ARRT Sonography Test Questions Flashcards
When observing wound-skin precautions with a patient whose dressing DOES need to be removed for the sonographic exam, which of the following is REQUIRED?
- Gown, gloves, and mask.
- Gown and gloves.
- Mask and handwashing.
- Gown, gloves, mask, and handwashing.
Gown, gloves, mask, and handwashing
Wound-skin precautions are designed to protect others from germs which may in the patient’s wound. If the patient’s dressing needs to be removed for the sonographic exam, it is necessary to wear a gown, gloves, and a mask, along with washing the hands.
When a sonographer’s actions deviate so sharply from accepted professional standards so severely that they constitute a willful disregard for professional duty, this is known as which of the following?
- Gross negligence.
- Negligence.
- Complete breach of care.
- Dereliction of care.
Gross negligence
Gross negligence occurs when a sonographer’s behavior deviates so sharply from standards of professional conduct that it represents willful disregard for duty to the patient. Gross negligence often results in severe harm to patients.
Nonverbal behavior that demonstrates consent, such as nodding, is known as which of the following?
- Informed consent.
- Suggested consent.
- Uninformed consent.
- Implied consent.
Implied consent
Implied consent is nonverbal behavior that indicates consent, such as nodding. It may be used in emergency situations in which patients are unable to give verbal or written consent.
A set of precautions which is used to protect patients with compromised immune systems from the germs of others is known as which of the following?
- Strict isolation.
- Enteric precautions.
- Reverse isolation.
- Total isolation.
Reverse isolation
Reverse isolation is designed to protect a patient from the germs of others. It is used with patients with compromised immunity. Gowns, gloves, and masks must be worn. Sterile transducers must also be used, and sonographic equipment must be thoroughly cleansed.
The wrongful intrusion into a person’s private life, including disclosing his or her private information, is known as which of the following?
- Breach of confidentiality.
- Invasion of privacy.
- Defamation.
- Libel.
Invasion of privacy
Invasion of privacy is a tort that results when a person intrudes into another’s private life. This can include disclosing of that person’s private information, including health information.
When a sonographer fails to exercise the appropriate degree of care in a situation, it constitutes which of the following?
- Assault.
- Neglect.
- Dereliction.
- Negligence.
Negligence
Negligence occurs when a sonographer (or other healthcare professional) fails to exercise the appropriate degree of care or take expected actions to prevent harm to the patient. Negligence need not be intentional.
The ARRT’s Code of Ethics has how many sections?
- 20.
- 15.
- 10.
- 5.
10
The Standards of Ethics gives proactive guidance that promotes qualified and ethical behavior in the work environment. It is comprised of three large categories. The first is the Code of Ethics. There are ten sections.
A patient’s identifying information, and any health information about him or her sent in any form, is known as which of the following?
Personal health data.
Protected health information.
Personal health record.
Private health information.
Protected health information
A patient’s identifying information and any health information are considered protected. This is true whether the information is sent in writing, verbally, or electronically. This information must be kept confidential under the provisions of HIPAA.
What occurs when forces apply mechanical work that will displace the electric charge so that a polar charge stores the energy?
- Focusing.
- Dampening.
- Piezoelectric effect.
- Elevation.
Piezoelectric effect
The Piezoelectric effect occurs as transducers convert energy. The forces apply mechanical work that displaces the electrical charge. The energy is stored as a polar charge in the Piezoelectric effect.
What is MI used for?
- To indicate mechanical bio-effects.
- To measure cholesterol.
- To measure a patient’s breathing rate.
- To take blood pressure.
To indicate mechanical bio-effects
MI stands for Mechanical index. It is an estimation of the pressure pulse in tissues maximum amplitude. It is used to indicate mechanical bio-effects.
A mirror image is which of the following?
- A half compete duplication.
- A mutated duplication.
- An actual duplication.
- An electronic duplication.
An electronic duplication
A mirror image can be found in the Doppler system. It is when a vessel image can be duplicated. This duplicated vessel is many times mistaken as an extra vessel instead of an image. It is an electronic duplication.
When using harmonic imaging, what frequency will discriminate between the micro bubbles and the tissue?
- Fundamental frequency.
- Third harmonic frequency.
- Second harmonic frequency.
- All frequencies.
Second harmonic frequency
Micro bubbles resonate at all of the frequencies. The second harmonic frequency will discriminate between the micro bubbles and the tissue in harmonic imaging. This increases the contrast.
What does RI stand for?
Resistance initiation.
Resistance ideals.
Resistance index.
Rested index.
Resistance index
RI stands for Resistance index. It is associated with Doppler. It is calculated by 1 – ( Minimum flow/Maximum flow).
What converts the wave of the ultrasound into thermal energy?
