Asepis, Drug Admin, And Perf. Equip Flashcards
Any breach in the implementation of infection control protocol may end in serious consequences, maybe death, true or false?
Truth!
Anyone with a health problem is more susceptible to infections than healthy people, true or false?
True
All micro organisms are pathogen’s, true or false?
False. Only a small percentage of micro organisms are pathogens
________ is the study of micro organisms
Microbiology
__________ are pathogen’s that are present on the skin, oral, and upper respiratory tract, G.I. tract, your riddle genital tract, and conjunctiva without normally causing a disease – as long as they are confined to their usual environment.
Normal flora
Viruses look like a pencil or like spiked golf balls, true or false
True
What are the four major groups of pathogen’s?
Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
Parasites
Give an example of bacteria that produces spores to protect itself
C-Diff
Viruses may only be seen by using an electronic microscope, true or false
True. Viruses are tiny
Staphylococci are spiral shaped, true or false
False – staphylococci are clusters
Mention an example where the virus is capable of altering the host cells’ chromosomes, leading to the development of malignancy
Hpv
Hep B/C
Viruses either contain DNA or RNA, true or false?
True- viruses contain either DNA or RNA -never both. Bacteria may contain both
A person who has a pathogen’s without symptoms and signs of the infection is called
A carrier
Mention four examples of pathogen’s that are considered part of the normal flora
E. coli
Candida
Strep B
Staph
Which part of the virus is considered the viruses brain and that protects its nucleic acids
The capsid
Multiplication of viruses in the host cells depends on the hosts health, true or false
True
Why do we need to be vaccinated every year for influenza?
Influenza has the ability to rapidly change nucleic acid components and mutate – hence rendering one years vaccine incapable of protecting against the virus the following year
Viruses are intracellular parasites, true or false
True – gross!
Bacteria spores have thick walls and can resist high temperatures, humidity, chemical and physical agents, so highly resistant to external environment – true or false?
True
Why is classifying bacteria into Graham negative and Graham positive so important for the physician?
By identifying the bacteria, it helps identify how best to address the infection and which antibiotics to use
Which one of these diseases or pathogen's is continued bacterial, viral, mycotic, parasitic, or worm? Tuberculosis Askaris Flu Toxoplasmosis Diphtheria Zona Ecchinococcosis AIDS Staphylococcus wound infection, typhoid fever aspergillosis Common cold Shigella Candidatis Giardatis Herpes Syphilis Limes disease Trichomoniasis Malaria Measles E. coli Chickenpox Salmonella Tanea Hepatitis Schistosomaisis Mumps Pneumonia due to pneumonia compass Cystitis Shingles Histoplasmosis HPV Amebiasis Conjunctivitis
Tuberculosis- B Askaris- parasitic worm Flu- Viral Toxoplasmosis- P Diphtheria- B Zona-V Ecchinococcosis-B AIDS -V Staphylococcus wound infection- B typhoid fever- B aspergillosis- M Common cold- V Shigella- B Candidatis- M Giardatis- P Herpes-V Syphilis - B Limes disease- B Trichomoniasis- protozoa parasite Malaria- Plasmodium Patasites Measles- V E. coli- Bacteria Chickenpox- V Salmonella- B Tinea- My Hepatitis- V Schistosomiasis- Worms!!!!!! Mumps- V Pneumonia due to pneumonia compass Cystitis-B Shingles- V Histoplasmosis- Mycotic HPV- V Amebiasis- protoza parasites Conjunctivitis- B
Viruses are the smallest type of pathogen’s, true or false
True
Lyme disease is caused by bacilli shaped bacteria, true or false?
False. It is caused by spiral shaped bacteria.
Chlamydia infection is a sexually transmitted disease, true or false
True.
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted disease, true or false
True it is a sexually-transmitted parasite – gross!
Hepatitis A is spread by drinking water that is contaminated by Ross sewage, or by eating contaminated food that was not cooked properly, we’re putting something in the mouth that has been infected with the virus, or oral contact with a partner infected with the virus true or false
True
Hepatitis B can spread through contact with body fluids of an infected person such as blood, true or false
True
Hepatitis B can be spread through contaminated food or drink, true or false?
False hep A is spread through contaminated food or drink, not hep B
Which pathogen is considered the most common opportunistic infection in persons with HIV infection?
What is pneumocystis Carini- a mycotic pnemonia
Temporary protection against hepatitis A if someone is traveling to an area that is endemic for hepatitis A is given by ______ (PAI)However, ______is more effective in preventing the disease (active immunity)
Anti-bodies
Vaccine
Infants born to mothers infected with chlamydia may develop______ or _______.
Eye infections or pneumonia
What are the two types of toxins some bacteria produce, and which one has more serious effects on the body?
Bacteria may produce both Endo and exotoxins. Endotoxins lead to toxic shock and are the more serious effect. Endotoxins are produced by Graham negative bacteria. Typically, gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.
Exotoxins are usually produced by Graham negative bacteria, true or false
False – exotoxins are typically produced by gram-positive bacteria
Endotoxins can cause __________.
Septic shock
Carriers of hepatitis B can develop ______which leads to _____and______
Chronic liver disease
Sclerosis
Cancer
The most common cause for the healthcare worker to get infected with hepatitis B is______
Blood exposure (typically via needle stick.)
Carriers of hepatitis B cannot transmit disease to their sexual partners, true or false
False – carriers can most certainly transmit hepatitis B to their sexual partners
Varicella zoster virus causes____ in children and ______in adults
Chickenpox
Zona
Shingles cannot spread from one person to another, but if someone who is not immune gets in contact with the blisters, he or she will develop chickenpox true or false
True
A pregnant mother can pass the hepatitis B virus to her baby, true or false?
True
Mention all of the portals of entry and exit for micro organisms
Mouth Eyes Nose G.I. tract Genitals Abrasions on skin Punctures
In most cases, hepatitis a is not serious, true or false?
True
What are the three groups of micro organisms that have characteristics that resemble both bacteria and viruses?
