauge

65
Q

Which of the following groups of hydrocarbons would have the greatest chance of not being flammable?

A aliphatic hydrocarbons
B aromatic hydrocarbons
C halogenated hydrocarbons
D ethers

A

Halogenated hydrocarbon’s

66
Q

Flashpoint is defined as the ____ temperature that will produce a vapor, concentration high enough to propagate a flame. When is source of ignition is present.

A lowest
B highest
C normal
D absolute

A

Lowest

67
Q

The term dry chemical fire, extinguishing agent is associated with flammable liquids. What material is the term dry powder associated with

A electrical installation
B exotic chemicals
C metals
D fibers 

A

Metals 

68
Q

Which will not leave a residue?

A CO2 extinguisher
B chemical extinguisher
C AFFF
D dry chemical

A

CO2 extinguisher 

69
Q

Responders to a fire involving a propane tank, would want to prevent a BLEVE, which is an acronym for

A burning liquid expanding vapor explosion
B boiling liquid, expanding vapor explosion
C burning liquid elevated volume expansion
D boiling liquid exacerbated, volume expansion 

A

Boiling liquid, expanding vapor explosion

70
Q

Which is not a particulate?

A fume
B mist
C gas
D smoke

A

Gas it’s a vapor

71
Q

Static electricity is best described as:

A low current with low voltage
B low-voltage with high current
C high voltage, low current
D high voltage is high current

A

High voltage with low current

72
Q

GFCI operates on sensing leakage of:

A resistance
B current
C ohms
D watts

A

Current 

73
Q

Which is an example of panic hardware?

A emergency escape windows from a high-rise
B delayed egress locks
C magnetic deadbolts
D breakaway bars on doors

A

Breakaway bars on doors

74
Q

The fire tetrahedron states that a combustion requires an oxidizer, fuel, heat, and which of the following?

A confinement
B surface area
C a chain reaction
D deflagration

A

A chain reaction

75
Q

The five categories of weapons of mass destruction are commonly referred to as CBRNE which is an acronym, for what?

A chemical biological radiological nuclear and explosive
B corrosive, bacterial, reflexive nuclear and energetics
C chemical bacterial respiratory neurological explosive
D corrosive, biological radiation, neurological, and explosive 

A

Chemical biological radiological nuclear and explosive

76
Q

A chemical explosion requires an oxidizer, fuel, and ignition source, and which of the following?

A over pressure
B confinement
C reduction
D detonation

A

Confinement

77
Q

The characterization of a class, two division, two location according to the national electrical code is:

A a site where flammable or combustible vapors may be present in sufficient quantities to be hazardous
B a place where combustible dust is normally present in adequate quantities to be hazardous
C a scene where flammable or combustible vapors are not normally present, but could be due to atypical intermittent operations
D a location where combustible dust is not normally present, but has the potential to be due to abnormal or periodic operations

A

A location where combustible dust is not normally present, but has the potential to be due to add normal or periodic operations

78
Q

Which of the following according to the national safety council is not included and good accident investigation procedures?

A identify basic casual factors
B determine who is to blame for the accident
C identify deficiencies in the management system
D suggest corrective action alternatives for management system

A

Determine who is to blame for the accident

79
Q

All of the following are recognized methods of smoke management, by NFPA except:

A airflow
B buoyancy
C compartmentalization
D dispersion

A

Dispersion

80
Q

If a small, mobile crane with rubber tires has struck a powerline in the powerline is apparently dead, laying across the crane boom what is the best course of action for the crane operator?

A jump from the crane and run away
B stay in the crane until emergency cruise arrive
C have an oiler knock, the powerline from the boom with a wood pole
D swing the boom back-and-forth until the line breaks or falls off

A

Stay in the crane until emergency crews arrive

81
Q

Which of the following is not considered a phase of emergency management?

A response
B recovery
C mitigation
D litigation

A

Litigation

82
Q

Under ICS the command staff positions include:

A safety officer, public information, officer, and liaison officer
B liaison officer, operations, section, chief and finance, and administration section chief
C public information officer, chief executive officer, and safety officer
D logistics section chief, safety officer, and contracting officer

A

Safety officer, public information, officer and liaison officer

83
Q

The incident command system recognizes that field response is where response personnel carry out tactical decisions and activities in direct response to an incident under the command of:

The federal government
And appropriate authority
The local government
Private contractors

A

The appropriate authority

84
Q

The primary consideration, when preparing for a potential disaster is:

A selecting the emergency committee
B identifying a person to be the on scene commander
C doing advance, emergency planning
D having a list of necessary state and federal directives

A

Doing advance, emergency planning

85
Q

Which visual correctly identifies a DOT oxidizer placard?

