Arthroplasty Flashcards

1
Q

Vancouver Classification for periprosthetic THA and Tx?

A

A: troch fx, if less than 2 cm displacement can tx nonop

B1: Stable stem, ORIF with locking plate and cables

B2: loose stem, long porous coated or MFTS

B3: poor bone stock and loose, Femoral revision with proximal femoral allograft or PFR

C: Fx well below prosthesis, ORIF with plate

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2
Q

Risk factor for intraop femoral fx during THA?

A
Female***
Anterolateral approach**** (vs posterolateral)
MIS surgery
Cementless stem***
Revision***
Metabolic bone disease***

Intraop calcar fx treated with cerclage does NOT increase risk of component subsidence or failure in long term f/u

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3
Q

Polyethylene sterilization

1-Radiation, oxidation vs cross linking, removal of free radicals

2 - how to solve these issues?

A

1- Gamma radiation is MOST COMMON form of PE sterilization –> get oxidized PE which wears poorly and causes osteolysis***

Oxidation vs cross linking
O2 rich environment –> PE becomes oxidized –> early failure 2/2 delimitation, pitting, fatigue strength/crakcing

O2 depleted environment: PE becomes CROSS LINKED –> better resistance to adhesive and abrasive wear*
Decreased Mechanical properties –> decrease4d ductility and fatigue resistance! –> higher risk of catastrophic failure under high loads
Must package in argon or nitrogen or in vacuum
*

Free radical removal:
Thermal stabilization/remelting –>? removes free radicals made during radiation sterilization for cross linking –> most effective as it occurs above PE melting point* –> changes PE from partial crystalline state to amorphous state –> this REDUCES mechanical properties*

Annealing: MAINTAINS MECHANICAL PROPERTIES –> less effective at removing free radicals! –> susceptible to oxidation ***

2 - Solution: Irraiate PE in INERT GAS (nitrogen or argon) or in vacuum to minimize oxidation***

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4
Q

PE manufacturing fabrication methods

Causes of failure?

Solution?

A

Manufacturing Methods
1-Ram bar extrusion and machining
UHMWPE powder into heated chamber, ram pushes into heated cylinder barrel –> cylindrical rod –> 10 ft length –> implants from bar stock –> get VARIATIONS in PE quality w/in bar***

2- Calcium stearate additive –> leads to fusion defects in PE

3- Sheet compression molding: UHMWPE powder into 4’ x 8’ rectangular container to make sheets up to 8” thick –> implants from molded sheets

4 - direct compression molding/net shape
UHMWPE poser into molded shape of final component –> heated –> BEST PE FABRICATION PROCESS*** –> lower wear rates but slow and expensive

Failure
Machining shear forces causes subsurface region stretching of PE chains
PE more susceptible to XRT in this region –> more oxidation –> delimitation and fatigue cracking –> Classic white band of oxidation 1-2 mm below articular surface***

Perfect storm for catastrophic wear:
Metal backed tibia w/ bone conserving tibial cut = thin PE
Flat bearing design –> low contact area with HIGH contact load
PCL retention w/ flat PE –> high sliding wear
Ram bar PE w/ calcium stearate additive –> fusion defects in PE
Gamma rad in air –> weakened mech properties of PE (oxidation)
Machine PE surface –> cutting tool stretch effect on PE

Solution
Use DIRECT COMPRESSION MOLDING of PE
Less fatigue crack formation and propagation vs ram bar extrusion*
Avoid machining of articular surface

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5
Q

What process changes PE from partial crystalline to amorphous state?

What process most increases wear resistance for UHMWPE?

Does annealing or remelting decrease free radicals more?

A

Crystalline to amorphous - Remelting***

Increases wear-resistance: Radiation –> cross linking***

Remelting reduces free radicals more***

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6
Q

What wear rate is ass’d with osteolysis and component loosening?

What component factor most determines wear rate for THA?

