ASA Private Pilot 2020 Test Prep Chapter 4 Questions

Question 1

The definition of nighttime is

Answer 1

the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Question 2

In regards to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

Answer 2

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

Question 3

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

Answer 3

If the donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.

Question 4

(Refer to figure 74) What minimum pilot certificate is required for a flight departing out of Hayward executive area (area 6)?

Answer 4

Student Pilot Certificate.

Question 5

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

Answer 5

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air.

Question 6

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft?

Answer 6

Single-engine land and sea, multiengine, land and sea.

Question 7

For private pilot operations, a first-class medical certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on

Answer 7

October 31, 5 years later.

Question 8

To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding

Answer 8

48 months.

Question 9

For private pilot operations under BasicMed, the pilot-in-command is allowed to fly with no more than

Answer 9

5 passengers.

Question 10

To maintain BasicMed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every

Answer 10

48 months.

Question 11

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft

Answer 11

An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

Question 12

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible with the aircraft

Answer 12

Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crew member.

Question 13

A recreational or private pilot acting as a pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current

Answer 13

medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.

Question 14

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any

Answer 14

local law enforcement officer.

Question 15

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the proceeding

Answer 15

24 calendar months.

Question 16

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunrise in 1830, the latest time that passengers may be carried is

Answer 16

1929.

Question 17

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding

Answer 17

90 days.

Question 18

Your Cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within in the preceding

Answer 18

90 days.

Question 19

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same

Answer 19

category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.

Question 20

To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in

Answer 20

the same category and class of aircraft to be used.

Question 21

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?

Answer 21

August 31, 2 years later.

Question 22

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have

Answer 22

a biennial flight review.

Question 23

The takeoffs and landing required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane

Answer 23

must be a full stop.

Question 24

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from

Answer 24

1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

Question 25

What is the definition of a high performance airplane?

Answer 25

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

Question 26

Before a person holding a Private Pilot Certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have

Answer 26

received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person’s logbook.

Question 27

In order to act as a pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have

Answer 27

received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.

Question 28

A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in a pilot’s logbook a minimum of

Answer 28

100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

Question 29

To act as a pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months

Answer 29

at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.

Question 30

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

Answer 30

30 days after the date of the move.

Question 31

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

Answer 31

pilot in command.

Question 32

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may

Answer 32

deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.

Question 33

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the administrator

Answer 33

upon request.

Question 34

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

Answer 34

The pilot in command.

Question 35

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

Answer 35

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

Question 36

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport shall include

Answer 36

an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Question 37

In addition to other preflight actions for VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

Answer 37

determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.

Question 38

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

Answer 38

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after than for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Question 39

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

Answer 39

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Question 40

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

Answer 40

Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

Question 41

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

Answer 41

The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

Question 42

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of safety belts for a flight is the responsibility of

Answer 42

the pilot-in-command.

Question 43

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

Answer 43

taxi, takeoffs, and landings.

Question 44

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

Answer 44

Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.

Question 45

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

Answer 45

8 hours.

Question 46

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

Answer 46

In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

Question 47

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

Answer 47

.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Question 48

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

Answer 48

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

Question 49

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

Answer 49

An aircraft in distress.

Question 50

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

Answer 50

The aircraft on the left shall give way.

Question 51

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Answer 51

Glider.

Options were: Glider, Airship, Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

Question 52

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

Answer 52

The airship.

Question 53

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Answer 53

Aircraft towing other aircraft.

Options were: Gyroplane, Airship, Aircraft towing other aircraft.

Question 54

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of the landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

Answer 54

at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other.

Question 55

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?

Answer 55

The seaplane.

Question 56

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

Answer 56

Both pilots should give way to the right.

Question 57

An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

Answer 57

180 days.

Question 58

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear and approved parachute?

Answer 58

When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.

Question 59

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

Answer 59

an emergency.

Question 60

As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

Answer 60

In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

Question 61

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused a pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance.

Answer 61

Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.

Question 62

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

Answer 62

File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.

Question 63

An ATC clearance provides

Answer 63

authorization to proceed under specific traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

Question 64

While on a VFR cross-country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?

Answer 64

121.5 MHz.

Question 65

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

Answer 65

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

Question 66

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

Answer 66

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

Question 67

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

Answer 67

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

Question 68

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

Answer 68

500 feet.

Question 69

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

Answer 69

2,000 feet.

Question 70

What minimum flight visibility is required or VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

Answer 70

3 miles.

Question 71

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

Answer 71

500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

Question 72

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

Answer 72

1,000 feet.

