ASIPP Neuroanatomy & Function Questions Flashcards
- Cognitive and contextual aspects of the perceptual
dimensions of pain appear to be processed in:
A. The VPL region of the thalamus
B. The periventrivcular grey region
C. The inferotemporal and frontal cortical regions
D. The hypothalamus
E. None of the above
- Answer: C
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2003
207. The reversible cholinesterase inhibitor indicated in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease is A. Tacrine B. Edrophonium C. Neostigmine D. Pyridostigmine E. Ambenonium
- Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: Katzung, p 1040.
Patients with Alzheimer’s disease present with progressive
impairment of memory and cognitive functions such as a
lack of attention, disturbed language function, and an
inability to complete common tasks. Although the exact
defect in the central nervous system (CNS) has not been
elucidated, evidence suggests that a reduction in
cholinergic nerve function is largely responsible for the
symptoms.
Tacrine has been found to be somewhat effective in
patients with mild-to-moderate symptoms of this disease
for improvement of cognitive functions. The drug is
primarily a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor that
increases the concentration of functional ACh in the brain.
However, the pharmacology of tacrine is complex; the
drug also acts as a muscarinic receptor modulator in that
it has partial agonistic activity, as well as weak antagonistic
activity on muscarinic receptors in the CNS. In addition,
tacrine appears to enhance the release of ACh from
cholinergic nerves, and it may alter the concentrations of
other neurotransmitters such as dopamine and NE.
Of all of the reversible cholinesterase inhibitors, only
tacrine and physostigmine cross the blood-brain barrier in
suffi cient amounts to make these compounds useful for
disorders involving the CNS. Physostigmine has been
tried as a therapy for Alzheimer’s disease; however, it is
more commonly used to antagonize the effects of toxic
concentrations of drugs with antimuscarinic properties,
including atropine, antihistamines, phenothiazines, and
tricyclic antidepressants. Neostigmine, pyridostigmine,
and ambenonium are used maily in the treatment of
myasthenia gravis; edrophonium is useful for the
diagnosis of this muscular disease.
Source: Stern - 2004
- Regeneration of axons:
A. Occurs in the segment distal to the damage
B. Is independent of the survival of the perikaryon
C. Includes a decrease in the volume of the perikaryon
D. Is dependent on proliferation of Schwann cells
E. Is initiated with an increase in production of Nissl substance
- Answer: D
Explanation:
(Junqueira, 9/e, pp 176-180. Kandel, 4/e, p 1108-1109.)
Regeneration depends on the proliferation of Schwann
cells, which guide sprouting axons from the proximal
segment toward the target organ. This process is referred
to as Wallerian regeneration. Axonal regeneration occurs in neurons if the perikarya survive following damage. The
segment distal to the wound, including the myelin, is
phagocytosed and removed by macrophages. The proximal
segment is capable of regeneration because it remains in
continuity with the perikaryon. Chromatolysis is the fi rst
step in the regeneration process in which there is
breakdown of the Nissl substance, swelling of the
perikaryon, and migration of the nucleus peripherally
Degeneration of perikarya and neuronal processes occurs
when there is extensive neuronal damage. Transneuronal
degeneration occurs only when there are synapses with a
single damaged neuron. In the presence of inputs from
multiple neurons, transneuronal degeneration does not
occur.
Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
- The alpha rhythm appearing on an electroencephalogram
has which of the following characteristics?
A. It produces 20 to 30 waves per second
B. It disappears when a patient’s eyes open
C. It is replaced by slower, larger waves during REM sleep
D. It represents activity that is most pronounced in the
frontal region of the brain
E. It is associated with deep sleep
- Answer: B
Explanation:
(Guyton, pp 691-692.) In a totally relaxed adult with eyes
closed, the major component of the electroencephalogram
(EEG) will be a regular pattern of 8 to 12 waves per
second, called the alpha rhythm. The alpha rhythm
disappears when the eyes are opened. It is most prominent
in the parieto-occipital region. In deep sleep, the alpha
rhythm is replaced by larger, slower waves called delta
waves. In REM sleep, the EEG will show fast, irregular
activity.
- The receptors responsible for measuring the intensity of
a steady pressure on the skin surface are:
A. Pacinian corpuscle
B. Ruffi ni ending
C. Merkel’s disk
D. Meissner’s corpuscle
E. Krause ending
- Answer: B
Explanation:
(Rhoades, pp 69-70.)
B. The Ruffi ni ending is a tonic receptor that produces a
train of action potentials proportional to the intensity of
pressure applied to the skin.
A. The Pacinian corpuscle is a very rapidly adapting
receptor that fi res once or twice in response to skin
deformation.
It can produce a continuous train of action potentials if
the stimulus is repetitively applied and withdrawn.
Therefore, the Pacinian corpuscle is used to encode
vibration.
211. Which of the following nerve fi bers is not myelinated? A. A alpha fi bers: B. A delta fi bers C. A gamma fi bers D. B fi bers E. C fi bers
- Answer: E
Source: Day MR, Board Review 2004
212. Mechanical nociception appears to be predominantly modulated by: A. The raphe-spinal system B. The ceruleo-spinal system C. The GABAergic system D. All of the above E. None of the above
- Answer: B
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2003
- Rubbing or patting a painful area can often reduce the
sensations of pain.This is due, at least in part, to:
A. High-threshold C-fi ber overload
B. Depletion of Substance-P within primary nocisponsive
afferents
C. Stimulation of the dorsal columnar/medial lemniscal
pathway
D. Provocation of a vasoconstrictive response to reduce local
hyperemia
E. None of the above
- Answer: C
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2003
- The nodes of Ranvier:
A. Occur only in the CNS
B. Contain few Na+-gated channels
C. Represent the midpoints of myelination segments
D. Are completely covered by myelin
E. Increase the effi ciency of nerve conduction
- Answer: E
Explanation:
(Junqueira, 9/e, pp 170, 171,174. Kandel, 4fe, pp21-22,
148, 160.)
B. Most of the Na+ -gated channels are located in the bare
areas.
Therefore, spread of depolarization from the nodal
region along the axon occurs until it reaches the next node.
This is often described as a series of jumps from node to
node, or saltatory conduction.
C. The nodes of Ranvier represent the space between
adjacent units of myelination.
D. This area is bare in the CNS, whereas in the PNS the
axons in the nodes are partially covered by the cytoplasmic
tongues of adjacent Schwann cells.
E. The nodes of Ranvier increase the effi ciency of nodal
conduction because of restriction of energy-dependent
Na+ infl ux to the node.
Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
215. Properties of pain stimulus modality and anatomic localization are primarily conveyed along which afferent pathway? A. Neospinothalamic tract B. Paleospinothalamic tract C. Medial lemniscal tract D. None of the above E. All of the above
- Answer: A
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2003
- The cells responsible for the entry of human
immunodefi ciency virus (HIV) into the CNS are
A. Microglial macrophages
B. Astrocytes (astroglia)
C. Oligodendrocytes (oligodendroglia)
D. Endothelial cells
E. Schwann cells
- Answer: A
Explanation:
(Kandel, 4/e, p 20. Braunwald, 15/e, pp 1873, 1890-1891.)
Microglia are the macrophages of the brain. They become
infected with HIV and carry the virus into the CNS. The
virus remains latent until a stimulus activates viral
production. These cells are the most conspicuous elements
of HIV-induced CNS pathology. Infection, proliferation,
and fusion of microglia/macrophages appear to be
involved in the development of giant cell encephalitis of
acquired immune defi ciency syndrome (AIDS) and other
pathologies associated with neuronal damage in AIDS
dementia. The CNS effects of AIDS are extensive as
indicated by the fact that 90% of AIDS patients show
abnormalities in the cerebrospinal fl uid (CSF), even in
asymptomatic stages of the disease.
Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
- Discriminatory localization and intensity of pain appear
to be primarily processed in which supratentorial area?
A. Hypothalamus
B. VPL thalamus
C. Reticular formation
D. Primary somesthetic cortex
E. All of the above
- Answer: D
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2003
- Activation of transducin by light activates an enzyme
which
A. Hydrolyzes cGMP
B. Increases the dark current
C. Activates adenyl cyclase
D. Releases calcium from intracellular stores
E. Depolarizes the membrane
- Answer: A
Explanation:
(Rhoades, pp 73-76.) Transducin is the G protein that
mediates the response to light by rods and cones in the eye. When transducin is activated, it activates an enzyme that hydrolyzes cyclic GMP (cGMP). In the dark, cGMP binds
to Na+ channels, keeping them open. The fl ow of Na+
through these channels keeps the rods and cones
depolarized. The activation of transducin by light and the
subsequent hydrolysis of cGMP cause the Na+ channels to
close and the membrane to hyperpolarize.
Hyperpolarization of the membrane prevents the release
of an inhibitory transmitter by the rods and cones, which
ultimately results in stimulation of optic nerve fi bers and
the awareness of a visual image.
- Which one of the following hypothalamic nuclei is
responsible for the detection of the core body
A. The lateral hypothalamus
B. The arcuate nucleus
C. The posterior nucleus
D. The paraventricular nucleus
E. The anterior hypothalamus
- Answer: E
Explanation:
(Guyton, pp 826-830.) The hypothalamus regulates body
temperature. Core body temperature, the temperature of
the deep tissues of the body, is detected bythermoreceptors
located within the preoptic area and the anterior
hypothalamic nuclei. The preoptic area also contains
neurons responsible for initiating refl exes, such as
vasodilation and sweating, which are designed to reduce
body temperature. Heat -producing refl exes, such as
shivering, and head maintenance refl exes, such as
vasoconstriction, are initiated by neurons located within
the posterior hypothalamus.