A

Linear wear rate > 0.1 mm/year***

Most important factor = head size***
V = 3.14r^2w (V = volumetric wear, r = head radius, w = linear head wear)

HOWEVER –> femoral head sizes between 22 and 46 do NOT influence wear rates appreciably for UHMWPE**

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7
Q

What factors cause greater MoM serum ion levels?

A

Cup abduction >55 degrees***

Smaller component sizes***

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8
Q

What factors do macrophages release to cause osteolysis in total joint?

A

Osteolytic factors/cytokines
TNA-alpha*
IL-1
*
IL-6***

Increase in TNF-alpha INCREASES RANK*
increase of VEGF with UHMWPE enhances RANK and RANKL activation –> RNAKL mediated bone resorption
*

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9
Q

How to measure bone turnover on labs?

A

N-telopeptide urine levels***

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10
Q

What size of PE particles are the most reactive?

A

<1 micron* –> most reactive to macrophage induced osteolysis*

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11
Q

What is anakinra?

What is tocilizumab?

A

Receptor antagonist of IL-1**

IL-1 = PRO inflammatory cytokine –> causes osteolysis***

tocilizumab = monoclonal Ab against IL-6 (another pro inflammatory cytokine that causes OSTEOLYSIS)

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12
Q

How much wear per year puts a prosthetic joint at risk for failure?

A

0.1 mm/year***

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13
Q

What is a normal Tonnis angle?

A

Measures angle of the weight bearing surface

Angle between horizontal line from medial and lateral edges of sourcil***

Normal about 10 degrees***

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14
Q

Lateral center edge angle?

A

Measures femoral head lateralization on AP pelvis

Angle formed by intersection of vertical through center of head and line extending from center of head to lateral sourcil***

Normal 25-45; <20 DIAGNOSTIC for DDH

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15
Q

Anterior center edge angle?

A

Measures ANTERIOR DYSPLASIA on FALSE PROFILE

Angle between vertical line through center of head and line going from center of head to anterior sourcil***-

normal: 25-50 degrees; <20 diagnostic for DDH

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16
Q

What does alpha angle check on frog leg lateral?

A

checking for FAI secondary to femoral head/neck offset deformity***

Anything over 42 degrees = FAI***

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17
Q

Cell count for infection in TKA?

Acute infection numbers?

For hips?

MoM hips?

A

Cell count (long standing joint) for TKA –> 1100 cells and 64% PMN***

Acute infection: 27,800 cells in first 6 weeks after TKA** (basically 30,000)

Hips: WBC >3000 and PMN >80%***

MoM hips: 4350+ cells and 85% PMN***

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18
Q

What does alpha anti-defensing test for?

A

Presence of an INTRAARTICULAR, antimicrobial peptide**

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19
Q

How long can an infection be considered a surgical site infection (SSI)?

A

one year***

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20
Q

What inflammatory marker has the highest correlation for PJI?

A

IL-6 ***

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21
Q

What can decrease joint reactive forces? (Acetabulum, femur, gait)

What increases forces?

A

Decrease joint reactive forces by shifting center of rotation medially* –> do this by:
Acetabulum: Move acetabular component medially, inferiorly and anterior
*

Femur: Increase offset***
Long sem prosthesis
Lateralization of GT

Gait: shifting body weight over affected hip –> Trendelnburg gait*
Cane in contra hand
* –> reduces abductor muscle pull and decreases moment arm between center of gravity and femoral head –> cane creates additional force that keeps pelvis level during unilateral stance***

Increase joint reactive forces: Valgus neck-shaft angulation –> BUT decreases shear***

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22
Q

How to determine joint reactive forces (equation)?

A

Joint reactive force = Abductor tension + 5/6(body weight) ***

Abductor tension (distance from center of rotation to greater Troch) - (5/6BW x distance from center of head to center of pubis)***

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23
Q

What happens in Trendelenburg gait?

A

The pelvis on swing side drops, causing increased adduction of the affected hip during the stance phase***

Lurch of trunk towards affected side (during stance)

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24
Q

Normal Q angle in extension of males? females?