Question 73

VFR flight is controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

Answer 73

3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

Question 74

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

Answer 74

5 miles.

Question 75

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

Answer 75

1 mile.

Question 76

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL an at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

Answer 76

1,000 feet.

Question 77

(Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet are

Answer 77

3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

Question 78

(Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are

Answer 78

3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

Question 79

(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are

Answer 79

3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

Question 80

(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown after departing and climbing out of Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are

Answer 80

1 mile and clear of clouds.

Question 81

(Refer to Figure 78.) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?

Answer 81

1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

Question 82

(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) Inflight and approaching the Bryn (Pvt) Airstrip, the weather minimums are

Answer 82

1 statute mile visibility.

Question 83

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

Answer 83

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

Question 84

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL,but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

Answer 84

3 miles.

Question 85

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight for day visibility for day VFR flight is

Answer 85

1 mile.

Question 86

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

Answer 86

500 feet.

Question 87

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

Answer 87

ground visibility is at least 3 miles.

Question 88

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

Answer 88

1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

Question 89

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while in Class D airspace when visibility is

Answer 89

at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

Question 90

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?

Answer 90

1 mile flight visibility.

Question 91

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

Answer 91

The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

Question 92

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the

Answer 92

airplane is equipped for instrument flight.

Question 93

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?

Answer 93

Air Traffic Control Tower.

Question 94

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?

Answer 94

Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.

Question 95

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.

Answer 95

5,500 feet.

Question 96

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?

Answer 96

4,500 feet.

Question 97

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

Answer 97

magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.

Question 98

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

Answer 98

Normal, utility, and acrobatic.

Question 99

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

Answer 99

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and balloon.

Question 100

Unless specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate

Answer 100

over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.

Question 101

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category of civil aircraft?

Answer 101

Flight over a densely populated area.

Question 102

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

Answer 102

except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

Question 103

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

Answer 103

If precautions are taken to avoid injury or danger to persons or property on the surface.

Question 104

How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?

Answer 104

The pilot must close the flight plan with the FAA upon landing.

Question 105

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

Answer 105

250 knots.

Question 106

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flow when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

Answer 106

200 knots.

Question 107

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

Answer 107

200 knots.

Question 108

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

Answer 108

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

Question 109

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate?

Answer 109

Attached to the airworthiness certificate.

Question 110

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

Answer 110

Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.

Question 111

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

Answer 111

As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

Question 112

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the

Answer 112

owner or operator.

Question 113

The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a

Answer 113

review of the maintenance records.

Question 114

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the

Answer 114

Owner or operator.

Question 115

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

Answer 115

Owner or operator.

Question 116

Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by

Answer 116

an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.

Question 117

An aircraft’s annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than

Answer 117

July 31, next year.

Question 118

To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the

Answer 118

aircraft maintenance records.

Question 119

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft tat are also used for flight instruction?

Answer 119

Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.

Question 120

No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding

Answer 120

24 calendar months.

Question 121

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The inspection will be due no later than

Answer 121

September 30, 2016.

Question 122

Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?

Answer 122

The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

Question 123

What regulations allows a private pilot to perform preventative maintenance?

Answer 123

14 CFR Part 43.7

Question 124

Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for service?

Answer 124

Private or Commercial pilot.

Question 125

Which operation would be described as preventative maintenance?

Answer 125

Replenishing hydraulic fluid.

Question 126

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft’s operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

Answer 126

with passengers aboard.

Question 127

Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a

Answer 127

Private Pilot Certificate.

Question 128

An aircraft has an 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?

Answer 128

1359.6 hours.

Question 129

A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

Answer 129

3402.5 hours.

Question 130

Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?

Answer 130

Aircraft maintenance records.

Question 131

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD’s)?

Answer 131

They are mandatory.

Question 132

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?

Answer 132

Yes, if allowed by the AD.

Question 133

Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are complied with?

Answer 133

Owner or operator.

Question 134

FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by

Answer 134

ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.

Question 135

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

Answer 135

60.

Question 136

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject matter?

Answer 136

70.

Question 137

FAA advisory circulars containing the subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?

Answer 137

90.

Question 138

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

Answer 138

immediately.

Question 139

Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

Answer 139

Flight Control system malfunction or failure.

Other options: A forced landing due to engine failure, landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.

Question 140

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

Answer 140

An in-flight fire.

Other false options: An in-flight generator/alternator failure, An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability.

Question 141

Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?

Answer 141

An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
(Other false options: An in-flight radio communications failure, An in-flight generator or alternator failure.)

Question 142

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

Answer 142

Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.

Question 143

The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?

Answer 143

10.

Question 144

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB

Answer 144

when requested.