A background, yellow information black
B lower, half black, upper half white
C lower part white upper triangle yellow
D background read information, white/black

A

A background yellow information black

86
Q

Cleaning up a flammable, or combustible material spell, requires following all guidelines below, except:

A immediately notify OSHA of the spill
B isolate to spell site from nonrequired personnel
C block off the spill area to prevent access
D remove electrical hazards, incompatible, chemicals, or waste, physical hazards and sources of ignition

A

Immediately notify OSHA of the spill

87
Q

What are the colors on the corrosive placard?

A red and yellow
B red and white
C black, and white
D yellow, and black

A

Black and white

88
Q

What does the number three indicate on the hazardous material label?

A flammable material
B adhesive material
C hazard class
D third label in the series

A

Hazard class

89
Q

An emergency in which planning efforts are more focused on mitigation and recovery. Then on prevention is:

A natural disaster
B chemical disaster
C fire disaster
D explosion disaster

A

Natural disaster

90
Q

In the theory of fire understanding the fire tetrahedron is important for understanding how to extinguish a fire. The four elements that must be present for a fire to occur or a fuel heat, an oxidizing agent (usually oxygen) and a chemical chain reaction one method used to reduce the possibility of a fire hazard is use of an entering gas to reduce the oxidizing agent concentration. The most important property of this gas is.

A heat capacity
B molecular weight
C vapor pressure
D contant of hydrogen

A

Heat capacity

91
Q

A local fire department has responded to ablaze on the surface of a combustible liquid in a laboratory setting if firefighters apply AFFF what hazard is associated with this approach?

A the phone will not work at 100°C or higher
B the high temperature will increase foam, solubility and slow down its ability to smother the fire
C foam is not a recommended extinguisher for a combustible liquid
Fire
D foam will form an emotion of steam air in fuel that may cause frothing of the burning liquid

A

Phone will form an emulsion of steam air and fuel that may cause frothing of a burning liquid

92
Q

A rate of rise detector response to which condition?

A smoke particulate in the air
B water pressure in fire, suppression piping
C indoor humidity
D heat

A

Heat

93
Q

What is the purpose of a jockey pump?

A to pump water through a sprinkler system to extinguish a fire
B to maintain system pressure when the sprinkler system is not in use
C to open the sprinkler heads to the proper size based on the rate of rise
D to deliver water through the pipes so that the system continue to put out the fire

A

To maintain the system pressure when the sprinkler system is not in use

94
Q

A flood destroys a companies operational ability after emergency management issues are addressed the business implement several plans for recovery of critical files and information that had been stored offsite establishes a temporary facility from which operations can be conducted and informed customers of the circumstances and how customers will be served these plans are examples of a comprehensive loss control activity called:

A emergency management/emergency response
B situational awareness
C disaster, recovery/business continued to the planning
D business impact analysis

A

Disaster recovery/business continued tea planning

95
Q

Pre-emergency management planning is the best way to minimize potential loss from natural or technological disasters and accidents. The primary responsibility of emergency planning must exclude:

A establishing continuity of operations, for the customer sake
B providing for the safety of employees in public
C protecting property and environment
D establishing methods to restore operations to a new normal as soon as possible

A

Establishing continuity of operations, for the customer sake

96
Q

Mini different agencies might be responsible for controlling and cleaning up complex hazardous materials incident which of the following is the critical first step in responding to a chemical released when multiple agencies are involved?

A approve the incident action plan
B establish the incident command system
C approve resource request
D order demobilization

A

Establish the incident command system

97
Q

The national incident management system is the responsibility of the;

A department of state
B department of health and human services
C department of defense
D department of homeland security

A

Department of Homeland Security

98
Q

You were checking on a confined space, but do not see the attendant. You look into the space and see two people who appear to be unconscious what is the first action you take?

A immediately called for assistance
B immediately approach the victims and try to render first aid
C immediately called out to them both to see if they are Ok
D immediately check the atmosphere to see if it is safe to enter

A

Immediately called for assistance

99
Q

Which training level applies to employers, who are likely to witness or discover a hazardous substance released, and who need to be trained to initiate an emergency response sequence for notifying the proper authorities of the release?

A awareness level
B operations level
C hazardous materials, technicians
D specialist employees

A

Awareness level

100
Q

The clean air act place is responsibility for the prevention of accidental chemical releases on both OSHA and EPA. OSHA has implemented the process safety management rule. Which of the following represents the EPA related program for threshold quantities of extremely hazardous substances?