Reflection.
Refraction.
Scattering.
Absorption.
Absorption
Absorption occurs when the wave is converted to thermal energy. The rate of absorption increases with higher frequency, and it causes weaker penetration of the tissue.
Natural focus or N refers to what?
- The distance of the transition between the near and far fields.
- Wave interference.
- The position of the sound field.
- The near field.
The distance of the transition between the near and far fields
The transition between the two fields occurs at a certain distance. This distance is referred to as N but is also known as natural focus of a flat or unfocused transducer.
Low frequency ultrasounds provide:
Less penetration with lower resolution.
Deeper penetration with lower resolution.
Less penetration with higher resolution.
Deeper penetration with higher resolution.
Deeper penetration with lower resolution
Besides the shape of the trans transducer and arrangement of the elements, image quality is determined by frequency. Low frequencies provide deeper penetration with lower resolution.
The minimum separation of two reflectors located perpendicular to the ultrasound beam is known as ___.
Lateral resolution.
Axial resolution.
Spatial resolution.
Beam resolution.
Lateral resolution.
Lateral resolution is referring to how wide or narrow the width of the beam is. This length is measured perpendicular to the beam itself.
What is the length of the ultrasound pulse?
Pulse duration.
Pulse repetition.
Spatial pulse length.
Wavelength.
Spatial pulse length
The spatial pulse length is the length of the ultrasound’s pulse. This includes the space that the pulse occupies during the duration of the pulse, from the beginning to the end.
What occurs when the energy transmitted changes direction at the tissue boundary when the beam is not perpendicular?
Reflection.
Transmission.
Refraction.
Incident.
Refraction.
Refraction occurs when there is a change in direction. It occurs at the tissue boundary when the beam is not perpendicular to the boundary.
The measure of resistance to the propagation of sound is known as which of the following?
Attenuation.
Scattering.
Reflection.
Impedance.
Impedance
Acoustic impedance is the measure of resistance to the propagation of sound waves. It’s the product of the density of a medium and the velocity of sound in the medium.
A transducer is a type of what?
Probe.
Blood test.
High intensity light.
Brace.
Probe
Ultrasounds are considered both painless and safe. They use sound waves to see images of inside of the body, instead of radiation. The procedure uses a probe or transducer. The transducer is moved around on the skin directly. High frequency sound waves are used for the procedure.
What does the acoustic lens do?
Increase the beam’s width.
Shorten the beam.
Reduce the beam’s width.
Lengthen the beam.
Reduce the beam’s width
The acoustic lens is used to improve the resolution of the beam. This occurs because the lens reduces the width of the beam. It specifically affects the lateral resolution of the beam.
RI is associated with which of the following?
Pacemakers.
Stents.
X-rays.
Doppler.
Doppler
RI stands for Resistance index. It is associated with Doppler. It is calculated by 1 – ( Minimum flow/Maximum flow).
What type of ultra sound is primarily used on men?
Transoral ultrasound.
Transrectal ultrasound.
Transvaginal ultrasound.
Transesophageal echocardiogram.
Transrectal ultrasound
There are three types of ultrasounds that include inserting the transducer into a natural opening of the body. They are transesophageal echocardiogram, transrectal ultrasound, and transvaginal ultrasound. The transesophageal echocardiogram, the transducer is placed into the esophagus. It is used to get images of the heart. In the transrectal ultrasounds, the transducer is placed into the rectum of a man to view the prostate. In the transvaginal ultrasound, the transducer is placed into a woman’s vagina. It is used to get images of the uterus and ovaries.
What is the difference between an ultrasound and x-ray?
Sonograms use radiation, x-rays use sound waves.
Sonograms use sound waves, x-rays use radiation.
Sonograms use catheters, x-rays use IV’s.
Sonograms use light, x-rays use radiation.
Sonograms use sound waves, x-rays use radiation
Ultrasounds are considered both painless and safe. They use sound waves to see images of inside of the body, instead of radiation. The procedure uses a probe or transducer. The transducer is moved around on the skin directly. High frequency sound waves are used for the procedure.
How many bytes are there in the DICOM image?
64.
128.
256.
32.
128
DICOM is the digital imaging and communications standard in medicine where images are archived. This is the standard medical imaging format. Each image includes 128 bytes at the very beginning.
What is the setting of the PRF based on?
Aliasing.
Muscle thickness.
The focal zone.
Blood velocity.
Blood velocity.
The pulse repetition frequency is typically set between 1.5 kHz and 18 kHz. The blood velocity will determine how the pulse repetition frequency is set.
What is the Nyquist limit?
Pulse repetition frequency/2.
Pulse repetition frequency/3.
Pulse repetition frequency/4.