- When an axon is cut, rapid local degeneration of the
axon and myelin sheath occur, as well as changes in the
cell body that affect synapses with other neurons. This
pattern of degeneration is caused by
A. Gliosis
B. Axonal transport
C. Phagocytosis
D. Excitatory neurotransmitters
E. Depolarization
- Answer: B
Explanation:
(Kandel, pp 730-735.)
When the axon is cut, the axon and synaptic terminals
are deprived of essential metabolic connections with the
cell body. With axonal transport in both directions, there is
a rapid local degeneration of the axon and myelin sheath,
with the cell body also being affected.
Synapses mediate both electric signals and nutritive
interactions between neurons. Thus, changes occur in the
cell body (retrograde changes) and also in subsequent
neurons that receive synapses from the damaged neurons.
Macrophages from the general circulation enter the
trauma area and phagocytose axonal debris, and glial
cells (astrocytes and microglia) proliferate to assist in the
process. This proliferation of fi brous astrocytes forms a
glial scar around the trauma area, which can then block
the course of regenerating axons and the reformation of
central connections.
The behavioral effects of nerve lesions are peculiar to
the location of the lesion in the brain and the nerve cell
connections, so the same type of injury will have different
behavioral effects depending on its location
Source: Ebert 2004
- What is the principal role of the descending serotonergic
system in pain processing?
A. Activation of polysynaptic interneuronal systems within
the spinal analgesic neuraxis
B. Direct inhibition of primary and second-order afferent
fi bers within the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
- Answer: C
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2003
- As a general practice
A. Opiate maintenance dosing should be discontinued
prior to trial of SCS
B. Antibiotics prophylaxis should be delivered when implanting
devices
C. Patients should be considered for neurostimulation
without a preoperative psychological assessment
D. Intrathecal drug delivery should be initiated with ziconotide
as a primary infusion
E. Trial of patients for chronic neuromodulation should not
be done by the individual who will maintain the device
- Answer: B
Source: Feler C, Board Review 2005
- In skeletal muscle contraction, the “powerstroke” is
initiated by
A. The initial binding of ATP to the myosin heads
B. Release of Pi from the myosin heads
C. Detachment of the myosin head from the actin
D. Phosphorylation of the myosin light chains
E. Release of ADP and subsequent addition of an ATP molecule
- Answer: B
Explanation:
(Alberts, 3/e, pp 851-853. Junqueira, 9/e, pp 185-190.) The
“powerstroke” is initiated by the release of Pi from the
myosin heads, leading to the tight binding of actin and
myosin. The tight binding induces a conformational
change in the myosin head. The myosin head subsequently
pulls against the actin fi lament to cause the “powerstroke”
of the myosin head walking along the actin fi lament. This
walking process is unidirectional and is based on the
polarity of the actin fi lament (i.e., walking occurs from the
minus to the plus end of the actin fi lament). The cycle of
ATP-actin-myosin interactions during contraction begins
with the resting state. In the quiescent period,ATP binds to
myosin heads; however, hydrolysis occurs slowly and only
allows the weak binding of myosin heads to the actin
fi laments. Tight binding occurs only when Pi is released
from myosin heads, leading to the “powerstroke.”
Recycling occurs through the release of ADP and the
subsequent addition of an ATP molecule and detachment
of the myosin head from actin. Rigor results from the lack
of ATP because one ATP molecule is required for each
myosin molecule present in the muscle. Rigor mortis
occurs from the total absence of ATP.
Myosin is composed of two coiled heavy chains and four
light chains.
It may be separated into heavy and light meromyosin by
enzymatic treatment. Heavy meromyosin has two
segments: S1 (the globular head region) and S2. The S1
subfragment includes the light chains that are associated
with the globular head regions. This region is signifi cant
because it is the site of the actin binding that activates
ATPase activity. S2 is a dimeric population of the myosin
molecule that connects the two S1 segments to the coiled
light meromyosin subunit. The P light chain is one of the
two light
chains associated with the globular heads and is
phosphorylated by myosin light chain kinase. In skeletal
muscle, phosphorylation of the light chain is not required
for binding to actin.
Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
224.The striatum is formed by all of the following structures EXCEPT the A. Caudate nucleus B. Globus pallidus C. Olfactory tubercles D. Nucleus accumbens E. Substantia innominata
- Answer: B
Explanation:
The striatum is the main receiving station for the basal
ganglia. It receives massive projections from all areas of
the cerebral cortex and from certain thalamic nuclei, the
substantia nigra, and other brain stem nuclei. The caudate
nucleus and the putamen are the largest of the nuclei
composing the striatum.The ventral striatum consists of
the ventral portion of the caudate nucleus, the putamen,
the deep layers of the olfactory tubercle, the nucleus
accumbens, and the substantia innominata. Although the
nucleus accumbens and the substantia innominata are
frequently referred to as parts of the olfactory system, they
play an important functional role in the basal ganglia.
(Afi fi and Bergman, 275-294)
Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By
Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
225.The ascending noradrenergic pathway can engage
sympathetic nervous system function
A. Only through indirect activation of preganglionic sympathetic
neurons
B. Only by direct activation of sensory associative areas in
the S-II somatosensory cortex
C. Via inhibition of the insular-anterior cingulate pathway
D. Only by engaging the thalamic intralaminar nucleus
E. By engagement of amygdalar, insular and hypothalamic
paraventricular substrates
- Answer: E
Explanation:
Reference:
Bonica’s Management of Pain, 3rd Ed: Ch4. Spinal
mechanisms and modulation.The ascending noradrenergic
pathway is activated via input from the paleo-spinal
thalamic tract. Ascending noradrenergic fi bers from the
reticolumagnocellular group (RMC), together with PSTT
fi bers project to the parabrachial nucleus to engage the
amygdala, insula, cingulate and ultimately, hypothalamic
paraventricular nucleus to evoke sympathetic nervous
system activity. As well, the intra-laminar nucleus of the
thalamus can be activated by both NEneurons of the RMC
and the PSTT to engage hypothalamic-sympathetic
activation. Thus, multiple pathways can be activated by the
ascending NE tracts to act singularly or in concert through
the hypothalamus to engage sympathetic neural output.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- Which of the following is (are) true?
A. Neurostimulation is appropriate in patients with PVD
B. Neurostimulation is not appropriate in patients with
angina
C. Neurostimualtion is useful in all patients with low back
pain.
D. All of the above.
E. Two of the above
- Answer: E
Source: Feler C, Board Review 2005
- Neuromodulation should be considered in patients who
have no other remaining therapeutic opportunities.
A. If they have a life expectancy of greater than one
month.
B. If the pain is in the back, not the extremity
C. If the pain is in the leg but not the back.
D. If the pathophysiology is appropriate for the therapy.
E. If the patient’s insurance will cover the procedure
- Answer: D
Source: Feler C, Board Review 2005
- Contrasting neurostimulation with intraspinal drug
delivery:
A. Neurostimulation is superior in the treatment of neuropathic
pain phenomenon.
B. Intraspinal drug delivery has a higher rate of signifi cant
complications
C. Intraspsinal drug delivery is superior in the treatment
of nociceptive pain phenomenon
D. All of the above.
- Answer: D
Source: Feler C, Board Review 2005
- The EKG of a patient who is receiving digitalis in the
therapeutic dose range would be likely to show
A. Prolongation of the QT interval
B. Prolongation of the PR interval
C. Symmetric peaking of the T wave
D. Widening of the QRS complex
E. Elevation of the ST segment
- Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference: Hardman, pp 813-814.
The usual electro cardiographic pattern of a patient
receiving therapeutic doses of digitalis includes an
increase in the PR interval, depression and sagging of the
ST segment, and occasional biphasia or inversion of the T
wave. Symmetrically peaked T waves are associated with
hyperkalemia or ischemia in most cases. Shortening of the
QT interval, rather than prolongation, is characteristic of
digitalis treatment.
Source: Stern - 2004
230. Failed back surgery syndrome patients should be considered for SCS: A. If that is their diagnosis B. If they hurt in their back C. If they hurt in their leg D. If they have neuropathic pain E. If they have segmental instability
- Answer: D
Source: Feler C, Board Review 2005
- Lissauer’s tract is:
A. Composed of A-delta and C-fi bers which are ascending
and descending in the superfi cial apex of the dorsal
horn prior to synapsing with dorsal horn interneurons.
B. The lateral ascending spinal tract which connects dorsal
horn interneurons to supraspinal centers.
C. The posterior descending tract which connects inhibitory
supraspinal centers to dorsal horn neurons
D. The tract which transmits pain signals from one side of
the spinal cord to the other
E. Connects post-ganglionic sympathetic fi bers to the spinal nerve.
- Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference:
Bonica’s Management of Pain, Third Edition, Chapter 3,
Spinal Mechanisms and their Modulation. pp. 74-76.
A. Lissauer described a tract running in the superfi cial
apex of the dorsal horn that differed in microscopic
appearance from the rest of the cord. Ablation of this tract
created analgesia in experimental animals. Later study
revealed that this tract contained the axons of A-delta and
C-fi bers that were entering the cord from the periphery.