Chlamydia, Rickettsiae mycoplasmas
Bacteria can have three main shapes which are:
Name one of each type
Basilli- clostridium tetani
Spiral- lyme disease
Cocci- staphylococci
Chickenpox in children is not a serious disease. Mention the cases where it can be a serious and perhaps fatal disease
Chickenpox maybe fatal in adults the immunocompromised pregnant women and sometimes teenagers
Chickenpox is transmitted through airborne and contact modes, true or false
True
The risk of acquiring hepatitis B after a needlestick is __________. This is Approximately _____times the risk of acquiring aids after a comparable exposure
30%
100x
A patient with shingles must have had chickenpox sometime in his or her life, true or false?
True
Where does the Veris Cella zoster virus remain latent after the initial exposure and having had chickenpox?
The virus remains in nerve axioms in the dormant stage
Bacteria are unicellular organisms that have both DNA and RNA and do not require a host to survive and multiply, true or false
True
Which type of hepatitis is most concerning to the healthcare worker?
Hepatitis B is most concerning to the healthcare worker
Parotitis is caused by the _______virus
Mumps
Mention the four characteristics that make microorganisms different in their ability to cause diseases
Inability of antibiotics to cover all types of bacteria
Mutation
Ability to remain latent
Spores (bacteria/fungus)
Chlamydia infection is considered a ________that can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease
Sexually transmitted infection
According to which lab staining test, bacteria can be classified into groups – positive and negative
What is Graham staining
Antibodies are produced by__________. They protect us by binding to_______, deactivating them.
B lymphocytes
Pathogen’s
Normal flora can act as ________pathogen’s when the hosts immunity is compromised.
Opportunistic
Most fungi responded to antibacterial agents, true or false
False. Most fungi do not respond to antibacterial agents – that’s why the infection is hard to kill. Fungus also dimorphic, presenting another problem. an exception to this antibiotic resistance is the medication Flagyl.
Rickettsia causes_______ and ________. This pathogen shares characteristics of both ______ and _____.
Typhus fever
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Bacteria
Viruses
Mycoplasma pathogen causes
Pneumonia
Trichomoniasis is considered_______, so the partner must be treated as well
A sexually transmitted infection
Cold sores are caused by
Herpes simplex one – a virus
Fungi can grow into shapes_______ which is Uni cellular and ________which is multicellular. Things that may take two shapes are called_________.
Which is the invasive, infective form?
Yeast
Filamentous hyphe
Dimorphic
Filamentous hyphe is the invasive, infective form.
Fungi are usually smaller than bacteria, true or false?
False. Fungi are usually larger than bacteria
Tinea fungi can cause
Athletes foot, jock itch, ringworm
Aspergillosis and histoplasmosis are two fungal diseases, true or false?
True
Aspergillosis occurs in immunocompromise patients, true or false?
True
Pneumocystic Carini has characteristics of_____ and _______.
Fungi
Protozoa
Protozoa a complex one celled organisms, many are motile, they are able to move by the action of flagella or by cilia, true or false
True
Malaria is spread by ______and is caused by a non-motile protozoa which develops in the host red blood cells
Mosquitoes
What type of pathogen causes amebiasis? what is the specific name of this pathogen
Amebas
Entamoeba hystolytica
The main symptom amebiasis is ______. This is called dysentery
Bloody diarrhea
Amebiasis is spread by the fecal – oral route, true or false
True
Giardasis is a protozoan caused disease, true or false
True
GIardiasis is spread by the fecal oral route but eating food or water that is contaminated by the parasitic protozoa or it’s cysts, true or false
True
Which form of the Giardia Lambia is the resistant and hardy form?
Cysts are the hardy and resistant form
If you just might contract toxoplasmosis through placental connection with its infected mother who might have handled cats litter in properly, true or false
True
_________ is leading cause of death attributed to foodborne illness in the US.
Toxoplasmosis
Babies born with toxoplasmosis from their mothers can have serious health consequences, true or false?
True
And example of parasitic protozoa that can cause skin ulcers is________. It is spread by the bite of a sandfly and it is endemic to some parts of the tropics come out subtropics, and southern Europe
Leishmaniasis
Arthropodic parasites include
Fleas
Mites
Tics
Lice
The other name for Helmuth parasites is
Intestinal worms. Eeeewwww!!!!
The lifecycle of intestinal worms is
Ovum
Larva
Adult
The ova and larva may be ingested in contaminated food or water, may enter the skin, or may be transmitted by infected insect’s true or false
True
One example of Plessy helmets a.k.a. flatworms is
Intestinal tapeworms
One example of flukes is
Liver flukes
One example of nematodes a.k.a. roundworms is
Askaris
Echinococcus worms cause ________. This is also called__________.
Hydatid disease
Hydatidosis
The adult Encino cook us worms reside in the small bowel of a definitive host and they release eggs in the feces true or false?
True
Shistosomyiasis is also known as________, or _______.
Bilharzia
Snail fever
The main cause of bilharzia is __________. The larval form of the parasite penetrates the skin of people swimming in the freshwater.
Bathing in contaminated water
There are two types of shistosomiasis _______ and _______-. Besides occasional embolic egg granulomas are found in the _____and ______.
Urinary
Intestinal
Brain
Spinal cord
Influenza is more serious than the common cold because it may lead to_______.
Pneumonia
Patients who have one of the diseases that are known to be transmitted through the droplet mode should be placed on ________isolation precautions
Droplet
Fungi reproduce by ____or ______formation
Budding
Hyphe
Fungi are eukaryotic organisms with a nucleus and membrane bound organelles true or false
True
Candida is a fungal disease, true or false
True
What are the four components in the chain of infection?
Reservoir of infection
Portal of exit
Mode of Transmission
Portal of Entry
Mention four types of protozoa infection
Trichomoniasis
Malaria
Amebiasis
Giardiasis
What is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients?
Pneumocystic Carini
Fungi are easy to treat- True or false
False most antibiotics do not work on fungus and they are difficult to treat. Also fungus can leave spores under the skin to sprout at a later opportunistic time
Mention five conditions were normal flora can become opportunistic pathogen’s
HIV, prolonged use of antibiotics, cystic fibrosis, chemo, diabedes
What is a fromite?
A fromite is an inanimate object or substance capable of transmitting infectious organisms from one person to another
Resistance to pathogen’s varies from one person to another. By which factors is it affected?