A

Males - 13 degrees***

Females 18 degrees***

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25
Q

What is “screw home” mechanism of knee mechanics?

A

Tibia EXTERNALLY ROTATES in last 15 degrees of extension***

Due to medial tibial plateau being longer than lateral plateau***

Relevance: “locks” knee in extension to decrease work performed by quad during stance

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26
Q

Normal tibia-femoral joint kinematics with flexion/extension

A

tibia EXernally rotates on femur as the knee EXtends*** (screw home mechanism)

Tibia internally rotates during knee flexion***

Medial femoral condyle does not move much from 0-120 degrees, but lateral femoral condyle moves posteriorly***

Then both move posteriorly from 120 degrees of flexion on***

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27
Q

What is “paradoxical motion” used to describe knee kinematics?

A

Used to describe ACL deficient CR TKA***

Femur usually has “rollback” –> posterior movement of tibiofemoral contact point with knee motion from extension to flexion

In “paradoxical rollback” –> ACL deficient CR knee can’t create normal femoral rollback w/ knee flexion*** –> get ANTERIOR contact movement (happens more on medial side than lateral in kinematic trial)

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28
Q

Risk of femoral head collapse based on imaging - how to predict?

A

Based on modified Kerboul necrotic angle –> add arc of femoral head necrosis on mid-sagittal and mid-coronal MR images***

Low risk: <190 combined degrees
Moderate: 190-240
High risk: >240 degrees***

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29
Q

What does bone marrow edema on MRI predict in case of early AVN of hip?

A

Predictive of worsening pain** and future progression of dz***

30
Q

Tx of femoral head AVN

Nonop?

A

Nonop: precollapse AVN –> can try alendronate –> shown to prevent head collapse in AVN w/ subchondral lucency***

Operative
Core decompression –> early AVN before subchondral collapse –> relieve intraosseos HTN and stimulate healing response via angiogenesis ***

Rotational osteotomy –> for small lesions (<15%) in which lesion can be rotated away from weight bearing surface –> do in IT region (varus for medial dz, valgus for anterolateral dz)

Vascularized free fibula
For young patient with either pre collapse or collapsed head –> remove necrotic area and place fibular star under subchondral bone to prevent collapse
Complications of Free fib –> sensory deficit, motor weakness, FHL contracture, tibial stress fx ***

THA
Younger patients: Higher rate of linear wear of PE and osteolysis when compared to older THA for OA***

31
Q

Who does best with hip resurfacing?

A

Male
<55 y/o
OA patients

32
Q

What % of asymptomatic patients with SCD who have AVN of femoral head will develop collapse? Pain?

A

75% develop collapse***

90% develop pain***

33
Q

What are some of MMP’s responsible for hip OA?

What are inflammatory cytokines?

A

MMP’s
1 - stromelysin*
2 - plasmin **
3 - aggrecanase - 1 (ADAMTS-4)
*

Inflammatory cytokines***
IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha

34
Q

How do corticosteroid injections work?

A

Bind directly to nuclear receptors to interrupt the inflammatory and immune cascade via mRNA changes***

35
Q

What changes are ass’d with adult hip dysplasia?

A

Increased femoral ante version w/ posterior GT**

Coxa valga**
Head-neck junction deformity

Femoral head asphericity

hypoplasia of femoral canal

36
Q

Crowe classification of hip dysplasia

A

I: proximal displacement <10% vertical height of pelvis, proximal migration of head neck junction from inter-teardrop line < 50% of femoral head vertical diameter (standard THA)

II: 10-15% vertical heigh, 50-75% femoral head subluxation (uncemented cup at or near true acetabulum, may need femoral shortening)

III: 15-20% vertical displacement, 75-100% femoral head subluxation (same as II)

IV: >20% vertical displacement, >100% femoral head subluxation (Extra-small acetabular component in true acetabulum, proximal shortening or subtroch osteotomy)

37
Q

Hip arthroscopy for adult DDH outcomes?