These fi bers ascended and descended for one or more
segments in the tract prior to synapsing with dorsal horn
interneurons.
B. The lateral spinothalamic tract and other ventrolateral
cell columns connect dorsal horn interneurons to
supraspinal centers.
C. The posterior spinal columns transmit mainly tactile
information from large, fast conducting A-beta fi bers.
E. Pre-ganglionic sympathetic fi bers enter the sympathetic
ganglion via the gray rami communicantes while postganglionic
sympathetic fi bers exit the ganglion and enter
the spinal nerve through the white rami communicantes.
Source: Schultz D, Board Review 2004
- Catheter tip granuloma:
A. Have been reported to occur with morphine infusion
B. Is thought to occur in at least 1% of the pump population.
C. Must be treated surgically
D. All of the above.
E. Two of the above.
- Answer: E
Source: Feler C, Board Review 2005
233. FDA approved indications for SCS include A. CRPS 1 B. CRPS 2 C. Angina D. Two of the above E. None of the above
- Answer: E
Source: Feler C, Board Review 2005
234. Chronic Intraspinal drug delivery most commonly is accomplished with: A. One drug B. Two drug C. Three drug D. Non-programmable pump E. An epidural catheter
- Answer: A
Source: Feler C, Board Review 2005
- Paddle leads offer which of the following advantages over
percutaneous leads:
A. Increased power requirements
B. Decreased paresthesia overlap for an equivalent array
C. Greater array stability
D. Facilitated implant method
E. User fl exibility in array construction
- Answer: C
Source: Feler C, Board Review 2005
236. The principal efferent neuron layer of the cerebral neocortex is A. II B. III C. IV D. V E. VI
- Answer: D
Explanation:
The cerebral neocortex has a laminar pattern of
organization because of the distribution and size of
neuronal cells and the horizontal pattern of incoming
efferents. It is divided into six layers: Layer I,. primarily a
synaptic area, is the molecular layer. It is the most
superfi cial layer of the cerebral cortex; its most
characteristic cells are horizontal cells.Layer II,the external
granular layer, is characterized by an abundance of
small, densely packed neurons and a paucity of myelinated
fi bers. The dendrites of neurons in this layer project to
layer I, while their axons project to deeper layers. Layer III,
the external pyramidal layer, contains medium-large
pyramidal cells and granule cells. Axons of most
pyramidal cells descend through the cortex, forming
cortical association fi bers, both callosal and
intrahemispherical. Layer IV, the internal granular layer, is
the principal receiving station of the cerebral cortex.
Layer V, the internal pyramidal layer, is the principal
efferent layer of the cortex. This layer contains pyramidal
cells that send their axons through the cortical white
matter to the internal capsule and all subcortical sites
except the thalamus, which receives fi bers from Layer VI.
Layer VI, the fusiform layer, contains fusiform and
pyramidal cells, which are the principal source of
corticothalamic fi bers and contribute to the
intrahemispheric cortical association fi bers. (Afi fi and
Bergman, 340-343; Burt, 451-452)
Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By
Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
- In muscular dystrophy, the actin-binding protein
dystrophin is absent or defective. Dystrophin contains
similar actin-binding domains to the spectrins (I and
II) and a-actinin and has a similar function. Which of
the following is most likely to occur as a result of this
defi ciency?
A. Defi ciency in skeletal muscle actin synthesis
B. Enhanced smooth muscle contractility
C. Loss of binding of the I and M bands to the cell membrane
D. Loss of organelle and vesicle transport throughout the
muscle cell
E. Loss of integrity of the desmosomal components of the
intercalated discs of cardiac muscle
- Answer: C
Explanation:
(Alberts, 31e, p 855. Braunwald, 15/e pp 2529-25. Kumar, 6/e, pp 689-690.) Dystrophin, like these other actinbinding
proteins, binds actin to the skeletal muscle
membrane and, therefore, binds I and M bands to the cell
membrane. The inability to bind actin to
plasma membrane of skeletal muscle leads to disruption of
the contraction process, weakness of muscle, and
abnormal running, hopping, and jumping. Gowers’
maneuver is the method used by persons suffering from
muscular dystrophy to stand from a sitting position.
Respiratory failure occurs in these persons because of
disruption of diaphragmatic function.Dystrophin is found
in muscle of all types and is part of a complex that
regulates interactions of the sarcolemma with the
extracellular matrix through associated glycoproteins
(dystrophin -glycoprotein complex). Therefore, loss of
dystrophin causes a destabilization of the sarcolemma.
Muscular dystrophy refers to a group of progressive
hereditary disorders (1/3500 male births) that involve
mutations in the dystrophin gene. Dystrophin is similar in
structure to spectrins I and II and a-actinin. Dystrophin is
absent in Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Becker muscular
dystrophy is a less severe dystrophy in which dystrophin is
defective. Synthesis of actin is not reduced in skeletal
muscle from these patients; in fact, hypertrophy and
pseudohypertrophy (replacement of muscle with
connective tissue and fat) occurs. Microtubules perform
vesicular and organelle transport functions, and
intermediate fi laments not actin form the intracellular
connection in desmosomes.
Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
- In patient who has had attacks of paroxysmal atrial
tachycardia, an ideal prophylactic drug is
A. Adenosine
B. Procainamide
C. Lidocaine
D. Nifedipine
E. Verapamil
- Answer: E
Explanation:
Reference: Hardman, pp 858-874
Because verapamil, a Ca channel blocker, has a selective
depressing action on AV nodal tissue, it is an ideal drug for
both immediate and prophylactic therapy of
supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Nifedipine, another
Ca channel blocker, has little effect on SVT. Lidocaine and
adenosine are parenteral drugs with short half-lives and,
thus are not suitable for prophylactic therapy.
Procainamide is more suitable for ventricular arrhythmias
and has the potential for serious adverse reactions with
long-term use.
Source: Stern - 2004
239. The FDA approved drugs for chronic intrathecal drug delivery through a pump are: A. Morphine B. Bupivicaine C. Lioresal D. Prialt E. Three of the above
- Answer: E
Source: Feler C, Board Review 2005
- Following exposure to acute high threshold thermal
stimulation, what event is likely in local population(s) of
C-fi ber afferents?
A. Rightward shift in their response curve
B. Leftward shift in their response curve
C. A prolonged latency period during which they are nonresponsive
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
- Answer: B
Explanation:
C-fi bers show sensitization following exposure to acute
thermal stimli; this leads to enhanced temporal activation
and a decrease in sensitivity threshold to both noxious and
non-noxious stimuli.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- In primary nociceptive afferents, excitatory conduction
is mediated by
A. A-2 purinoreceptors
B. Trk B receptors for nerve growth factor
C. Selective Na (v)1.8 and Na (v)1.9 cationic channels
D. The Silent Nociceptor which is not sensitized
E. All of the above
- Answer: C
Explanation:
There are specifi c sodium channels that mediate the propagation and conductance of the action potential in
nociceptive afferents; these have been identifi ed using
molecular biological techniques that have elucidated their
transcriptional and translational precursors.
A-2 purinoreceptors subserve the transduction of the
nociceptive signal in response to adenosine.
Trk B receptors subserve the transduction of the
nociceptive signal in response to BDNF.
A Silent Nociceptor exists, but, is very diffi cult to activate
under normal circumstance. Easily activated after
sensitization.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- The projections of A-delta primary afferents
A. Is identical to C-fi ber afferents
B. Is Multilaminar within the superfi cial dorsal horn
C. Is exclusive to wide dynamic range neurons
D. A-Delta primary afferents project to laminae III, V and
X
E. All of the above
- Answer: B
Explanation:
A-delta primary afferents project to laminae I, II, and IIa
of the dorsal horn.
This is anatomically distinct from the projection sites of
C-fi bers in that C-fi bers project to lamina V and not I.
A-delta fi bers appear to form synaptic contacts exclusively
upon NS second order neurons.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
243. The neurochemical effect of the 17 amino acid peptide dynorphin (1-17) is post- synaptically mediated by which receptor? A. Mu type 1 B. Delta C. Kappa D. Mu type 3 E. Mu type 2
- Answer: C
Explanation:
Dynorphin is the selective endogenous ligand at the kappa
opioid receptor. Endorphins and met-enkephalin are the
endogenous ligands at mu 1 and 2 receptors.
Leu-enkephalin and to a lesser extent, endorphin, are the
endogenous ligands at delta opioid receptors.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
244. The majority of opioid receptors in the lumbar spinal cord are: A. Mu-1 and /or 2 B. Delta and Kappa C. Sigma D. Mu-3 E. Mu-2
- Answer: B
Explanation:
Autoradiographic, pharmacologic, and molecular biologic
investigations have shown that the lumbar spinal cord
contains primarily delta and kappa type opioid receptors.
Mu opioid receptors are found in highest concentration in
the midbrain, forebrain, and rostral (cervico-thoracic)
spinal cord. Mu-3 receptors have been localized to smooth
muscle and leukocytes.
Sigma (PCP) receptors are primarily supratentorial.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- Which is not a projection site of the neospinothalamic
tract neurons that subtend painful afferent volleys?
A. Nucleus reticularis gigantocellularis
B. Nucleus raphe Magnus
C. Periaqueductal grey region
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
- Answer: D
Explanation:
The NSTT is a direct pathway to the thalamus.