A risk mitigation process rule
B response management protocols rule
C response, mitigation program rule
D risk management program rule

A

Risk management program rule

101
Q

The public resist change for all of the following reasons, except:

A fear of the unknown
B false confidence
C loss of face
D lack of purpose

A

False confidence

102
Q

The most important spoke person characteristics for effective risk communication to the public are:

A expertise and authoritative presence
B appearance, and empathy
C authoritative, presents and credibility
D credibility and technical competency

A

Expertise and authoritative presence

103
Q

Due to a portion of a companies, workforce being exposed to chromium employee testing has begun. Where should test results be filed?

A on the safety manager’s computer
B in the safety manager’s file cabinet
C employees personal files
D and employees medical records 

A

Employees medical records

104
Q

When skin is exposed to solvents, workers may experience inflammation (dermatitis) because of:

A scraping of dermal layer’s
B defatting of the skin
C deep cuts
D chemical injection

A

Defatting of the skin

105
Q

A disease of the inner ear that can cause vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss is called

A rhinosinusitis
B barrettes, esophagus
C BYSSINOsis
D Ménière’s disease

A

Ménière’s disease fluid accumulation in the ear

106
Q

Metal fume fever is primarily caused by the inhalation of

A zinc oxide fumes
B hexavalent, chromium fumes
C fuming silver nitrate
D silicone oxide fumes

A

Zinc oxide fumes

107
Q

If a plant worker is diagnosed with mesothelioma, his or her supervisor should suspect which agent as a likely cause?

A carbon monoxide
B nitrous oxide
C toluene
D chrysotile

A

Chrysotile

108
Q

Gammaglobulin proteins found in blood and used by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign objects, such as bacteria and viruses are called

A antibodies
B white blood cells
C pathogens
D chromosomes

A

Antibodies

109
Q

Which medical conditions include cotton, workers, lung cotton, Brachs, disease, mill fever, and brown lung

A osteoporosis
B byssinosis
C pneumoconiosis
D occupational bronchitis

A

BYSSINOSIS

110
Q

Toxic agent or substance, that inhibits damages or destroys the cells, and or tissues of the kidneys is called a

A nephro toxin
B neurotoxin
C hemotoxin
D hepato-toxin

A

Nephrotoxin

111
Q

The term synonymous with oncogenesis is

A homeostasis
B carcinogenesis
C Myogensis
D glycogensis

A

Carcinogenesis

112
Q

Inhalation of iron oxide (from mining) causes pneumoconiosis called

A anthracosis
B siderosis
C silicosis
D Silicosiderosis 

A

Anthracosis it’s black lung

113
Q

Neutron radiations effect on the human body is best described as

A neutrons, causing secondary release of protons
B neutrons, changing the structure of body atoms
C neutron, radiation, ionizing water in the body
D neutron radiation, causing release of secondary radiation in the body

A

Neutron radiation, causing release of secondary radiation in the body

114
Q

Aging causes a vascular and neural degeneration of the inner ear resulting in a decrease in hearing ability called

A sensori neural
B Sociocusis
C presbycusis
D tinnitus

A

Presbycusis

115
Q

Which responsibility is not assigned to the national Institute for occupational safety and health?

A research and identification of occupational safety and health hazards
B recommending changes to Safety/health regulations
C training of Safety/Health personnel
D enforcement of occupational safety/public health standards within the regulated community

A

Enforcement of occupational safety and public health standards within the regulatory community

116
Q

Which is the most correct statement concerning the affliction of frostbite

A frost bite causes, uncontrolled shivering
B frostbitten skin is soft, puffy, and darker than normal
C the first symptoms of frostbite are pins and needles sensation, followed by numbness
D frostbite is characterized by irregular heartbeat in respiration

A

The first symptoms of frostbite are pins and needles sensation is followed by numbness

117
Q

Which pair of common factors has the capability of transmitting causative agents resulting in an infection in humans

A mosquito and beetle
B tick in beetle
C beetle, and bird
D mosquito and tick 

A

Mosquito and tick

118
Q

Which illness would you associate with a framing carpenter?

A de Quervain syndrome
B epicondylitis
C carpal tunnel syndrome
D Reynards disease

A

Epicondylitis or tennis elbow

119
Q

Liver, damaging substances, such as carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, tannic acid and trichloroethylene are called

A nephro toxins
B hemotoxin’s
C hepato-toxins
D Lacrimators

A

Hepato-toxins

120
Q

A mercury exposure during a spill would have the greatest impact on
A the central nervous system
B the gastrointestinal system
C the circulatory system
D the integumentary system

A

Central nervous system 500

121
Q

How does alcohol ingestion increase the likeliness of hypothermia?