Age State of health Anxiety or stress Location of infection Previously acquired antibodies
Acquired immunity involves two types of cells? Yes or no? Name them if yes
Yes- T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
During the incubation period, the pathogen enters the host and lies dormant and the host feels no symptoms, true or false
False the latent period Feels no symptoms
What is pathogen’s specificity?
Pathogen specificity characterizes an organisms attraction to a particular host
Patients who have one of the diseases that are known to be transmitted through the airborne mode should be placed on _________isolation precautions
Airbourne
Passive acquired immunity requires that a person be injected with _________from the blood of another person or animal.
Anti-bodies. This is a form of passive acquired immunity
The immune system’s main functions are:
protect from ______
to perform tissue______ and____
to remove________.
Infection
Clean up /wound repair abnormal/malignant cells
Mention the five modes of pathogen transmission.
Contact (includes fromites) Droplet Airbourne Vector X
During the convalescent., The disease is no longer communicable, true or false?
False. Some diseases are no longer communicable, but others are.
Organ transplant patients who are on immunosuppressive it’s so the body does not reject the new Oregon, cancer patients on chemotherapy, AIDS patients are all types of _____________hosts. This means they can get communicable diseases more readily than regular people when they are exposed to pathogens.
Immunocompromised
Most pathogens are transferred through the _____mode.
Airborne
The immune system causes problems when it is not functioning in the proper way. Mention three examples
Allergies
Autoimmune diseases
Transplant rejection
Pathogen reservoir means________.
Source of infection
MRSA and VRE spread through droplet mode true or false
False both MRSA and VRE are spread through contact mode
When you scan someone who is a carrier of a pathogen (has no symptoms and signs) and then, you scan a susceptible host without practicing hand hygiene and the disinfecting rules, you may be causing serious infections in the susceptible host- true or false?
Preach! True. (when in doubt-Wash your damn hands! When not in doubt, wash your damn hands!)
Patients who have one of the diseases that are known to be transmitted through the contact mode should be placed on ________isolation precautions.
Contact
Vehicle type of transmission is similar to _______because it involves the presence of an intermediate object in the process of contamination
Indirect contact- both involve fromites
B lymphocytes produce_________.
Anti-bodies
______lymphocytes are responsible for cell mediated immunity.
T
What is virulence?
An organisms ability to grow and multiply with speed
What does vectorborne type of pathogen transmission mean?
It means that the pathogen arrived via another carrier – I E mosquito, rat, which displaced the organism from its place of origin and acted as a carrier.
MRSA stands for
Methicillin Resistant Saphalococcus Aureus
Give examples of direct contact:
Touching, kissing, sexual contact, contact with oral blood or bodily fluids
This is what makes humans get different diseases from animals. It is inherited and permanent
What is innate immunity
Mention all the elements that support us with innate immunity
1.) Portal of entry (Hair skin cilia coughing sneezing) 2.) elevated body temperatures 3.) hematopoietic white blood cell system 4.) inflammatory cytokines
When does someone have active acquired immunity
Vaccination
Previously had disease
Prior mild infection with disease
Phagocytose us occurs regardless of the invading pathogens, true or false
True
VRE stands for
Vancomyosin resistant entrococcus
Mention all examples of bodily fluids
Blood/blood products Nasal secretions Sputum sweat Vomit Fecal matter Vaginal secretions Semen Milk Amnio fluid Lesion extrudate or secretions Fluids from inside the body
Mention three diseases that can be transmitted through the airborne route
Group a strep influenza adenovirus chickenpox
Can a transducer be the cause of nosocomial infections and act as a fromite?
Yes!!!!!
Contact mode of pathogen transmission means that pathogens are spread from one person to a susceptible host directly through contact with blood or bodily fluids true or false
True
Innate immunity is specific to the invading pathogens, true or false
True
What are the four stages of infection? Mention the features of each one.
Latent – the patient feels no signs or symptoms
Incubation- the pathogen begins to multiply and the disease process begins
Disease- the infection is communicable
Convalescent period-Period after disease in which acquired immunity may play a role and homeostasis is restored. The host may regain full or partial function depending in extent of damage, and the disease MAY OR MAY NOT BE TRANSFERABLE AT THIS STAGE.
Droplets are microorganisms that are larger than _____.
5 µm
Innate immunity is specific to the invading pathogens, true or false
True
I need immunity does not have memory – meaning it does not remember the invading pathogen when it enters the body after the initial entry, true or false?
True
Passive acquired immunity lasts longer than active acquired immunity, true or false?
False. Active acquired immunity last longer than passive acquired immunity.
Lymphocytes are highly specialized defender cells, and they have memory of the invading pathogens, so they can produce the specific antibodies should the infection with that particular pathogen happen again, true or false
True
The other term used for hospital acquired infections is
Nosocomial
What is pathogenicity?what is virulence?
What is specificity?
What is invasiveness of the pathogen?
Pathogenicity is the ability to cause disease.
Virulence is the ability to grow and multiply it with speed. Specificity is the attraction to a particular host
Invasiveness is the ability to enter tissue.
Droplets are light and can be transferred to long distances and remain suspended in the air for a long time, true or false?
False droplets are heavy that is why the door may remain open when someone is on droplet precautions
Transferring micro organisms between patients because of disinfected transducer is considered direct contact mode, true or false
True
Airborne micro organisms are larger than droplet pathogen’s, true or false?
False airborne micro organisms are smaller than 5 µm
How does that hematopoetic system contribute to the innate imminity? What are the types of cells?
White blood cells – phagocytes specifically neutrophils and macrophages, monocytes, and NK cells
TB is considered a droplet pathogen, true or false?
True
Cytokines have an immunity roll, true or false?
True
Mansion three types of micro organisms that can be spread through droplet mode
Tuberculosis
Chickenpox
Influenza
Name 5 fromites
Clothing Objects Food Other people Animals Water
Mention five diseases that can be transferred through contact other than MRSA, VRE, or C. difficile.
Chickenpox, hep a, hep B, flu, meningitis, measles
Mention to natural reflexes that have a role in protecting us from micro organisms
Sneezing, coughing body temperature
Mention a notorious infection and parts of Africa and South America that is transmitted by mosquitoes
What is malaria
What is Zinka
In the United States_____ is transmitted by some types of mosquitoes
Meningitis
Triple E
What are the natural killers?
T lymphocytes cells
When do you apply standard precautions?