The paleospinothalamic tract (PSTT) projects to the
brainstem raphe and magnocellular nuclei as well as the
mesencephalic PAG region en route to its thalamic
terminations.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
246. In assessing and characterizing pain, the most useful distinctions about the typology of pain can best be made according to: A. Physiological characteristics B. Temporal characteristics C. Subjective characteristics D. Radiological Investigations E. Nerve Conduction studies
- Answer: A
Explanation:
Physiologic distinctions (eg. nociceptive versus
neuropathic)are useful referents that describe the nature of
pain relevant to its typologic classifi cation.
Temporal characteristics (immediate, acute, chronic) are
often laden with ambiguity regarding relative length of time and are of little use in classifying the functional or
pathologic basis of pain.
Subjective characteristics are useful referents in describing
the cognitive dimensions of pain, but may not directly
refl ect underlying neural processes that are explicitly
relevant to pathology for clinical purposes.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
247. The patient who favors a particular area and moves compensatorily to (reduce) pain sensation is said to be exhibiting: A. Guarding B. Allodynia C. Antalgia D. Hyperalgesia E. Dystocia
- Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Guarding is a patient’s reactions to protect or retract a
painful bodily region against contact or insult.
B. Allodynia is the sensation of pain produced by nonnoxious
stimuli and occurs as a consequence of peripheral
and/or central sensitization.
C. Antalgia literally translates as “against pain” and is any
posture or movement that functions to prevent
provocation of nociception.
D. Hyperalgesia is hypersensivity to a painful stimulus
dysthesia is unpleasant abnormal sensation.
E. Dystilosia is abnormal or diffi cult labor.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- Which of the following is involved in glomerular
fi ltration?
A. Facilitated diffusion of large anionic proteins
B. Maintenance of a charge barrier
C. A physical barrier consisting of type II collagen
D. Filtration slits between adjacent endothelial cells
E. A positive charge in the basement membrane due to the
presence of heparan sulfate
- Answer: B
Explanation:
(Junqueira, 9/e, pp 360-364, 372-373.) The glomerular
fi ltration barrier is a physical and charge barrier that
exhibits selectivity based on molecular size and charge.
The barrier is formed by three components: (1)
glomerular capillary endothelial cells, (2) glomerular
basement membrane, and (3) podocyte layer. The presence
of collagen type IV in the lamina densa of the basement
membrane presents a physical barrier to the passage of
large proteins from the blood to the urinary space.
Glycosaminoglycans, particularly heparan sulfate, produce
a polyanionic charge that binds cationic molecules.
Filtration slits are found between adjacent podocyte foot
processes and provide a gap of approximately 50 μm. The
foot processes are coated with a glycoprotein called
podocalyxin, which is rich in sialic acid and provides
mutual repulsion to maintain the structure of the fi ltration
slits. It also possesses a large polyanionic charge for
repulsion of large anionic proteins.
Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
- A known NMDA/Glutamate receptor antagonist agent,
such as topiramate would be most useful against:
A. A-delta mediated thermal pain
B. C-fi ber mediated neuropathic pain
C. C-fi ber mediated mechanical nociceptive pain
D. A-delta mediated cold
E. All of the above
- Answer: B
Explanation:
C-fi ber mediated neuropathic pain is primarily subserved
by glutamate-induced activation of both NMDA and
mGlu receptors
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- A lesion of the axons of motor neurons that innervate
skeletal muscle (lower motor neurons) will result in
which one of the following consequences?
A. Paralysis of individual muscles on the contralateral side
of the lesion
B. A paradoxical increase in refl ex activity
C. Compensatory increase in muscle mass
D. Increase in muscle tone
E. Sealing off of the axoplasm
- Answer: E
Explanation:
(Kandel, pp 1108-1109.) The cutting of a nerve tract
within the brain or of a peripheral nerve results in the following sequence: both ends of the cut axon immediately
seal off the axoplasm, retract, and begin to swell; there is
rapid degeneration of the axon and the myelin sheath; the
macrophages from the general circulation enter the area
and phagocytose axonal debris; there is also a proliferation
of glial cells, which act as phagocytes; and fi brous
astrocytes proliferate in the central nervous system,which
leads to glial scar formation around the zone of trauma
that often blocks the course taken by regenerating axons
and causes a barrier against the reformation of central
connections. Degeneration spreads along the axon in both
directions from the zone of trauma. The retrograde
reaction in the proximal segment usually progresses a
short distance and appears in the cell body after 2 to 3
days.
In the distal segment, degeneration appears in the axon
terminal in about I day, and within 2 weeks the distal
synapses degenerate completely.
Source: Ebert 2004
- One of the factors that contributes to the induction of
Type-II pain is:
A. “Un-masking” of post-synaptic NMDA receptors within
the algesic neuraxis
B. Down-regulation of AMPA receptors within the spinal
neural circuit
C. Increased serotonergic output from the nucleus reticularis
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
- Answer: A
Explanation:
Glutamate-induced activation of post-synaptic AMPA
receptors “ungates” an ionotropic NMDA receptor that is a
functional substrate of type II pain.
AMPA receptors do not appear to be sensitized or
regulated as a consequence of continued exposure to
glutamate.
Serotonin is produced primarily in neurons of the raphe
nulei, not the nucleus reticularis; increased output of
bulbospinal serotonergic neurons produces analgesia.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- C-fi ber primary afferents
A. Subtend transmission of Polymodal high threshold
stimuli
B. Subtend transmission of high threshold thermal input
only
C. Project exclusively onto Nociceptive specifi c second-order
afferents
D. Project exclusively onto wide dynamic range neurons
E. All of the above
- Answer: A
Explanation:
C-fi bers respond to high threshold thermal, mechanical,
and noxious chemical stimuli.
C-fi bers project to laminae II, IIa, and V and synapse upon
both NS and WDR second order neurons.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- Acute, nociceptive pain:
A. Characteristically causes de novo expression of alpha
adrenergic receptors in dorsal root ganglia
B. Decreases activity in bulbospinal pathways
C. Decreases adrenomedullary effects
D. Can engage sympathetic function to suppress pain perception
through bulbospinal and limbic noradrenergic
mechanisms
E. Induces decreased activity in ventral posterior lateral
and medial nuclear groups of the thalamus
- Answer: Answer D
Explanation:
Reference:
Bonica’s Management of Pain, 3rd Ed: Ch 4. Spinal
mechanisms and modulation.
Acute nociceptive pain can engage bulbospinal
(descending) and ascending noradrenergic pathways to the
limbic system to suppress pain sensation and perception
through inhibition of afferent dorsal horn input and
supratentorial, “attentional analgesia” respectively. Such
pain does not lead to novel expression of alpha adrenergic
receptors in the periphery or DRG, as is commonly seen in
chronic pain.Acute nociceptive pain can enhance
activation of the adrenal medullary system, causing a
release of adrenal opioids that subsequently produce
analgesia.As well, such pain directly engages the
neo-and paleo-spinal thalamic tracts to activate the
ventralposteriolateral and medial thalamic nuclei,
respectively.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- The following is true regarding nitric oxide (NO):
A. It is a large molecular neurotransmitter that is actively
transported across neural membrane
B. It induces potent vasoconstriction and is inhibitory to
infl ammatory pain
C. It is a direct product of phosopholipase-A
D. It is localized only within the vascular endothelium
E. It is a rapidly synthesized, small molecular modulator
that is produced in peripheral and central neurons and
can easily diffuse into non-neural tissues
- Answer: E
Explanation:
Reference:
Bonica’s Management of Pain, 3rd Ed: Ch 3. Peripheral
pain mechanisms and nociceptive plasiticity. Nitric oxide
is a small gaseous molecule that is rapidly synthesized in
neural and vascular endothelial tissue via convergent
pathways that ultimately increase the catalytic activity of
nitric oxide synthase. NO easily and passibly diffuses
across neural and vascular membranes and can engage
second messenger signaling systems to initiate
vasodilatation and promote infl ammation and resultant
infl ammatory pain.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- One mechanism through which sympathetic and
nociceptive afferent fi bers can be cross-sensitized is
A. Through remodeling of C-fi ber projections into spinal
sympathetic ganglia
B. By increased production of cyclo-oxygenase-2 in sympathetic
pre-ganglionic fi bers
C. Through ephaptic conduction and/or ionic spread
D. By down-regulation of alpha adrenergic receptors on
peripheral C-fi bers
E. By retraction of C- and A-beta fi ber terminals from
lamina VII
- Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference:
Bonica’s Management of Pain, 3rd Ed: Ch 3. Peripheral
pain mechanisms and nociceptive plasiticity. Also Bonica’s
Management of Pain,3rd Ed: Ch 4. Spinal mechanisms and
modulation. Nociceptive afferents and sympathetic fi bers
are frequently anatomically co-located, and adjacent
within the dorsal root ganglia and peripheral nerve trunks.
As well, peripheral tissue insult can produce a pathologic
intermingling of nociceptive afferent and sympathetic
fi bers both in neuromas and in non-neuromatous insult.