A

Chondral and labral pathology 2/2 osseous instability –> recurs and progresses

Ass’d with:
Accelerated progression of OA*
hip subluxation
*
Increased surgical failure and reoperation***

38
Q

THA for adult DDH outcomes

A

Outcomes for Crowe I and II initially the same as THA for OA, but long term f/u shows higher revision rates***

Increased complication profile:
Infection, instability and neuromuscular injury***

Risk of sciatic injury if limb lengthened by 4cm * (peroneal division)
Perform trochanter or subtroch osteotomy to shorten
**

39
Q

How much uncoverage with the super-lateral margin is acceptable in THA?

A

up to 30%***

40
Q

Most common acute failure of hip resurfacing?

A

Periprosthetic femoral neck fracture***

Likely due to osteonecrosis

Risk factors:
Femoral neck notching –> by placing implant in slight varus (rather than slight valgus)***

tx: covert to THA

41
Q

Risk factors for developing pseudo tumor after MoM hip resurfacing?

A

Female*
<40 y/o
*
Small components*
Procedure done for DDH
*

42
Q

Why does MoM larger head not cause increased wear rates?

A

Larger bearings have greater sliding speed***

Higher sliding speed increases amount of fluid drawn in so get increased separation of bearing surfaces –> offsets the negative effect of increased sliding distance of the larger head***

43
Q

leukocyte chromosomal aberrations are ass’d with what type of hip?

A

MoM hips***

44
Q

What risk do lateralized liners in acetabulum carry?

A

Increases risk of acetabular component loosening***

45
Q

What is optimal size for biologic fixation for femoral component in terms of:

Pore size?

Porosity?

Gaps?

Micromotion?

A

Pore size: 50- 300 micrometers (preferably 50-150 micrometers***)

Porosity 40-50% –> increased porosity leads to shearing of metal

Gaps < 50 micrometers –> gap between bone and prosthetics

Micromotion <150 micrometers –> if more get fibrous ingrowth***

46
Q

Risks of acetabular screw zones:

Posterior-superior?

Posterior-inferior?

Anterior-inferior?

Anterior-superior?

A

Posterior-superior
“Target zone” –> ideal location for screws
Can get into sciatic if elevate hip center during revision***

Posterior-inferior
“Caution zone” –> keep screws <20 mm
At risk: Sciatic, inferior gluteal nerve and vessels, internal pudendal nerve and vessels

Anterior-inferior quadrant
“Danger zone”
At risk: Obturator nerve, vessels

Anterior-superior
“Death zone”
At risk: external iliac vessels**

47
Q

Risk factors for sciatic nerve palsy after THA?

How often do post op THA sciatic palsies fully recover?

A
DDH***
Revision surgery***
Female***
Limb lengthening***
Post traumatic arthritis***
Surgeon self rating case as difficult***

Recovery: only 35-40% fully recover*** (Takes 12-18 months, so continue AFO during this time)

48
Q

Dose of radiation and when to give for HO prophylaxis?

A

600-800 cGy within 24-48 hours after procedure (or 24 hours prior to procedure = just as effective)***

49
Q

Co or Cr levels to get a MARS MRI?

A

7 ppb***

50
Q

Paprosky classification of acetabular bone loss?

A

Type I: minimal deformity, intact rim

Type IIA: Superior bone lysis w/ intact SUPERIOR rim

Type IIB: absent superior rim, super-lateral migration

Type IIC: Localized destruction of the medial wall

Type IIIA: Bone loss from 10 am - 2 pm around rim w/ super-lateral cup migration, ISCHIAL osteolysis

Type IIIB: Bone loss from 9 am - 5 pm around rim, superomedial cup migration, Ischial osteolysis

51
Q

Paprosky classification of femoral bone loss?

A

Type I: minimal metaphyseal bone loss

Type II: Extensive metaphyseal loss w/ intact diaphysis

Type IIIa: Extensive metadiaphyseal bone loss, min of 4 cm of intact cortical bone in diaphysis

Type IIIb: <4 cm of intact cortical bone in diaphysis

Type IV: Extensive metadiaphyseal bone loss and a non supportive diaphysis

52
Q

What pathway/signaling pathway causes osteophyte formation in OA?