Pulse repetition frequency/5.
Pulse repetition frequency/2
Aliasing occurs in pulsed ultrasounds. It frequently occurs in color dopplers, and pulse wave spectral Dopplers. For pulsed ultrasounds, an upper limit is displayed of the Doppler shift. This is referred to as the Nyquist limit. It is considered pulse repetition frequency/2. Aliasing appears as bright and turbulent blood flow in the color Doppler. There are many ways to avoid aliasing. They include: image a more shallow depth, angle of insonification is increased, a low frequency transducer can be used, continuous wave imaging can be used, the scale can be changed, the baseline display is changed.
What type of Doppler uses graph measurements to provide information about blood flow?
Spectral Doppler.
Color Doppler.
Power Doppler.
Challenge Doppler.
Spectral Doppler
A Doppler ultrasound is used to evaluate blood flow that is occurring in a blood vessel. It includes both arteries and veins. There are three types. They are color Doppler, power Doppler, and spectral Doppler. A color Doppler turns measurements into a variety of colors through a computer. It can be used to show both the speed and direction of blood flow. The power Doppler is considered more sensitive than the color Doppler. It is used to get images that are considered hard or impossible to gather. It provides a greater detail of blood flow in blood vessels found in organs. It is not used to provide images about direction of blood flow. The spectral Doppler gives information about blood flow in graph measurements. It will give information about flow velocities that have been taken over a period of time.
What post-processing technique uses contrast to improve acutance?
Edge enhancement.
Smoothing.
Write magnification.
Read magnification.
Edge enhancement.
Edge enhancement increases edge contrasts for a sharper image or video. It will create subtle highlights on either side of edges to make them stand out.
What is relative to the echogenicity?
Artifact.
Hemodynamics.
Flow.
Echotexture.
Echotexture
Echogenicity is the tissue’s ability to bounce the echo. Echogenicity is relative to the Echotexture. The changes in echotexture will be altered with changes in the tissue such as coarseness.
Why are ADCs used?
- To change images from color to black and white.
- To soften images.
- To convert the signal into a format to be used with current computer systems.
- To get an instant diagnosis directly from the machine.
To convert the signal into a format to be used with current computer systems
ADC stands for Analog to digital converter. It takes analog input data and converts it to digital values for output. It converts the signal into a format to be used with current computer systems.
Thinner crystals create ____________.
Higher resonant frequencies.
Lower resonant frequencies.
Piezoelectric effect.
All of the above.
Higher resonant frequencies
The frequency and wavelength are inverse. Thinner crystals create higher resonant frequencies. Thicker crystals create lower resonant frequencies.
A mirror image can be found where?
In the Doppler system.
Inside the heart.
In X-rays.
In light waves.
In the Doppler system
A mirror image can be found in the Doppler system. It is when a vessel image can be duplicated. This duplicated vessel is many times mistaken as an extra vessel instead of an image. It is an electronic duplication.
Which type of Doppler provides greater detail of blood flow in blood vessels found in organs?
Visual Doppler.
Spectral Doppler.
Power Doppler.
Color Doppler.
Power Doppler.
A Doppler ultrasound is used to evaluate blood flow that is occurring in a blood vessel. It includes both arteries and veins. There are three types. They are color Doppler, power Doppler, and spectral Doppler. A color Doppler turns measurements into a variety of colors through a computer. It can be used to show both the speed and direction of blood flow. The power Doppler is considered more sensitive than the color Doppler. It is used to get images that are considered hard or impossible to gather. It provides a greater detail of blood flow in blood vessels found in organs. It is not used to provide images about direction of blood flow. The spectral Doppler gives information about blood flow in graph measurements. It will give information about flow velocities that have been taken over a period of time.
What is TIB?
Thermal index for bone.
Thermal index for body fat.
Thermal index for body.
Thermal index.
Thermal index for bone
TI is the thermal index, which is the ration of acoustical power that will raise tissue a total if 1° C. There are more specific thermal indexes. TIB is thermal index for bone; TIC is thermal index for cranial bone, and TIS is the thermal index for tissue.
How many types of echocardiography are used clinically for sonography?
3.
4.
5.
6.
3
There are three different types of echocardiography. They are M-mode, B-mode, and Doppler echocardiography. Each type offers a different view.
The reaction between the microscopic bubbles and ultrasound waves cause _______.
MI.
TIC.
Thermal effect.
Cavitation.
Cavitation
Cavitation is a mechanical effect. This occurs when there is a reaction between the ultrasound wave and microscopic bubbles. Oscillation will alter the phases of pressure.
High frequency ultrasounds provide:
Less penetration depth with higher resolution.
Deeper penetration with lower resolution.
Deeper penetration with higher resolution.