A alcohol is a vasoconstrictor
B alcohol is a vasodilator
C alcohol restrict blood flow to extremities
D alcohol causes an endothermic reaction in the liver 

A

Alcohol is a vasodilator

122
Q

What effect in the lung tissue is caused by asbestos and silica dust?

A CYSTosis
B fibrosis
C necrosis
D scoliosis

A

Fibrosis

123
Q

One occupational illness not caused by a virus is
A HIV aids
B tuberculosis
C hepatitis B
D west Nile

A

Tuberculosis

124
Q

The human body is:

A more capable of coping with heat loss and heat gane
B less capable of coping with heat loss than heat gain
C equally capable of coping with the loss or heat game
D unaffected by environment with potential heat loss her heat gain

A

Less capable of coping with heat loss, then heat gain

125
Q

Which device does not electronically store data?

A data logger
B colorimetric tube
C port account equipment
D Holter monitor

A

C colorimetric tube

126
Q

For protection against chlorinated, solvents in job, requiring dexterity in sensitivity, which type of chemical resistant gloves is preferred?

A butyl
B neoprene
C nitrile
D polyvinyl alcohol

A

Nitrile

127
Q

And output power up to 500 MW sufficient to cause I entry is produced by class___ lasers

A one
B two
C three
D four

A

Three

128
Q

The most difficult materials to remove during decontamination is/are:

A does chemically permeated into PPE material
B dried solid materials cake on to PPE
C liquid material spread into crevices in pleats of PPE
D sludge is splattered onto PPE

A

Those chemically permeated in the PPE material

129
Q

Chemicals are substances that caused damage or death to a developing fetus, but cannot be passed on to further generations are called

A irritants
B sensitizers
C mutagens
D Taratogens

A

Irritants

130
Q

Which of the following is not a protection method used for external radiation exposure?

A time
B distance
C Does exposure
D shielding

A

Dose exposure

131
Q

A plant manager goes from a quiet office to the plant floor were loud noises are present. What type of occupational noise exposure does the plant manager in counter?

A intermittent
B continuous
C impact
D peak

A

Intermittent

132
Q

If a industrial hygienist is conducting a sound level survey at a plant, the sound level meter should be set to which scale/weight to access the noise hazard?

A a weighted
B b weighted
C c weighted
D d weighted

A

A weighted

133
Q

Derma Titus would be a major concern with the permeability of neoprene gloves, if selected for protection, for which of the following

Motor oil
Propane
Carbon tetrachloride
Hexane

A

Carbon tetrachloride

134
Q

What is the general purpose of a globe thermometer?

A it is a device used to measure radiant heat
B it is a device used to measure relative humidity
C it collects data on the absolute moisture content of the air and water vapor pressure
D it measures surface temperature

A

It is a device used to measure radiant heat

135
Q

Which of the following is not a common type of heat transfer?

A radiation
B condensation
C convection
D conduction

A

Condensation

136
Q

A specific eye, mouth or other mucus membrane, nonintact skin, or parental contact with blood or other, potentially infectious materials that may result from the performance of an employees duties is called a

A pathogenic incident
B contamination incident
C exposure incident
D universal precaution

A

Exposure incident

137
Q

One substance, having very low, or no significant toxicity enhances the toxicity of another substance. The result is a more severe injury, thin that which the toxic substance would have produced by itself. This is termed the.

A additive affect
B synergistic affect
C potentiating effect
D antagonistic effect

A

potentiating effect

138
Q

Which of the following conditions would be the use of dilution ventilation be most appropriate?

A the source of contamination is constant and highly toxic
B the source of contamination is a heavy particulate
C workers are in close contact with the source of contamination
D the source of contamination is constant and non-toxic

A

The source of contamination is constant and nontoxic

139
Q

An office environment is experiencing increased sick building syndrome complaints from employees. The HVAC system is found to be operating and well-maintained. What could be a physical cause for concern

A poor maintenance or air filtration
B poor air, quality or distribution
C carpal tunnel syndrome
D job stressed to the personal factors

A

Poor air, quality or distribution

140
Q

Three employees at a self center report, headache and fatigue, and are concerned with indoor air quality. The results of indoor air quality sampling do not indicate any airborne hazards the only change in the call center environment is a 30% increase in staff to handle the large call volume what is a likely psychological cause of the symptoms?

A air quality
B HVAC system problems
C job stress
D ventilation

A

Job stress

ASP (1 decks)

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