At all times
What are the two types of acquired immunity?
Passive acquired immunity
Active acquired immunity
What are the ways to implement hand hygiene? Which one is better?
A-You may either wash your hands for at least 15 seconds with hot soap and water or B – you may use sanitizer on your hands.
Sanitizer is the preferred method
People who have staff or VRE put on _________ isolation precautions.
Contact
Examples of vectors in vector- born transmission of disease
Mosquitoes Please Texas Rats All other intermediate hosts
What is the other term for standard precautions?
Normal precautions for which you would use PPE which is personal protective equipment
The gloves used as PPE are sterile, true or false?
False gloves used as regular PPE are not sterile
People, animals, and in adamant objects can all serve as reservoirs of infection, true or false?
True – they are called fromites or other hosts
Any wound drainage and lesion extra date and secretions are considered bodily fluids, true or false?
True
How do you remove gloves the proper way?
The first glove is pinched, palm side- and pulled off by the 2nd gloved hand. The contaminated glove is held in the hand of the 2nd glove. Two clean fingers of the now glove free hand are then placed inside the clean cuff of the opposite glove and the glove is pulled off inside out, and over the first glove- creating a ball.
Give an example of an infectious disease that a person May be a carrier and spread the disease to people around them without having symptoms themselves
Typhoid fever, HIV
The reason implementing standard precautions is to break the
Chain of infection
Gloves should be removed after contact with each patient, true or false?
True
What are the five elements of standard precautions?
Hand hygiene PPE Safe injection practices Safe handling of potentially contaminated services and equipment Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette
What does PPE stand for? What does it include?
PPE stands for: personal protective equipment
PPE consists of: gloves Gown Mask Goggles/face shield Recessutation mouthpiece Booties Cap
If you’re going to wear gloves, gown, and mask, what is the order of donning these protective equipment and what is the order of removing them?
Goggles Mask down gloves put them on removing gloves down mask goggles
If the gown becomes wet, it is still considered clean and still will work as PPE – true or false
False if the gown becomes wet it is considered contaminated
When removing the gown, the inside of the neck are considered clean – the outside and the waist are considered contaminated, true or false?
True
When washing hands with soap and water is the preferred way of hand hygiene, for how many seconds should you rub your hands?
15
When you remove gloves, you turn it inside out without touching the outer surface as the outer surface is considered contaminated, true or false?
True
What are the key situations went hand hygiene should be performed?
One – before touching a patient even if gloves are worn
Two – before exiting patient care area
Three – contact with blood, bodily fluids, wound dressings.
Four – prior to performing in a septic task.
Five – if the hands are moving from A contaminated body site to a clean body site
Six – after glove or PPE removal
When should you wear gloves?
Whenever bodily fluid contact is possible, or when implementing standard (and above) precautions.
When should you wear a gown?
You should wear a gown whenever there is a possibility of contact with blood or bodily fluids, secretions, or excretions
Gloves should be removed promptly after use, and before touching non-contaminated items and environmental surfaces, true or false
True
How do you take off the gown?
Remove gloves- wash hands.
Untie neck strings, do not touch outside of down.
Pull down from shoulders, keep the gown turned inside out, roll, and dispose of properly in biohazard bag.
When should you wear a surgical mask?
When ever possible procedures exist that could expose the mouth nose or eyes to droplets of bodily fluids
When should you wear goggles?
Whenever the mucous membranes of the eyes may come in contact with pathogen’s.
If your facility uses latex gloves, ask the patient before you start the test if he or she is allergic to latex, true or false?
True
If the glove has even a tiny tear, it stops working as protective equipment, true or false?
True
Gloves should cover the wrists or the cuff of the gown true or false?
True
Gloves should be removed before you leave the room, true or false?
True
The surgical mask is used for airborne transmitted infections true or false?
False the N 95 mask is used for airborne infections
Facemask should never be lowered around one’s neck, true or false?
True
The respirator N 95 mask is used for droplet transmitted infections, true or false?
False the surgical mask is used for droplet transmission infections.
When done with the mask, upper strings should be removed first then the lower strings, true or false?
False. The lower strings should be undone first – then the upper strings
If the radiologist uses reusable Eye goggles as PPE, how should you clean them?
Soap, water, disinfectant
Mouthpieces, Ambu bags, used during CPR-along with ultrasound covers are considered_______.
Contaminated
Filled needle boxes are replaced when they are____or ______full
Half or two thirds full
Needles should not be recapped, Bend, broken, or removed from syringes, true or false?
True
When recapping is necessary, ___________technique is used
A one handed scoop
Needles and sharp objects should be placed in ______box as close as possible to the work area
A “Sharps”
When you were cleaning up after a procedure, you should bring the wheeled work table as close as possible to the sharps disposal container, true or false?
True
Blood stained or any bodily fluid stained bedding should be placed in______.
Biohazard bags
Standard precautions should be used when performing procedures where you may come in contact with blood or bodily fluids- true or false?
False- use contact precautions
When you put a transducer cover on the transducer, the gel inside the cupboard where the transducer is immersed is regular gel – true or false?
True
If you’re using a transducer cover because you are scanning a patient on contact precautions, the gel that will be placed on the patient’s skin is regular Joe, true or false?
True
If you’re using the transducer cover because you are scanning a wounded area or a patient with immunocompromise condition like reversed protective isolation precautions or during ultrasound guided procedures – the gel that will be put on the skin should be sterile true or false
True.
If you are going to scan a patient with respiratory symptoms it is recommended that you wear a surgical mask, true or false?
True
If blood is present on the surface, you should wipe off the blood with a paper towel after you don gloves, then wipe the surface with________.
Chlorhexidine wipes
Always disinfect the work area, the transducer, the stretcher after each procedure, the countertops and the cabinets the telephones with disposable wipes hydrogen peroxide and you have to follow the instructions regarding to aeration time true or false?
True
If you were going to sneeze or cough while you were doing a scan, turn your face into your left shoulder or elbow Bend and sneeze then wash your hands with soap and water true or false
True
Stethoscopes and other reusable items should be disinfected using disposable hydrogen peroxide wipes, true or false
True
Disposable items should be discarded in the appropriate container, true or false
True
Every time you anticipate the transducer will be in contact with blood or bodily fluids, you should place a _____on the transducer.