These anatomically adjacent fi bers can, and frequently do
permit ephaptic conduction signal transmission through
low resistance zones and by ionic spread through shared,
transmembrane ion channels. C-fi ber projections do not
remodel into spinal sympathetic ganglia; sympatheticnociceptive
afferent fi ber interaction is not reliant upon
arachidonic acid cascade (i.e. Cox-2 mediated) products,
and alpha adrenergic receptors are frequently upregulated
on C-fi bers consequential to longitudinal sympathetic
stimulation/sensitization.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- Sympathetically mediated pain
A. Frequently produces temporally- dependent, variable
sudo- and vaso- motor responses
B. Involves a loss of A-beta mechanoreceptors from lamina
II in the dorsal horn
C. Is refl ective of increased number, frequency and duration
of parasympathetic discharge
D. Is explicitly dermatonal
E. Characteristically does not involve thermal effects along
the peripheral nerve territory
- Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference:
Bonica’s Management of Pain, 3rd Ed: Ch 3. Peripheral
pain mechanisms and nociceptive plasiticity.
Sympathetically mediated pain may initially produce
vasodilatation and hyperhydrosis. However, as this pain
persists, loss of vascular tone produces reactive
vasoconstriction and prolong sympathetic actively alters
sudomotor responses to produce a characteristic
anhydrosis. Such thermal and sudomotor effects are not
explicitly dermatonal but frequently involve the territory
of multiple branches of affective peripheral nerve(s).
Characteristically, parasympathetic modulation does not
produce rebound or compensatory effects and the
expression of alpha-adrenergic receptors on peripheral abeta
mechanoreceptors may be an initiative mechanism
that ultimately affects genomic-phenotypic expression and
can enhance a-beta projections into laminae II of the spinal cord. Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- Long term, durable sympathetic activation
A. Can induce expression of alpha-adrenergic receptors on
sensitized C-nociceptive fi bers
B. Produces adrenomedullary mediated pain modulation
C. Causes desensitization of a-beta mechanoreceptors
D. Produces a rightward shift in nociceptive threshold and
fi ring patterns
E. Is functional against neuropathic pain
- Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference:
Bonica’s Management of Pain, 3rd Ed: Ch 3. Peripheral
pain mechanisms and nociceptive plasticity. Also Bonica’s
Management of Pain, 3rd Ed: Ch4. Spinal mechanisms and
modulation. Longitudinal sympathetic activation can
induce denovo expression of alpha adrenergic receptors on
(chemically pre-sensitized) nociceptive C-fi ber afferents
and a-beta mechanoreceptors. Direct stimulation of these
alpha-receptors by epinephrine released from sympathetic
terminals can sensitize a-beta mechanoreceptors,produce a
leftward shift in fi ring thresholds of a-beta and C-fi bers
and induce both peripheral and ultimately central
sensitization. Chronic sympathetic activation does not
produce stress induced modulation of nociceptive or
neuropathic pain.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
- An increase in the output of a primary and/or secondorder
pain afferent as a consequence of increased
stimulation over a broader surface area of the affected
region is known as:
A. Temporal summation
B. Allodynia
C. Spatial summation
D. Cross-sensitization
E. All of the above
- Answer: C
Explanation:
Pain afferents are capable of summating output as a
consequence of enhanced stimulation of numerous
transductive receptors within their receptive fi eld(s). This
is known as spatial summation; the greater the surface area
stimulated,the greater the response output (amplitude and
duration) of the respective nociceptive afferent.
Temporal summation involves an increased number of
noxious stimuli activating the receptive fi eld of a given
nociceptor per unit time.
Allodynia is the sensation of pain produced by nonnoxious
stimuli as a result of nociceptor sensitization.
Cross-sensitization involves the enhanced sensitivity of a
nociceptor to distinct noxious stimuli following activation
by another type of noxious stimuli. This process is due to
enhanced transcription, translation, and expression of
multiple membrane receptors that subserve transduction
of distinct, specifi c noxious input.
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2005
259. An absent ankle refl ex in a 35 year-old patient with acuteonset radicular pain would most likely involve which nerve root? A. L3 B. L4 C. L5 D. S1 E. S2
- Answer: D
Source: (Raj, Pain Review, 2nd Ed., page 68)
- The following is true regarding nitric oxide:
A. It is preformed in the presynaptic terminal and stored in
vesicles prior to release.
B. It is considered a large molecule neurotransmitter and is
actively transported across neural synapses.
C. It is synthesized in the postsynaptic terminal by the enzyme
cyclo-oxygenase.
D. It is found only in the dorsal horn
E. It is synthesized almost instantly in the presynaptic
terminal and then diffuses into adjacent postsynaptic
neurons.
- Answer: E
Explanation:
Reference:
Bonica’s Management of Pain, Third Edition, Chapter 3,
Peripheral Pain Mechanisms and Nociceptor Plasticity. pp.
40-42.
Nitrous oxide is a diffusible gas with numerous
intracellular and extracellular effects. It is considered a
small molecule neurotransmitter but it differs from other
neurotransmitters in that it is not stored in vesicles.
Instead it is synthesized almost instantly as needed within
the presynaptic terminal by the action of the enzyme nitric
oxide synthase. Once created it diffuses out of the presynaptic terminal within seconds and diffuses into
adjacent neurons to affect numerous intracellular
metabolic processes which modify neuronal excitability
for seconds, minutes or longer. The actions of nitric oxide
early in the infl ammatory response are largely protective
with facilitation of blood fl ow, moderation of cell toxicity
and scavenging of reactive oxygen molecules. Later in the
infl ammatory cascade, nitric oxide becomes damaging and
cytotoxic. Nitric oxide is thought to be involved in the
development of neuropathic pain states. It is prevalent in
various tissues including brain, gonads and dorsal horn.
Source: Schultz D, Board Review 2004
261. The precentral gyrus and corticospinal tract are essential for A. Vision B. Olfaction C. Auditory identifi cation D. Kinesthesia E. Voluntary movement
- Answer: E
Explanation:
(Guyton, pp 638-640.) The precentral gyrus is the motor
area of the cortex and the corticospinal tract is the
pyramidal tract proper. These two structures are essential
for voluntary movement. A supplementary motor area,
whose function is still unknown, exists on the medial side
of the hemisphere.
262. The middle cerebellar peduncle contains afferent fi bers conveyed in the following tracts A. Dorsal spinocerebellar B. Ventral spinocerebellar C. Tectocerebellar D. Pontocerebellar E. Vestibulocerebellar
- Answer: D
Explanation:
(Guyton, pp 648-650.) The middle cerebellar peduncle
contains afferent fi bers conveyed in the pontocerebellar
tract, which carries impulses from the motor area as well
as other parts of the cerebellar cortex except the
fl occulonodular lobe. The dorsal spinocerebellar and
vestibulocerebellar afferent tracts enter the cerebellum via
the inferior peduncle. The ventral spinocerebellar and
tectocerebellar tracts enter via the superior cerebellar
peduncle.
- At the neuromuscular junction, action potentials are
coupled to neurotransmitter release by voltage-gated
A. Ca2+ channels
B. Na+ channels
C. K+ channels
D. Cl- channels
E. Gap junctions between the presynaptic terminal and the
muscle cell
- Answer: A
Explanation:
(Junqueira, 9/e, pp 157-159,186,194. Kandel, 4/e, pp
43,175-177, 183, 210-211.)
A. Ca2+ entry through specifi c channels results in fusion
of acetylcholine-containing synaptic vesicles with the
presynaptic membrane and ultimately the release of
neurotransmitter. Neuromuscular, or myoneural,
junctions represent the site at which end feet (boutons
terminaux) come in close proximity to the surface of
muscle cells. The arrangement is similar to that found in a
synapse, and a neuromuscular junction can be considered
the best-studied synapse.
Ca2+ infl ux into the end feet may have a direct effect on
phosphorylation of synapsin I, a vesicular membrane
protein, which in its nonphosphorylated state blocks
vesicle fusion with the presynaptic membrane.
B, C, D. Na+,K+ , and Cl-voltage-gated channels are
involved in the transmission of a nerve impulse but are
not involved in the coupling of the action potential ( an
electrical signal) to neurotransmitter release (a chemical
alteration).
Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
264. Which of the following is absent from smooth muscle cells? A. Troponin B. Calmodulin C. Calcium D. Myosin light chain kinase E. Actin and tropomyosin interactions similar to skeletal muscle
- Answer: A
Explanation:
(Alberts, 3/e, pp 856-857. Junqueira, 9/e,) Smooth muscle
is the least specialized type of muscle and contains no
troponin. The contractile process is similar to the actinmyosin
interactions that occur in motility of nonmuscle
cells. In the smooth muscle cell, actin and myosin are
attached to intermediate fi laments at dense bodies in the
sarcolemma and cytoplasm.Dense bodies contain a-actinin
and, therefore, resemble the Z lines of skeletal muscle.
Contraction causes cell shortening and a change in shape
from elongate to globular. Contraction occurs by a sliding
fi lament action analogous to the mechanism used by thick
and thin fi laments in striated muscle. The connections to
the plasma membrane allow all the smooth muscle cells in
the same region to act as a functional unit. Sarcoplasmic
reticulum is not as well developed as that in the striated
muscles. There are no T tubules present; however,
endocytic vesicles called caveolae are believed to function
in a fashion similar to the T tubule system of skeletal
muscle.
