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ABFAS > Arthroscopy > Flashcards

Arthroscopy Flashcards

1
Q

What anatomical structures are considered when making a Anteriorlateral port?

A

Extensor digitorum longus and the superficial peroneal nerve

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2
Q

What anatomical structures are considered when making a Anteriormedial port?

A

Saphenous vein and Tibialis Anterior

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3
Q

What is the most common size and angulation of an arthroscope used?

A

2.7 mm and 30° or 0° of angulation

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4
Q

What is the minimum distance an accessory port between the two working ports?

A

One cm

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5
Q

In anterior soft tissue impingement of the ankle, pathology is generally limited to what?

A

The syndesmosis and the lateral gutter

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6
Q

What anatomical structures are considered when making a posterolateral port?

A

The sural nerve and the short saphenous vein

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7
Q

What are the basic joint surveying techniques and ankle arthroscopy?

A

Scanning, pistoning and rotating

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8
Q

Prior to beginning arthroscopy, which portal is developed first?

A

The medial portal is Developed first and the scope Is placed into survey the joint prior to lateral portal development

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9
Q

What type of specific synovitis occurs in three stages

A

Chronic synovial chondromatosis

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10
Q

What is using drilling and OCD of the Taylor dome?

A

.062K wire

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11
Q

What type and size of screw is used in arthroscopic ankle fusion of the ankle?

A

Cannulated 6.5 mm cancellous screw system

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12
Q

What are considered abnormal values in the anterior drawer stress test

A

Between 5 to 10 mm of anterior displacement of the talus from the distal tibia and over 10 mm of displacement Are considered grossly abnormal. In comparison with the unaffected extremity, The injured ankle should have an anterior drawer test result of 3 mm or more to be considered significant

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13
Q

What is the bernt hardy stage 1 Classification?

A

Compression of the articular cartilage

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14
Q

What is the bernt hardy stage 2 Classification?

A

An incomplete to fracture

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15
Q

What is the bernt hardy stage 3 Classification?

A

nondisplaced complete fracture

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16
Q

What is the bernt hardy stage 4 Classification?

A

Displaced complete fracture

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17
Q

Which side of the anterior half of the Taylor Dome usually produces a shallow wafer shaped fracture?

A

Lateral

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18
Q

Which side of the posterior third of the Taylor Dome is subject to deep, cup shaped lesions?

A

Medial

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19
Q

Which instrument has a sharp point and is used to Pierce soft tissue and capsule?

A

trocar

20
Q

ArthroScopes are available and what sizes?

A

1.7 mm to 8 mm

21
Q

What radiographic views use to evaluate an anterior drawer test?

A

Lateral

22
Q

What radiographic views use to evaluate an Inversion stress test?

A

AP

23
Q

Fibers of what ligament make up the floor of the medial gutter?

A

Anterior tibiotalar ligament of the deep deltoid

24
Q

Describe the hibbs procedure

A

The extensor digitorum longus tendons are tenodesed into the midfoot at the level of the third metatarsal base or the lateral cuneiform

25
Q

The intermetatarsal neuroma most often involves which nerve?

A

Third common digital branch of the medial plantar nerve

26
Q

What is the Lachman test?

A

With the second metatarsal immobilized and the proximal phalanx held in 20 to 25° of dorsiflexion, the proximal phalanx is translated vertically in a dorsal direction. This is a test for MPJ instability or the inability to resist dorsal subluxation

27
Q

Unconscious proprioception is assessed by?

A

Romberg test

28
Q

Positioning a joint in the position most likely to compress or stretch the nerves crossing is known as?

A

phalens sign

29
Q

Fasciculations suggest dysfunction of?

A

Lower motor neuron disease

30
Q

What anatomical structure is cited as an trapping the intermetatarsal nerve?

A

Deep transverse intermetatarsal ligament

31
Q

Joplin’s neuroma involve which anatomical structure?

A

Plantar proper digital nerve

32
Q

Which neuroma is in the first interspace and which is in the fourth interspace?

A

iselins and hueters

33
Q

What is Freiberg’s infraction?

A

Osteochondrosis of the metatarsal head most commonly the second, and appearing most often in the second decade of life

34
Q

How does an exostosis differ from osteochondroma?

A

Fibrocartilage caps the bone instead of Hayline cap

35
Q

What is the proper sequence of steps used during the sequential reduction of a dorsally subluxed MPJ?

A

Release of a extensor hood expansion, release of collateral ligaments, release of plantar joint tissues

36
Q

Which an injectable steroids should be reserve for damaged joints?

A

Acetate’s such as Kenalog or triamcinolone

37
Q

What are the steps of Conversion of a percentage solution to mg?

A

1-Multiply the concentration percentage by 10.
2-Change percentage to mg/cc.
3- Multiply by the number of cc’s and injected

38
Q

10 mL of .25% Marcaine is how many milligrams?

A

.25% x 10 = 2.5 mg/cc x 10 cc = 25 mg

39
Q

What is the maximum amount of milligrams ofLidocaine which may be injected?

A

300 mg without epi and 500 mg with epi

40
Q

What is the maximum amount of the bupivicain which can be injected

A

175 mg for 225 mg

41
Q

What is the ratio of epinephrine mixed with local anesthetic?

A

1: 200,000-400,000

42
Q

Which anestheticIs contraindicated in patients under 12 years of age due to its effects on growth plates?

A

marcaine

43
Q

What is the primary effect of diuretics to facilitate water loss?

A

excrete salt

44
Q

What type of diuretics may increase serum uric acid or hypokalemia

A

Loop diuretics

45
Q

Name the Loop diuretic that is most commonly used

A

Lasix a.k.a. furosemide

46
Q

What is the action on the heart by beta blockers?

A

Used to treat tachyarrhythmia’s, Text to prolong AV conduction, decrease heart rate, contractility and decrease Blood pressure

ABFAS (4 decks)

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