A transducer cover
If you are going to skinny patient on contact isolation precautions, you should wear _____and ______and use transducer covers besides implementing standard precautions, true or false?
Gown
Gloves
True!
Gloves and gown must be worn after you enter the room of the patient on contact precautions and should be removed right after you leave the room, true or false?
False. PPE should be done immediately before entering the room, and removed/disposed of just before exit
Respirator mask should fit tightly when worn so the correct size is necessary true or false
True. Respirator N95s are sized in small medium large and are one use only.
The chart of patients on contact isolation precautions should be kept outside the room, true or false?
True
Chickenpox, hepatitis ANB, herpes simplex, MRSA, VRE, and C. diff are examples of contact transmitted infections, true or false?
True
If you are transferring a patient on contact for cautions – which should be limited to essential purposes – you should wear
PPE
Doors of rooms for patient on contact precautions maybe kept open, true or false?
True
Doors of rooms for patients on droplet precautions maybe get open, true or false?
True
Every room which is on any kind of isolation precautions should have a sign on the door that specifies what type of precautions should be applied and instructions, true or false?
True
Pertussis, mumps, influenza virus, rhinovirus, Neisseria meningitis are all spread by droplet mode, true or false
True
Healthcare workers should wear a ______ when in contact with patients on droplet precautions besides practicing standard precautions
Surgical mask
Healthcare workers should wear_____ when in contact with patients on airborne precautions besides practicing standard precautions
A respirator N95 mask
Patients who have TV, SARS, measles, or chickenpox should be kept indoors with negative pressure and the door should be kept closed, true or false?
True- all of these infections are airborne infections
Most frequent sites of nosocomial infections are
Skin Wounds/abrasions
Gi tract
Respiratory
Mucus membranes
Catheter sites
Mention pathogen’s that might cause nosocomial infections other than staff, VER E, or C. Diff
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Typhoid fever
Regular non-and lemonade pathogen’s were normal flora of which are displaced
MRSA and VRE are serious infections because
They are antibiotic resistant
Elderly patients who have bedsores or indwelling Foley catheters or IV catheters or we have been on antibiotics for a long time already higher risk of developing nosocomial infections true or false?
True
Symptoms of C diff are watery diarrhea 💩 fever nausea loss of appetite abdominal discomfort, true or false?
True
Disinfection means eliminating most harmful pathogen’s, not including spores true or false
True
Medical a sepsis involves
Disinfection
Surgical a sepsis involves
Sterilization
The safest and most officiant method of surgical a sepsis of tools is the_____.
Autoclave
General precautions against infection include having short and clean nails, true or false?
True
After the studies performed on a patient on contact precautions, the transducer cover should be discarded appropriately, the ultrasound machine and the transducer cord should be wiped with the disposable hydrogen peroxide cloth true or false
True
Autoclave is
Heat under pressure
Tape indicators on procedure trays change color when the Trey has been exposed to sufficiently sterilizing heat, true or false
True
________ is a highly disinfectant/sterilizer that is used for transvaginal probes.
Chlorhexidine
________ is used to sterilize electrical plastic and rubber items
Gas
For ultrasound guided biopsy he you have to prepare a ________field
Sterile
If the biopsy try appears to have been previously opened, or the expiration date has passed, the biopsy package is considered unsterile, true or false?
True
Items on the sterile Trey are sterile and only sterile items may be added, true or false?
True
If you need to add a sterile item to a sterile tray, you may open the sterile item package and drop it on the sterile drape with caution without touching the sterile item, true or false?
True
If you need to transfer sterile items from one trailer to another, you need to wear sterile gloves, true or false
True
When pouring a sterile solution, place the lid upward and do not touch the inside of the lid or the lip of the flask. Then pour off a small amount of solution before the remainder is poured into the sterile container, true or false?
True
If you were going to hand the radiologist an item from the biopsy tray, you should wear sterile gloves to avoid contamination, true or false
True
Bottles containing sterile solutions are usually considered sterile on the inside but contaminated on the outside, true or false?
True
Do not allow the contents to slide over the edges of the pack. Items should be flipped or lifted – true or false.
True
What are the four fundamental rules of surgical a sepsis
- )Know what is sterile
- )Know what is unsterile
- )Separate the sterile from the unsterile
- )Rectify contamination as soon as possible
If the stability of an object is questionable, it is not to be considered sterile true or false
True
Sterile objects and persons must be kept separate from those that are unsterile true or false
True
When tabletops are to be used as areas for creating a sterile field, they must be clean and dry. A sterile drape must be placed over them true or false?
True
Edges of a sterile rapper are considered sterile, and must not touch unsterile objects true or false
False the edges of a sterile rapper are not considered sterile
Anything below the level of the table or the level of the waste, as well as the undersurface of the drape is considered sterile true or false
False these things are considered contaminated
Any item that falls below the level of the table is considered contaminated and is not brought up to the table level true or false
True
Any sterile instruments or sterile area that is touched by an unsterile object or person is considered contaminated and the contamination must be remedied immediately IE the item must be discarded and replaced by a new sterile one, true or false
True
Sterile material must be kept dry. Packages that become wet must be discarded true or false
True
If a solution e.g. alcohol soaked through a sterile field to a non-sterile field, the wet area must be retrieved by several witnesses of sterile toweling or in impervious to drape, true or false
True
Is sterile field must be created just prior to its use
Truth this is preferable
Once a sterile field has been prepared, it must not be left unattended, because it may become accidentally contaminated and presumed to be sterile – true or false
True
Air currents, shaking of linens, unnecessary talking contaminates a sterile field. But doing a procedure, the patient is asked to turn his or her face away from the sterile field true or false?
True
Setting up for a sterile procedure, as well as performing certain minor sterile procedures, requires the use of sterile gloves and a sterile gown true or false
False – these procedures require sterile gloves however not necessarily a sterile gown
Sterile person should avoid unsterile areas true or false
True
Sterile gown is considered sterile on the sleeves and the front from the waist up. The back and below the waist is considered unsterile true or false?