When intracellular calcium levels increase, the calcium is
bound to the calcium-binding protein calmodulin. Ca2+ -
calmodulin is required and is bound to myosin light chain
kinase to form a Ca2+-calmodulin-kinase complex. This
complex catalyzes the phosphorylation of one of the two
myosin light chains on the myosin heads. This
phosphorylation allows the binding of actin to myosin. A
specifi c phosphatase dephosphorylates the myosin light
chain, which returns the actin and myosin to the inactive,
resting state.The actin-tropomyosin interactions are
similar in smooth and skeletal muscle.
Smooth muscle cells (e.g., vascular smooth muscle cells)
also differ from skeletal muscle cells in that they are
capable of collagen, elastin, and proteoglycan synthesis,
which is usually associated with fi broblasts.
Source: Klein RM and McKenzie JC 2002.
- The principal action of the Quadratus Lumborum muscle
is:
A. Lateral fl exion of the lumbar spine
B. Axial rotation of the lumbar spine
C. Extension of the lumbar spine
D. Fixation of the 12th rib during respiration
E. Lateral rotation of the lumbar spine
- Answer: D
Explanation:
D. The principal action of the Quadratus Lumborum (QL)
muscle is to fi x the 12th rib during respiration. It is a weak
lateral fl exor of the lumbar spine.
The QL is a fl at rectangular muscle that arises below
from the iliolumbar ligament and the adjacent iliac crest.
The insertion is into the lower border of the twelfth
rib and the transverse processes of the upper four lumbar
vertebrae.
Patients usually present with low back pain.
They have diffi culty turning over in bed, increased
pain with standing upright. Coughing or sneezing may
exacerbate their pain.
Source: Chopra P, 2004
- Which of the following is an antiarrhythmic agent that
has relatively few electrophysiologic effects on normal
myocardial tissue but suppresses the arrhythmogenic
tendencies of ischemic myocardial tissues?
A. Propranolol
B. Procainamide
C. Quinidine
D. Lidocaine
E. Disopyramide
- Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: Hardman, pp 865-867
Lidocaine usually shortens the duration of the action
potential and, thus, allows more time for recovery during
diastole. It also blocks both activated and inactivated Na
channels. This has the effect of minimizing the action of
lidocaine on normal myocardial tissues as contrasted with
depolarized ischemic tissues. Thus lidocaine is particularly
suitable for arrhythmias arising during ischemic episodes
such as myocardial infarction (MI).
Source: Stern - 2004
- The mechanism of the transcutaneous electrical nerve
stimulation (TENS) in relieving pain is
A. Direct electrical inhibition of type A-delta and C fi bers
B. Depletion of neurotransmitter in nociceptors
C. Hyperpolarization of spinothalamic tract neurons
D. Activation of inhibitory neurons
E. Distortion of nociceptors
- Answer: D
Explanation:
Transcutaneous nerve stimulation is low-intensity, mixedfrequency
(2 and 100 Hz) electrical stimulation that is
thought to produce analgesia by releasing endorphins.
This technique is effective in treating nociceptive and
deafferentation syndromes by a mechanism that is not
reversed by naloxone. The mechanism is thought to be
activation of inhibitory neurons and/or release of
endogenous opiates.
Source: Hall and Chantigan.
- The intensity of a signal that is transmitted to the brain
can be increased by increasing the frequency of impulses
traveling along a single fi ber. This is called
A. spatial summation
B. after-discharge
C. temporal summation
D. recruitment
E. saltatory conduction
- Answer: C
Explanation:
The overall pattern of several impulses relaying similar
information is termed a signal.
A. The intensity of signal (such as pain) that is transmitted
to the brain can be increased by increasing the number of
parallel fi bers participating (spatial summation).
B. After-discharge is production of output signals for
prolonged periods by a single input stimulus.
C. An intensity of signal (such as pain) that is transmitted
to the brain can be increased by increasing the frequency
of impulses traveling along a single fi ber is called temporal
summation.
D. The increase in the number of participating fi bers as the
intensity of a signal increases is termed recruitment.
E. Saltatory conduction is the process of successive
excitation of nodes of Ranvier by an impulse that jumps
between successive nodes.
269. Acute intermittent porphyria is a contraindication of the use of A. Enfl urane B. Nitrous oxide (N2O) C. Ketamine D. Diazepam E. Thiopental
- Answer: E
Explanation:
Reference: Hardman, p 323.
Induction of anesthesia by parenteral administration of
thiopental sodium and other barbiturates is absolutely
contraindicated in patients who have acute intermittent
porphyria. These patients have a defect in regulation of
delta-aminolevulinic acid synthetase; thus, administration
of barbiturate that increases this enzyme may cause a
dangerous increase in levels of porphyrins. Administration
of a barbiturate would exacerbate the symptoms of
gastrointestinal and neurologic disturbances, cause extensive demyelination of peripheral and cranial nerves,
and could lead to death.
Source: Stern - 2004
270. Of all the following endocrine glands, which one is not subject to control by the brain? A. Pancreatic islets B. Pituitary C. Parathyroid D. Thyroid E. Adrenal
- Answer: C
Explanation:
(Baum, pp 569-570.)
B. Most glands receive either direct neural control from
the brain or indirect control from hormones secreted by
the hypothalamus.
C. The parathyroids are notably free of brain control; in
regulating calcium metabolism, they in turn are regulated
by blood levels of calcium.
D. Thyroid secretion is subject to hypothalamic control,
whereas insulin secretion depends in part on adrenergic
infl uence from the autonomic nervous system.
Source: Ebert 2004
- The fact that the pituitary secretion of endorphins is
closely linked to the secretion of adrenocorticotropic
hormone (ACTH) suggests that endorphins facilitate the
ability to respond to
A. Retarded growth
B. Hypertension
C. Stress
D. Chronic Pain
E. Tachycardia
- Answer: C
Explanation:
(Kandel, pp 286-296.)
C. Under stressful conditions, the organism secretes
endorphins and ACTH together. Proopiocortin is a
common precursor.
The close link between endorphins and ACTH suggests
that they serve a mediation function for a closely related
set of adaptation responses.
They can facilitate one’s response to stress and at the
same time help one to withstand pain and mobilize for
coping activity to deal with the stressful challenge or
threat. Almost every physical stress agent increases plasma
levels of ß-endorphin as well as adrenocorticotropin and
corticosterone.
Source: Ebert 2004
- The most common organic explanation for a sleep
disturbance in a healthy person is:
A. Disruption of normal circadian rhythms
B. Accumulation of hepatic enzymes
C. Overarousal and high activity during the day
D. Suppressed REM sleep
E. Misuse of hypnotics
- Answer: A
Explanation:
(Kandel, pp 936-947.)
The two most frequent organic causes are disruption of
normal circadian rhythms and the inevitable consequences
of aging.
A. The most common disruptions of normal circadian
rhythms are related to travel (Jet lag) and behavioral
changes in one’s normal daily routine, such as napping,
irregular sleep hours and conditions, alteration in meal
times, and unusual work schedules.
The most common psychosocial cause of insomnia is
emotional disturbance
Normal aging is the next most common factor as it is
more diffi cult to reset one’s biologic clock the older one
gets. It has been estimated that most people over age 60
sleep only about 5.5 h per day, and since stage 4 NREM sleep also declines with age, the lighter stages of NREM
` sleep allow the person to awaken more often, sometimes
generating the worry that one cannot sleep or that one is
not getting enough sleep.
B. Accumulation of hepatic enzymes is a frequent side
effect of prolonged use
273. The theory of pain that states that psychological processes directly exert infl uence on the pain perception process is the A. Gate control theory B. Nociception theory C. Specifi city theory D. Polymodal nociceptor theory E. Pattern theory
- Answer: A
Explanation:
A complex pathway allows opportunities for alteration
and modulation of the incoming pain signals by other
signals, including the inhibiting impulses that descend
from the brain.
A.The gate control theory proposes that there is a structure
in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord that acts as a gate for
increasing or decreasing nerve impulse fl ow from the
peripheral fi bers to the central nervous system. This
allows sensory input to be reviewed and modifi ed at the
gate before it evokes pain. Sensory input is increased or
decreased by the activity of large diameter fi bers (Aß
fi bers), small diameter fi bers (Ad and C fi bers), and
descending fi bers from the brain.
Impulses from the large fi bers can close the gate, inhibiting
transmission, while activity from the small fi bers can open
the gate to enhance transmission.
Efferent impulses from the brain provide further
infl uence and the access route for the psychological
processes of anxiety, depression, attention, and past
experience to alter the gate and thus directly infl uence the
pain perception process.
When the output of the spinal cord T cells exceeds a
critical threshold level, neuromechanisms are activated
that are responsible for both pain perception and
behavioral responses to the pain.
B. Nociceptors are nerve endings that transmit pain.
C. The specifi city theory states that there are specifi c
sensory receptors for touch, warmth, and pain.
D. Polymodal nociceptors are nerves that maximally
respond to mechanical and temperature stimulation.
E. The pattern theory states that pain sensations are the
result of nerve impulse patterns being transmitted from
and coded at the peripheral site.
(Baum, pp 313-321.)
Source: Ebert 2004
274. A patient with ulcerative colitis is best treated with A. Celecoxib B. Naproxen C. Sulfasalazine D. Infl iximab E. Penicillamine
- Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference: Katzung, pp 612, 1073.
