ASA Private Pilot 2020 Test Prep Chapter 4 Questions Flashcards
1
Q
The definition of nighttime is
A
the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
2
Q
In regards to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may
A
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
3
Q
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
A
If the donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
4
Q
(Refer to figure 74) What minimum pilot certificate is required for a flight departing out of Hayward executive area (area 6)?
A
Student Pilot Certificate.
5
Q
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
A
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air.
6
Q
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft?
A
Single-engine land and sea, multiengine, land and sea.
7
Q
For private pilot operations, a first-class medical certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on
A
October 31, 5 years later.
8
Q
To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding
A
48 months.
9
Q
For private pilot operations under BasicMed, the pilot-in-command is allowed to fly with no more than
A
5 passengers.
10
Q
To maintain BasicMed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every
A
48 months.
11
Q
What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft
A
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
12
Q
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible with the aircraft
A
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crew member.
13
Q
A recreational or private pilot acting as a pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current
A
medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
14
Q
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any
A
local law enforcement officer.
15
Q
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the proceeding
A
24 calendar months.
16
Q
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunrise in 1830, the latest time that passengers may be carried is
A
1929.
17
Q
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding
A
90 days.
18
Q
Your Cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within in the preceding
A
90 days.
19
Q
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
A
category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
20
Q
To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in
A
the same category and class of aircraft to be used.
21
Q
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
A
August 31, 2 years later.
22
Q
Each recreational or private pilot is required to have
A
a biennial flight review.
23
Q
The takeoffs and landing required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane
A
must be a full stop.
24
Q
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
A
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
25
What is the definition of a high performance airplane?
An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
26
Before a person holding a Private Pilot Certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have
received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.
27
In order to act as a pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have
received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
28
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in a pilot's logbook a minimum of
100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
29
To act as a pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months
at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
30
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
30 days after the date of the move.
31
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the
pilot in command.
32
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may
deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
33
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the administrator
upon request.
34
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
The pilot in command.
35
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
36
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport shall include
an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
37
In addition to other preflight actions for VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
38
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after than for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
39
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
40
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
41
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?
The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
42
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of safety belts for a flight is the responsibility of
the pilot-in-command.
43
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
44
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
45
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
8 hours.
46
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
47
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
48
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
49
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
An aircraft in distress.
50
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
The aircraft on the left shall give way.
51
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
Glider.
| Options were: Glider, Airship, Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
52
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
The airship.
53
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
Aircraft towing other aircraft.
| Options were: Gyroplane, Airship, Aircraft towing other aircraft.
54
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of the landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other.
55
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?
The seaplane.
56
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
Both pilots should give way to the right.
57
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
180 days.
58
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear and approved parachute?
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.
59
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
an emergency.
60
As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?
In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.
61
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused a pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance.
Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
62
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
63
An ATC clearance provides
authorization to proceed under specific traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
64
While on a VFR cross-country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?
121.5 MHz.
65
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
66
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
67
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
68
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
500 feet.
69
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
2,000 feet.
70
What minimum flight visibility is required or VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
3 miles.
71
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
72
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
1,000 feet.
73
VFR flight is controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
74
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
5 miles.
75
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is
1 mile.
76
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL an at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
1,000 feet.
77
(Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet are
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
78
(Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
79
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
80
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown after departing and climbing out of Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are
1 mile and clear of clouds.
81
(Refer to Figure 78.) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?
1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
82
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) Inflight and approaching the Bryn (Pvt) Airstrip, the weather minimums are
1 statute mile visibility.
83
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
84
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL,but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
3 miles.
85
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight for day visibility for day VFR flight is
1 mile.
86
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
500 feet.
87
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
ground visibility is at least 3 miles.
88
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
89
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while in Class D airspace when visibility is
at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
90
What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?
1 mile flight visibility.
91
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
92
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
93
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
Air Traffic Control Tower.
94
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?
Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.
95
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.
5,500 feet.
96
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?
4,500 feet.
97
Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a
magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.
98
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
Normal, utility, and acrobatic.
99
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and balloon.
100
Unless specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate
over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
101
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category of civil aircraft?
Flight over a densely populated area.
102
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
103
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or danger to persons or property on the surface.
104
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?
The pilot must close the flight plan with the FAA upon landing.
105
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
250 knots.
106
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flow when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is
200 knots.
107
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
200 knots.
108
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
109
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate?
Attached to the airworthiness certificate.
110
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
111
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
112
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
owner or operator.
113
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a
review of the maintenance records.
114
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
Owner or operator.
115
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
Owner or operator.
116
Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by
an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
117
An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
July 31, next year.
118
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the
aircraft maintenance records.
119
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft tat are also used for flight instruction?
Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
120
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding
24 calendar months.
121
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The inspection will be due no later than
September 30, 2016.
122
Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
123
What regulations allows a private pilot to perform preventative maintenance?
14 CFR Part 43.7
124
Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for service?
Private or Commercial pilot.
125
Which operation would be described as preventative maintenance?
Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
126
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated
with passengers aboard.
127
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a
Private Pilot Certificate.
128
An aircraft has an 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?
1359.6 hours.
129
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
3402.5 hours.
130
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
Aircraft maintenance records.
131
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
They are mandatory.
132
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
133
Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are complied with?
Owner or operator.
134
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by
ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
135
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
60.
136
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject matter?
70.
137
FAA advisory circulars containing the subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?
90.
138
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
immediately.
139
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
Flight Control system malfunction or failure.
| Other options: A forced landing due to engine failure, landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
140
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
An in-flight fire.
| Other false options: An in-flight generator/alternator failure, An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability.
141
Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
(Other false options: An in-flight radio communications failure, An in-flight generator or alternator failure.)
142
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
143
The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?
10.
144
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
when requested.