True
Persons in sterile gowns and gloves must pass each other front to front true or false
False people in sterile attire must pass each other back to back
A sterile person may touch only what is sterile true or false
True
Unsterile persons cannot reach above or over a sterile field, true or false
True
A sterile person does not lean over and under sterile area true or false
True
Sterile persons face the sterile field and keep your sterile gloves above your waist and in front of the chest. Sterile gloves must be kept inside above waist level, true or false
True
If the sterile persons gown or gloves become contaminated they must be changed immediately, true or false
True
A sterile person drapes the area away from them first then the area close to them true or false
False a sterile person drapes the area closest to them and then the areas farther away.
Estero person must remain within the sterile area, and do not lean on tables or against the wall true or false?
True
Any sterile bacterial or packaging that becomes a wet or damp and is considered unsterile true or false
True
Any object that is wet with sporicidal solution and placed on the sterile field must be placed on a folded sterile towel in order for the moisture to be absorbed, true or false
True
All areas that are used for sterile procedures, including floors, should be well cleaned with disinfectant solution after each procedure, true or false
True
Mops should be disposable and used only one time, true or false
True
Air-conditioning units must be kept clean, to prevent blowing bacteria on sterile field, true or false
True
Ventilation ducts must have special filters in order to prevent particles from entering the OR or special procedures room true or false?
True
Usually, when the sonographer is to help in the OR or with special procedures, all jewelry is removed if pierced ears studs are born caps must be placed over them. Regular exterior clothing is changed for a scrub suit, and shoe covers are placed over the shoes a surgical Or hood is then put on to cover all the hair goods are used if the person has a beard and the sonographer should scrub for three minutes with an antiseptic soap, dry his hands with a paper towel and proceed.
False. This question does not include putting on a mask- which you must don for surg and OR procedures.
If the radiologist asks the sonographer to put on a sterile gown and gloves and to help out in the OR or special procedures, he must do a surgical scrub, true or false
True
Surgical scrub is performed to remove as many micro organisms as possible from the skin of the hands and lower arms by ________and ________means prior to a sterile procedure
Mechanical
Chemical
Procedure for the surgical scrub varies from hospital to hospital but either the ______or the ________is used
Timed method
Brush stroke method
What are the two types of sterile gloving?
Open sterile gloving
Closed sterile gloving
Which type of sterile gloving do sonographers mostly use and which Nada demonstrated in class.
Open sterile gloving
Closed gloving is restricted to use when A sterile gown has been donned and the hands remain enclosed within the cuffs of the gown true or false?
True
surgical scrubbing is the term used to describe the procedure performed to remove as many Michael organisms as possible from the skin and lower arms by mechanical and chemical means prior to a sterile procedure, true or false
True
_________ means collapsed lung. This happens either because there’s an obstruction in the airway so that air is not infiltrating the long is normal or, because there is accumulation of fluid or air in the plural cavity and it is restricting the long from expanding.
Atelectasis
The plural cavity normally contains a small amount of fluid, true or false
True – just enough to lubricate the organs so they slide over each other.
When there is air in the plural cavity, this is called
Pneumothorax
When there is fluid in the plural cavity, this is called
Pleural effusion
When the fluid is serous this is called
Hydrothorax
When the fluid is blood, this is called
Hematothorax
The procedure that is used to remove air or fluid from around the lung is called
Insertion of a chest tube
Patients post surgery or patients who have acute pancreatitis are put on NPO status and in this case _______is needed for feeding
NG tube (nasogastric tube)
If _______is needed for continuous drainage, it has to be attached to a collector bag that has to be positioned lower than the patients stomach and less it was hooked to a vacuum assisted suction system.
An NGTube
If an NG tube is used for feeding, the syringe that has the nutrients must be placed above the patients stomach level true or false?
True
Usually, nasogastric tube is inserted through the patients nostrils, true or false?
True
What are the rules that you have to follow when working with patients on nasogastric tube?
1-never pull the tube when moving the patient
2-check for leaks in the nasogastric tube and suction equipment
3-never raise or open the drainage bag
4-never disconnect the tubing
5-if the amount being suctioned rapidly increases, call the nurse.
6-if the patient begins to gag or vomit – call the nurse
What does peg tube stand for? When is a peg tube used?
PEG stands for percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
These tubes are used when the patient requires nutritional delivery for longer than 10 days- i e chemo
Peg tube insertion is aided by _______where this tube inserted into the patient stomach ending with light enabling the physician to see where he or she will have to insert the big tube
Endoscope
The peg tube ends with a flared end or a balloon so that it stays inside the patients stomach and does not slide out. The stomach is stitched closed around the tube and the incision is closed, true or false?
True
Secretion suction tube hooked to a suctioning machine or to a vacuum assisted suction container or a wall outlet suctioning is a must in the ultrasound department according to JCAHO true or false?
True
When do you think you might use a suction tube?
While waiting for MERT
Where do you insert the suction tube?
Mouth
The most commonly used urinary catheter is called the
Foley catheter
Urinary catheterization has to be done under sterilization techniques, true or false
True. Urinary catheters are one of the biggest portals or reservoirs for infection
The Foley catheter has 2 lumen inside of it. one that allows the urine to pass from the bladder to the collection back, and the other which can be injected with a sterile water- which inflates the balloon at it and so the balloon obstructs the bladder neck-preventing the catheter from sliding out, true or false?
True
Foley catheters come in one size true or false
False Foley catheters come in many sizes and is one of the reasons why they are popular
Mention five indications for Foley catheter usage
Incontinence Retention Sterile fluid collection To permit accurate measurement of urine Pathway for medications
The urine collecting dad has to be lower than the bladder level so that you’re in is not siphoned back to the bladder, causing discomfort and access to bacteria do is send to the urinary bladder, true or false?
True
If a fully catheter is left in the urinary bladder for a longer time then indicated it will be considered ______and might cause______
Indwelling
Septic shock
What a portion of the colon is removed due to cancer or when the ileum is removed due to Crohn’s disease, a construction procedure called ________or ______is performed
Colonostomy
Ileostomy
In the previous procedure, a loop of intestine is brought out of the body surgical incision on the abdominal wall. This artificial opening is called
Stoma
Disposable ostomy bags are attached to the skin with a double faced adhesive substance that seals the back to the skin, true or false?
True
When scanning an area with a wound dressing on it, sterile technique should be practiced, true or false?