Sulfasalazine is a dervative of sulfapyridine and 5-
aminosalicylic acid. It is not signifi cantly absorbed
following oral administration. The 5-aminosalicyclic acid
moiety is released by intestinal bacterial action.
Slefasalazine is more effective in maintaining than causing
remission in ulcerative colitis. Celocoxib (a selective
cyclooxygenase inhibitor), infl iximab ( a chimeric
monoclonal antibody), and penicillamine (an analogue of
cysteine) have a role in the treatment of rheumatoid
arthritis. Naproxen a nonselective cyclooxygenase
inhibitor, is indicated for usual rheumatological
indications.
Source: Stern - 2004
- A patient presents with an acute onset of lateral upper
arm pain. On physical exam there is a weakness on
resisted shoulder external rotation and abduction, loss
of sensation overlying a portion of the lateral aspect of
the shoulder and proximal shoulder, and blunting of the
biceps refl exes. Neck rotation and lateral fl exion worsens
the arm pain. An MRI of the neck confi rms the presence
of a paracentral disc protrusion at which level?
A. C4-5
B. C5-6
C. C6-7
D. C3-4
E. C7-T1
- Answer: A
Source: (Raj, Pain Review 2nd Ed., page 62).
- A patient presents with an acute onset of pain extending
down to the radial aspect of the arm and complaints of
a ‘numb thumb’. On physical exam there is weakness
elbow fl exion and supination, loss of sensation in the
radial aspect of the forearm and the thumb. There is
blunting of the brachioradialis refl ex. Neck rotation and
lateral fl exion worsens the arm pain. An MRI of the neck
confi rms the presence of a paracentral disc protrusion at
which
A. C4-5
B. C5-6
C. C6-7
D. C3-4
E. C7-T1
- Answer: B
Source: (Raj, Pain Review, 2nd Ed., page 62)
277. Seizures produced by local anesthetics appear to arise from what area of the brain? A. Thalamus B. Geniculate bodies C. Reticular activating system D. Amygdala E. None of the above
- Answer: D
Source: Raj P, Pain medicine - A comprehensive Review -
Second Edition
- A volunteer medical student takes part in a sleep
laboratory experiment in which he is awakened repeatedly
when his electroencephalogram (EEG) indicates that
he has entered rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep. This
disruption of normal sleep is most likely to produce
A. A rebound phenomenon of increased dreaming
B. An increase in anxiety and irritability
C. Acceleration of memory formation of emotionally toned
words
D. A decrement in intellectual function
E. A temporary increase in nightmares
- Answer: A
Explanation:
(Kandel, pp 936-947.)
Paradoxical sleep is a term given to REM sleep, which is
considered paradoxical because its
electroencephalographic pattern resembles that of the alert
waking state. Dreaming occurs during REM sleep.
A. When a person is repeatedly awakened during
dreaming, a dream deprivation occurs and there is a
rebound phenomenon of increased frequency and
lengthening of dreaming when the person is permitted to
sleep normally.
B. The earlier studies suggested the presence of bizarre
behavior, anxiety, irritability, and nightmares.
However, more recent studies have found no such
changes in humans even after 16 days of deprivation of
dream sleep.
C.Dream deprivation does not result in a major
decrement in psychological or intellectual functions (as
does sleep deprivation), but it does appear to retard the
memory formation of emotionally toned words.
Source: Ebert 2004
279. The substantia gelatinosa of the spinal cord is located in A. Lamina I B. Lamina II C. Lamina IV D. Lamina VII E. Lamina IX
- Answer: B
Explanation:
The gray matter of the spinal cord is divided into the 10
laminae of Rexed, which form a cytoarchitectonic map of
this spinal cord that correlates well with synaptic
connections and neurophysiological data. Laminae I, II,
III, and IV encompass most of the dorsal horn, which receives primary sensory fi bers. Lamina I corresponds to
the nucleus postmarginalis, Lamina II corresponds to the
substantia gelatinosa and lamina III and IV correspond to
the nucleus proprius dorsalis. All these nuclei integrate
and modulate sensory information. They relay sensory
information to higher centers like the cerebellum,
thalamus, and brain stem. (Afi fi and Bergman, 66)
Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review by Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
- True statement about most A-delta and C fi bers
A. are myelinated
B. end as free nerve endings
C. terminate in the deep dermis
D. end as specifi c nociceptive receptors
E. terminate in specialized structures
- Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Most A-delta and C fi bers are non-myelinated.
B. Most A-delta and C fi bers end as free nerve endings.
C. A-delta fi bers terminate in the epidermis, while C
fi bers may end in the superfi cial dermis.
D. The transduction of noxious stimulation occurs in the
free nerve ending.
E. They do not terminate in specialized structures.
Source: Kahn and Desio
281. Intradiscal pressure increases with A. Standing in fl exion B. Coughing C. Sneezing D. Over night E. All of the above
- Answer: E
Source: Rozen. Pain Practice: SEP 2001
282. In a hypertensive patient who is taking insulin to treat diabetes, which of the following drugs is to be used with extra caution and advice to the patient? A. Hydralazine B. Prazosin C. Guanethidine D. Propranolol E. Methyldopa
- Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: Hardman, pp 855-856.
Propranolol, as well as other nonselective beta blockers,
tends to slow the rate of recovery in a hypoglycemic attack
caused by insulin. Beta blockers also mask the symptoms
of hypoglycemia and may actually cause hypertension
because of the increased plasma epinephrine in the
presence of a vascular beta2 blockade.
Source: Stern - 2004
- If quinidine and digoxin are administered concurrently,
which of the following effects does quinidine have on
digoxin?
A. The absorption of digoxin from the GI tract is decreased
B. The metabolism of digoxin is prevented
C. The concentration of digoxin in the plasma is increased
D. The effect of digoxin on the AV node is antagonized
E. The ability of digoxin to inhibit the Na+ K+ -stimulated
ATPase is reduced
- Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference: Hardman, pp 870-871.
Quinidine is often given in conjunction with digitalis. It
has been found by pharmacokinetic studies that this
combination results in quinidine’s replacing digitalis in
tissue binding sites (mainly muscle), thus raising the
blood level of digitalis and decresing its volume of
distribution. A mechanism by which quinidine interferes
with the renal excretion of digitalis has also been
proposed.
Source: Stern - 2004
- Which of the following extraocular muscles is innervated
by a nucleus located on the contralateral side?
A. Superior rectus
B. Inferior rectus
C. Medial rectus
D. Lateral rectus
E. Inferior oblique
- Answer: A
Explanation:
General somatic efferent fi bers of the oculomotor nerve
arise from the oculomotor nucleus situated near the
midline of the midbrain at the level of the superior
colliculus. This nucleus is formed by subnuclei for each of
the extraocular muscles. The superior rectus muscle
receives innervation from neurons in the contralateral subnucleus. The levator palpebral superioris muscle
receives innervation from a medial subnucleus. The
inferior rectus, medial rectus, and inferior oblique muscles
receive innervation from ipsilateral subnuclei. (Burt,
403-406)
Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By
Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
285. The most likely neurotransmitter for cerebella climbing fi bers is A. Acetylcholine B. Glutamate C. Aspartate D. Dopamine E. Glycine
- Answer: C
Explanation:
Climbing fi bers are axons of neurons originating from the
contralateral inferior olivary nucleus that project to all
areas of the cerebellar cortex. Climbing fi bers are
excitatory. Aspartate is the most likely transmitter for
these fi bers. Each single climbing fi ber establishes 1000
to 2000 synaptic contacts with its Purkinje cell. When the
climbing fi bers fi re, there is a massive synchronous
depolarization of Purkinje cells, which activates Ca++
channels in the dendritic membrane. The major source of
climbing fi bers in the cerebellum is the inferior olive.
Degeneration of the inferior olive (seen in olivocerebellar
atrophy) induces a drop in aspartate level in the
cerebrospinal fl uid. (Afi fi and Bergman, 313-314)
Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By
Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
- Which of the following is the best advantage of atypical
antipsychotic medications over traditional antipsychotic medications?
A. Purely adrenergic antagonists
B. More effective for positive symptoms
C. Lower risk for extrapyramidal side effects
D. More effective for mood disorders with psychotic features
E. Increased effi cacy for behavioral symptoms with dementias
286. Answer: C Explanation: Older antipsychotics are being phased out because of the risk of EPS Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2004
- Vertigo, inability to perceive termination of movement,
and diffi culty in sitting or standing without visual clues
are some of the toxic reactions that are likely to occur in
about 75% of patients treated with
A. Penicillin G
B. Doxycycline
C. Amphotericin B
D. Streptomycin
E. INH
- Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: Hardman, pp 11110-1113.
Streptomycin and other aminoglycosides can elicit toxic
reactions involving both the vestibular and auditory
branches of the eighth cranial nerve. Patients receiving
an aminoglycoside should be monitored frequently for any
hearing impairment owing to the irreversible deafness that
may result from its prolonged use.None of the other
agents listed in the question adversely affect the function
of the eighth cranial nerve.