A

Indian hedgehog***

Important mediator of chondrocyte and osteoblast differentiation in endochondral bone formation***

53
Q

AAOS strong evidence treatments for knee OA?

A

1 - NSAIDs*
2 - Tramadol
*
3 - Low impact aerobic activity***

Strong against:

HA injection
Arthroscopy w/ lavage an/or debridement

54
Q

Young patient with knee valgus (symptomatic), operation to perform?

A

Distal femoral osteotomy*** (not HTO)
Varus producing distal femoral osteotomy

Lateral femoral condyle is hypoplastic***
HTO will not correct deformity and will result in obliquity at the joint

Overall: HTO for varus knee*
Distal femoral for valgus knee
*

55
Q

Indications for UKA?

Contraindications?

A

Indications:
Older (>60), lower demand, thin (<82 kg) –> very few pts meet these criteria

Contraindications:
Inflammatory arthritis*
ACL deficiency
* (absolute for mobile bearing, relative for fixed bering)
Varus (fixed) >10 degrees
Valgus (fixed) >5 degrees
Previous meniscectomy in nonop compartment
Tricompartment arthritis*
Overweight patients
Grade IV patellofemoral chondrosis/anterior knee pain
*

56
Q

Complications from UKA?

A

1 - Aseptic loosening –> most common cause of early <5 years failure ***

2- Stress fx –> always tibia
Risk factors: Penetrating posterior cortex w/ tibial guid pin, placing guidepin metal in periphery, redrilling for guid pin, undersized tibial component***

3- Intraop fx

57
Q

How many degrees can be corrected for TKA on coronal plane with bony cuts alone?

A

20 degrees***

Any more and require extra-articular osteotomy***

58
Q

What changes when PCL resected in TKA?

A

Increases FLEXION gap***

59
Q

Females vs males with TKA?

A

Females have improved implant survivorship vs males***

60
Q

What factors will increase Q angle in TKA?

A

Internally rotating femoral or tibial component*
Medializing femoral or tibial component
*
Placing patellar button on lateral side (medialize this)***

61
Q

What happens to handicap after TKA? THA?

A

Golf handicap after TKA: significantly rises***

After THA: no change***

62
Q

What can cause anterior knee pain after healed HTO?

A

Patella baja***

Immobilization after closing wedge can precipitate anterior knee pain***

63
Q

what is most common intraop fx during TKA?

A

Medial condyle fx***

64
Q

What is starting point for retrograde nail thru TKA? what is malalignment that occurs?

A

Starting point is more POSTERIOR than normal***

Leads to HYPEREXTENSION***

65
Q

Tx of periprosthetic fx of patella in TKA?

A

Nonop
Cast or brace: if stable implant with intact extensor implant

Operative
Loose patellar or extensor mech disruption***

66
Q

How does lateral plating compare to retrograde nail for periprosthetic TKA fracture?

A

Same nonunion***

Less malunion with lateral plating (likely due to nailing having posterior start point leading to hyperextension)***

67
Q

Why does TKA dislocate?

A

Loose flexion gap***

Popliteus cut, too much tibial slope, undersizing femoral component, anteriorizing femoral component

68
Q

How to treat a partial quad tendon rupture with TKA?

A

Nonop***

Knee immobilizer for 6 weeks***

69
Q

Risk factors for peroneal palsy after TKA?

A

Valgus*
Tourniquet >120 min
*
Postop use of epidural
Aberrant retractor placement

Prognosis
50+% improve w/ time

70
Q

What is a contraindication to using a metaphyseal sleeve?

A

large UNCONTAINTED defect in tibial metaphysis***

Use CONES for uncontained defects***

71
Q

What approach for revision TKA with patella Baja?

A

Tibial tubercle osteotomy***

72
Q

TKA in general population vs TKA in patient with previous tibial plateau fx?

A

HIGHER COMPLICATIONS***

SAME outcomes and satisfaction**