True
You can use regular gel on a wound area, true or false
False you should always you sterile gel on a wounded area
You have to use a sterile transducer cover when scanning a wounded area, true or false?
True
Report to the nurse if you see pus or blood coming from the wooded area or when there is odor or if the patient is complaining of pain itching or burning, true or false?
True
How much oxygen does room air have
21%
The main reason you have to apply oxygen when someone is not breathing normally or if someone is turning blue is to avoid
Hypoxia
It is the sonographers responsibility to ensure oxygen equipment is available in the ultrasound room and in working condition and you know how to administer oxygen to a patient, true or false?
True
Oxygen is considered a drug by the FDA and only doctors may prescribe oxygen, true or false
True
Oxygen administration should not exceed 5 L per minute as excess of oxygen has toxic effects on the Longs, eyes, CNS, and may depress
Breathing
Always- the minimum amount of oxygen that is capable of providing the desired result should be administered, true or false?
True
Oxygen delivery system is composed of three parts – what are they
- Source of O2- tank or wall
- Breathing device- cannula or mask
- connecting tube
The source of oxygen can be______ or_______.
Tank
In wall
The most commonly used breedings devices are the _______ and the_____.
Nasal cannula and the oxygen mask.
What are all parts of the oxygen tank and what is their function?
- On/off valve- turns on flow from tank or wall unit
- cylinder pressure gauge- measures the psi of oxygen in the tank
- Oxygen flow meter- measures flow of oxygen (in L)
- Port for cannula/mask
The Ambu bag is a self inflating
Oxygen source
Ambu bags have to be connected to an oxygen source so they can function, true or false?
False and Ambu bag is a self inflating oxygen source
What does bagging the patient mean?
To use the Ambu bag
The valve in the Ambu bag allows the air to flow in ________preventing _______of the bag.
One direction
Backflow/contamination
It is OK to transport a patient and the oxygen tank is placed next to him on the stretcher, true or false?
False – the oxygen tank must be secured to the side of the stretcher and Locked in
It is OK to smoke near an oxygen tank, true or false?
Hell no! Bc oxygen is SUPER flammable, that’s why!!!!
Any combustible material should be placed away from the oxygen tank such as perfumes, alcohol, propane – true or false?
True
When you were transferring a patient who is any wheelchair and the oxygen tank is placed behind the chair, make sure you hold the chair when the patient stands up so the chair does not flip backwards – true or false?
True – oxygen tanks are very very heavy
Mention all the steps you need to apply in order when you transfer a patient from one oxygen source to another
- )Check rate of O2 flow
- )Turn on and adjust new source
- )Make sure new source is working
- )Remove cannula from patient, detach from old source- place on new source and back on patient ASAP. (*Do not leave the cannula on patient during transfer-you can blast them w O2.)
- ) Shut off old source
What are the breathing devices which allowed the administration of low to moderate concentrations of oxygen?
Nasal cannula, simple face mask, Venturi mask
What are breathing devices that allow the administration of high concentration of oxygen?
Nonrebreather mask, mechanical ventilation, CPAP
Nasal cannula supplies _____percent of oxygen versus the 21% in room air
35%
Nasal cannula is the most convenient oxygen delivery method, true or false?
True
One end of the nasal cannula has two prongs that have to be placed in the patient’s nostrils, the other end should be connected to a connecting tube- true or false?
True
On one end of the nasal cannula there are two prongs which have to be placed in the patient’s nostrils-the other end should be connected to a______.
Connecting tube
Simple 02 mask provides around _____percent oxygen. It covers the patients _______and______.
40%.
Mouth
Nose
Simple mask should be connected to a _____or_____.
Oxygen source
Ambu bag
Partial rebreather mask is also called the ______and it delivers 02 concentrations of________
Venturi mask
40-60%
Nonrebreather mask or reservoir mask always has a bag attached to it known as the reservoir which must be inflated by one third, true or false?
True
Tracheostomy mask is used to provide ________to patients with tracheostomy.
Oxygen water mist
Intubation means
Insertion of a tube to establish and maintain an airway if someone cannot adequately breathe on their own
The most common type of intubation is when the tube is inserted into the trachea through the______.
Mouth
Intubation is used for up to two weeks. If the patient has not improved, _______is needed
Tracheostomy
When is the respirator or mechanical ventilator used?
The mechanical ventilator is used in the ICU on patient with a tracheostomy or who are intubated.
Respirator or mechanical ventilator is used on patients who cannot breathe on their own, true or false
True
CPAP is used on patients with______,_________ and______
Sleep apnea
COPD exacerbation
CHF
What are the five rights of drug administration?
- Right drug must be given
- The right patient must be given the right drug
- The right amount must be administered
- The drug must be given at the right time
- The drug must be given via the right route
Always check the expiration date on drugs, true or false?
True
Do not use a medication container or a needle that has past the expiration date true or false?
True
You can use an expired expensive needle probe only for teaching purposes after you place a label on it which says teaching purposes only and you must put it in a separate container in a separate cabinet from patients supplies – true or false
True
Always check the name of the drug container that is needed in a procedure when the container is removed from the shelf, when the drug is removed from the container and again right before usage – true or false
True
It is a good practice never to administer a drug someone else has prepared, true or false
True
If you are asked to prepare a drug for another health professional to administer, always show the container to the individual who will administer and read to him or her the expiration date, true or false?
True
To ensure that you are administering the right drug to the right patient, check the patients wristband for proper identification and ask the patient to state his or her name, true or false
True
Address the patient by name before administering the drug, true or false?
True
If you were administering 5 mL of a drug, make sure that the syringe is more then
5ml
Sonographers must be for Milyer with the terminology associated with the most common routes of drug ministration, true or false?
True
Name the routes of drug admin.
Entral- include G.I. tract administration via oral, sub lingual, and rectal routes.
Parentral- drugs administered via other routes- subcutaneous, intramuscular, picc/ central line, swan ganz cath, arterial lines, intravenous, intradermal
Topical/dermal
Respiratory
Entral route means by________. It includes______, _______, and_______.
G.I. tract administration
Oral
Sublingual
Rectal
What does parenteral route mean? Mention the eight routes that are considered parenteral routes
Subcutaneous Intradermal Intramuscular Arterial lines Intravenous PICC line Central IV line Swan ganz catheter
Drug is injected in the parenteral route have a slow action because they absorbed directly into the bloodstream, true or false?