Source: Stern-2004
288. The cerebellar cortex contains all of the following types of cells EXCEPT A. Pyramidal cells B. Purkinje cells C. Granule cells D. Golgi cells E. Basket cells
- Answer: A
Explanation:
The cerebellar cortex contains three laminated cellular
layers: the outermost molecular cell layer, a sheet of single
large neurons; the Purkinje cell layer; and a deeper
granular cell layer. These layers contain six types of
neurons; basket, satellite, Purkinje, Golgi, granule cells,
and the relatively rare Legato cells. Pyramidal cells are the
most abundant cells of the cerebral cortex neuron types,
are not found in the cerebellum, and are the most
characteristic of the cerebral cortex. (Afi fi and Bergman,
308-310)
Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By
Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
289. Which of the following is an H2-receptor antagonist? A. Sumatriptan B. Cyproheptadine C. Ondansetron D. Cimetidine E. Fluoxetine
- Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: Katzung, p 275.
Cimetidine is an H2 antagonist that decreases gastric acid
secretion. Sumatriptan is a 5-HT1D serotonin agonist.
Cyproheptadine acts as a histamine and serotonin
antagonist. Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist.
Fluoxetine is an antidepressant agent that selectively
inhibits serotonin reuptake.
Source: Stern - 2004
- Which of the following is true about the trigeminal nerve
nuclei?
A. The trigeminal nerve has two sensory nuclei
B. Pain and temperature are carried predominantly by the
spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
C. Most small fi bers efferent of the spinal tract of the trigeminal
nerve end in the main sensory nucleus of that
nerve
D. The motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve innervates
the muscle of mastication via its maxillary division
E. The motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve contains only
alpha motor neurons
- Answer: B
Explanation:
The trigeminal nerve has three sensory nuclei: The spinal
nucleus, the main sensory nucleus and the mesencephalic
nucleus. The spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve is a
long column of neurons extending from the point of entry
of the trigeminal nerve to the upper cervical spinal cord.
Itis divided into three parts: The oral part, responsible for
tactile sensation from the oral mucosa; the interpolar part,
receiving efferents for dental pain; and the caudal part,
receiving pain and temperature sensations from the face.
Most of the small efferent fi bers of the spinal tract of the
trigeminal nerve terminate in the spinal nucleus. Most of
the efferent large fi bers that originate from the trigeminal
ganglion end in the main sensory nucleus and are
responsible for the transmission of discriminative touch.
The mesencephalic nucleus is located at the rostral pons.
It receives efferent fi bers conveying kinesthesia and
pressure from the teeth, periodontium, hard palate,
joint capsules, the stretch receptors from the muscles of
mastication.It sends efferent fi bers to the cerebellum, the
thalamus, the motor nuclei of the brain stem,and the
reticular formation.
The motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve provides
somatic visceral efferents that innervate the muscles of
mastication via the mandibular division and contains ?
and ? motor neurons. (Afi fi and Bergman, 171-175)
Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By
Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
- The source of noradrenergic projection to the cerebellum
is the
A. Dorsomedial nucleus of the hypothalamus
B. Locus ceruleus
C. Raphe nucleus
D. Thalamus
E. Inferior olivary nucleus
- Answer: B
Explanation:
The monoaminergic projections to the cerebellum
originate from the pontine raphe nuclei,the locus ceruleus,
and the hypothalamus. The raphe nuclei are the source of
serotoninergic projections to both the granular and
molecular layers. The locus ceruleus is the source of
noradrenergic projection to the three layers of the
cerebellar cortex. The dorsomedial, dorsal, and lateral
areas of the hypothalamus are the sources of histaminergic
projections to all three layers of the cerebellar cortex.
(Afi fi and Bergman, 322)
Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By
Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
292. Which of the following sensory pathways does NOT project to the thalamus ? A. Visual sensation pathway B. Auditory sensation pathway C. Vibration sensation pathway D. Olfactory sensation pathway E. Temperature sensation pathway
- Answer: D
Explanation:
The olfactory pathway is the only sensory pathway that
does not project to the thalamus. The olfactory nerve penetrates the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone and
enters the olfactory bulb to synapse with the second-order
neurons: mitral and tufted cells. The axons of the secondorder
neurons course posteriorly as the olfactory tract in
the orbital surfaces of the frontal lobe and project to the
primary olfactory cortex in the temporal lobe. (Parent,
748-754)
SOURCE: Souayah, N, and Khella S; Neurology
Examination & Board Review; McGraw-Hill, New York.
Source: Neurology Examination and Board Review By
Nizar Souayah, MD and Sami Khella, MD
- Presynaptic inhibition in the central nervous system
affects the fi ring rate of alpha motoneurons by
A. Increasing the chloride permeability of the presynaptic
nerve ending
B. Decreasing the potassium permeability of the alpha
motoneuron
C. Decreasing the frequency of action potentials by the
presynaptic nerve ending
D. Increasing (hyperpolarizing) the membrane potential of
the alpha motoneuron
E. Increasing the amount of the neurotransmitter released
by the presynapticnerve ending
- Answer: A
Explanation:
(Guyton, p 516-517, 523.) Presynaptic inhibition caused
by interneurons that secrete a transmitter which increases
the Cl- conductance of the presynaptic nerve ending. The
increase in Cl- conductance causes a partial depolarization
of the presynaptic nerve ending and a decrease in the
magnitude of the action potential in the presynaptic nerve
ending. Because the amount of mediator released at the
synapse is related to the magnitude of the action potential,
less transmitter is released and the fi ring rate of the
postsynaptic alpha motoneuron is decreased. Presynaptic
inhibition does not change the membrane potential of the
alpha motoneuron, and therefore the membrane potential
of the alpha motoneuron is not affected.
294. The positions associated with the greatest amount of load on the lumbar intervertebral disks is A. Lying supine B. Sitting, bending over C. Sitting with back straight D. Standing, fl exed at the waist E. Standing upright
- Answer: B
Explanation:
A. The load decreases signifi cantly in supine position.
B. With the patient sitting with the back unsupported or
sitting and bending over, the load shows greater increase.
C. In the sitting position with the back straight, the load is
increased 40 percent above relaxed standing.
D. With the subject standing and bending, the load
increases 50 percent.
E. Upright standing is equal to 100 percent of the relative
load.
- A 55-year old morbidly obese female arrives at the clinic
complaining of decreased sensation over the anterior
thigh between the inguinal ligament and knee joint. She
states that she has loss of sensation in the anterior thigh
from the inguinal ligament to the knee and is generalized
medial to lateral. The patellar, quadriceps refl ex is
generally intact. Nerves that most likely represent this
innervation include:
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
E. L5
- Answer: C
Source: Hoppenfeld S. Physical Examination of the Spine
and Extremities. Appleton-Centry-Cross/Norwalk, CT p.
250.
296. The major factor limiting oral bioavailability of morphine is A. Gastric emptying time B. Intestinal enzymes C. Liver metabolism D. Hydrophilicity E. Bile secretion
- Answer: C
Explanation:
First pass metabolism is the main factor that reduces the
amount of morphine that reaches the systemic circulation.
Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2004
297. The substantia gelatinosa resides in the laminar segment of the spinal cord A. X B. VII C. V D. II E. I
- Answer: D
Explanation:
Rexed divided the spinal gray into ten laminae.
Laminae I through VI make up the dorsal horn.
Laminae VII through IX make up the ventral horn.
Lamina X is composed of a column of cells clustered
around the central canal of the cord.
Lamina I is the marginal layer, lamina II is the substantia
gelatinosa, and laminae II through V make
up the nucleus propius (magnocellular layer).
- The risk of acute dystonic reactions from antipsychotic
agents is greatest for which of the following?
A. Older women
B. Previous dystonic reaction
C. Administration by the oral route
D. Using lower doses of medication
E. Use of atypical antipsychotic medications
- Answer: B
Explanation:
B. Previous dystonic reaction is a risk factor for acute
dystonic reaction, as are male sex, younger age, higher
doses of drugs and parenteral administration.
Atypical agents have less risk.
Source: Boswell MV, Board Review 2004
- The nucleus raphe Magnus is highly involved with the
neural processing of what type of painful afferent input?
A. Mechanical
B. Thermal
C. Mixed
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
- Answer: B
Source: Giordano J, Board Review 2003
- A 60-year-old male complains of severe headaches,
nausea, dizziness and a diminution in vision. He has
a decrease in oxygen (O2)-carrying capacity without
a change in the Po2 of arterial blood. Which of the
following might account for these fi ndings?
A. Sulfur dioxide
B. Ozone
C. Nitrogen dioxide
D. Carbon monoxide (CO)
E. Methane
- Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: Hardman, pp 1676-1678. Katzung, pp 990- 991.
Carbon monoxide is a common cause of accidental and
suicidal poisoning. Its affi nity for hemoglobin is 250 times
greater than that of O2. It therefore binds to hemoglobin
and reduces the O2 – carrying capacity of blood. The
symptoms of poisoning are due to tissue hypoxia; they
progress from headache and fatigue to confusion, syncope,
tachycardia, coma, convulsions, shock, respiratory
depression, and cardiovascular collapse. Carboxyhemoglobin
levels below 15% rarely produce symptoms;
above 40%, symptoms become severe. Treatment include
establishment of an airway, supportive therapy, and
administration of 100% O2 . Sulfur dioxide, ozone, and
nitrogen dioxide are mucous membrane and respiratory
irritants. Methane is a simple asphyxiant.
Source: Stern - 2004
301. The Achilles tendon is innervated by: A. L4 B. L5 C. S1 D. S2 E. L3
- Answer: C
Source: Hoppenfeld S. Physical Examination of the Spine
and Extremities. Appleton-Centry-Cross/Norwalk, CT p.
227.