False. Parenteral route drugs have a quick action
All forms of parenteral administration require the use of a needle, syringe, and container I eat ampules or vials true or false
True
Sonographers will not administer drugs, but will frequently assist true or false?
True
And eclectic syringe is one that has the tip located right in the center, true or false
False and eclectic syringe has the tip located on the side- not in the center
What does Luer lock syringe mean
It is a one time use syringe
Syringe is come in different sizes and shapes, true or false?
True
Mention the parts of a syringe
- Tip-where the needle attaches
- barrel- where the calibration scale is printed
- plunger- inside part of the syringe that fits into the barrel and is depressed to dispense medication
Needles used for injections are reusable, true or false
False! Needles should never ever be used a second time!!!!! They must be disposed of in the sharps box.
Needles come in different sizes true or false
True
What are the parts of a needle
- The hub -which is attached to the syringe
- Cannula- shaft or length
- Bevel – slanted portion at the tip.
Needles are sized according to their______ and ________.
Legnth
Gague
Length refers to
How long a needle is
Gauge refers to
The diameter of the needle. The higher the number the lower the diameter
For a superficial mass, you need a longer needle than for a deep mass true or false?
False-for a superficial mass you need a shorter Needle
Shorter noodles are used for subcutaneous injections and longer nails are used for intramuscular injections true or false?
True
The smaller the diameter of the shaft or the finer the needle, the larger the gauge number true or false
True
An 18 gauge needle is thinner than a 14 gauge needle true or false?
True
Needles that take core biopsies have a larger diameter the needles used for find needle aspiration, true or false?
True
The bigger the diameter of the needle, the smaller the gauge number true or false
True
Drugs come in different shapes. For example, _______or_______.
Ampul
Viles
How do you prepare and ampul or vile for the radiologist?
Ampule-1. hold upright.
- flick the top until the dose is 100% at the bottom.
- Wrap a dry gauze pad around the neck snap off the top
- do not allow needle shaft to touch outer broken edge while drawing
Vial- 1. remove metal. Wipe with alcohol
- Open syringe packet and draw air equal to Jose
- Pick up vile with non-dominant hand.
- Invert
- With dominant hand – insert syringe only allowing the syringe to touch the rubber stopper.
- Evacuate the needle of air.
- With the needle tip below fluid line, draw medication.
- Remove needle, tap to accumulate air bubbles at the top with the needle pointing upwards.
- Slight push on plunger to expel air
- After use, dispose of in sharps container.
What is intradermal injection used for?
When very small doses of a drug are administered for sensitivity testing or local anesthetic.
In intradermal injection, the drug is administered between the layers of skin just below the surface true or false
True
What are the most common sites for subcutaneous injections?
The forearm- for tb
The back- allergies
Insulin and pepper and injections are intradermal, true or false?
True
The most common sites for intramuscular injections are the deltoid muscle in the upper arm and the gluteal medius in the buttock, true or false?
True
_______Injection is the fastest route to administer drugs
Arterial line
_____ provides a direct route to the bloodstream for medications or fluid
IV line
When IV needle is inserted, always observe the site closely for any signs of extra vision which is leaking from a vessel into tissue, or infiltration, true or false?
True
The cephalic vein is located on the medial side of the arm, true or false
False. The cephalic vein is on the lateral side of the arm
The most commonly used superficial veins for IV are_____ and ______. Occasionally the_______ are used.
Basilic and cephalic vein’s
Veins on the posterior hand
What does extravasion mean?
Extravasation is leakage from a vessel into tissue
In patients with small veins or in children, _____needle is used
A butterfly
What are the three methods of administration of drugs intravenously?
Single administration
IV bolus/push
Drip in fusion
Intravenous Bolus/push is used when treating patients who have_______ with fluids.
Shock
Drip infusion is used when
Large volumes of fluid are needed
Unless specifically authorized, a sonographer should not change or regulate the amount of flow of a solution, true or false?
True
Institutions may use ______and controllers to propel a measured amount of fluid or solution through the tubing over a period of time at the desired drip rate.
Computerized pumps
Mention examples of problems that may occur with the drug infusion system which might cause the alarm to sound beeps or flash a light.
Air in line Bent line Bag change Flow failure rate Infiltration
Bottle or a bag that has therapeutic fluids or drugs should never be lowered below the Level of the needle insertion when transferring or positioning the patient, true or false?
True
It helps to keep the patient’s arm in the street position, so the IV does not get occluded true or false?
True
When one of these conditions happens, you should reported to the nurse. Mentioned these conditions
Patient feels pain Blood in the IV Infiltration of the line Secretions suddenly increased by a large volume There is pus leakage or a strange smell
Central line is administered in the
ICU
With central line, there is room for parallel multiple compartments within the catheter, some multiple drugs maybe administered simultaneously, true or false?
True
With central line, a catheter is inserted with its tip, usually within a larger vein like the superior vena cava (by cannulating the int jugular or the subclavian vein) or inferior vena cava but (cannulating the femoral vein) or within the right atrium- true or false?
True
P ICC line stands for
Peripherally inserted central catheter
Patients who have a pick line are at increased risk of developing _____ in the upper extremities.
DVT – deep vein thrombosis
PICC line is usually used when intravenous access is required over a prolonged period of time. For example, during chemotherapy regimens or extended antibiotic therapy, true or false?
True
In P ICC line, the catheter is inserted through a peripheral vein, preferably in the upper arm such as the cephalic basilic or brachial, and advanced until the tip of the catheter reaches a large vein, true or false?
True
And arterial line is used in a very sick patient to monitor _____and______.
ABG – arterial blood gases
Blood pressure
ABG stands for
Arterial blood gases
_______catheters are placed in the right side of the heart and it floats in the pulmonary artery.
Swan Ganz
Intrathecal route of drug administration means______.
Placement of meds around the spinal cord i.e. a spinal epidural
Intra-articular route of drug administration means
The medication is administered into a joint i.e. a Cortizone shot
Examples of topical route of drug administration are
Hormonal patches, nicotine patches, morphine patches
Only doctors or physicians assistance when authorized can administer drugs through arterial, thecal, and intra-articular routes, true or false?
True