Less penetration with lower resolution
Less penetration depth with higher resolution
Besides the shape of the trans transducer and arrangement of the elements, image quality is determined by frequency. High frequencies provide less penetration with higher resolution.
Where is a renal transplant typically placed?
- In the retroperitoneal space of the left iliac fossa.
- In the retroperitoneal space of the right iliac fossa.
- In the extraperitoneal space of the left iliac fossa.
- In the extraperitoneal space of the right iliac fossa.
In the retroperitoneal space of the right iliac fossa
This space has no specific delineating anatomical structures. This is an ideal place for a transplanted kidney. It is important for a sonographer to understand the anatomy following a transplant.
Which of the following separates the subphrenic space in the right and left?
Falciform ligament.
Linea alba.
Quadratus lumborum.
Peritoneum.
Falciform ligament
The subphrenic space is the recesses in the peritoneal cavity between the anterior part of the liver and the diaphragm, and it is separated into right and left by the falciform ligament. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism for radiographers.
What is paracentesis?
Drainage of abdominal fluid.
Needle sampling of mucus.
Draining of a fluid filled pancreas.
Pancreas biopsy.
Drainage of abdominal fluid
Free fluid is drained from the abdomen in the procedure. It is often used for a sampling procedure.
What shape is the spleen normally?
Kidney bean.
Inverted comma.
Rounded.
Rectangle.
Inverted comma
The spleen is located behind the left rib. It’s normal shape is larger at the top and smaller at the bottom, much like a comma turned upside down.
How big would abdominal lymph nodes have to be to be considered representative of mesenteric lymphadenitis?
5 mm.
20 mm.
15 mm.
10 mm.
10 mm
Swelling of the lymph nodes can be present for many reasons and may not even be a sign of a problem. Without other telltale symptoms, the lymph nodes would be about 10 mm before causing alarm.
The gallbladder-vena cava line divides which of the following segments of the lower portion of the liver?
Lateral and medial.
Posterior and lateral.
Medial and anterior.
Anterior and posterior.
Medial and anterior.
Additional segmentation landmarks are needed in the lower portion of the liver because the hepatic veins are small and arborized. The gallbladder-vena cava line divides the medial and anterior segments.
Which of the following hepatic lesions may contain calcifications?
Focal nodular hyperplasia and hemangiomas.
Hemangiomas and metastases.
Ligamentum teres and metastases.
Ligamentum teres and hemangiomas.
Hemangiomas and metastases
Hemangiomas and metastases may contain calcifications. Calcifications have a highly echogenic appearance and cast an acoustic shadow.
The transverse width of a normal gallbladder falls into which of the following ranges?
Up to 2 cm.
Up to 11 cm.
Up to 4 cm.
Up to 9 cm.
Up to 4 cm
The transverse width of a normal gallbladder is up to 4 cm and is measured using a upper abdominal transverse scan. Knowledge of anatomy and proper evaluation of sonographic images is vital to correct diagnosis and quality patient care.
All but which of the following are sonographic features of an aortic aneurysm?
Pulsations.
Signs of aortic sclerosis.
Possible partial thrombosis.
Distension of less than 30 mm.
Distention of less than 30 mm
Aortic aneurysms are bulging, weakened areas in the wall of the aorta are are generally easy to detect with sonography. Sonographic features of aortic aneurysms are distension of greater than 30 mm, pulsations, signs of aortic sclerosis, and possible partial thrombosis.
The vein that divides the left lobe of the liver into medial and lateral segments is known as which of the following?
Left portal vein.
Right hepatic vein.
Left hepatic vein.
Middle hepatic vein.
Left hepatic vein
The left hepatic vein divides the left lobe of the liver into lateral and medial segments. When conducting abdominal sonography, the ability to identify key organs and vessels is a vital skill.
All but which of the following are hyperechoic and non-shadowing in the liver?
Calcified abscess.
Hemangioma.
Ligamentum teres.
Focal nodular hyperplasia.
Calcified abscess.
Some hyperechoic lesions cast an acoustic shadow while others do not. Hyperechoic, non-shadowing structures include metastasis, hemangioma, focal nodular hyperplasia, hepatocellular carcinoma, focal sparing from fatty infiltration, and ligamentum teres.
The right hepatic vein divides which of the following segments of the upper liver?
Posterior and lateral.
Lateral and medial.
Medial and anterior.
Anterior and posterior.
Anterior and posterior
The hepatic veins are the structures that mark the segmental boundaries in the upper portion of the liver. The right hepatic vein divides the anterior and posterior segments.
What is the best way to access the gallbladder during an ultrasound?
Through the kidneys.
Through the liver.
From the back.
Through the stomach.
Through the liver
The liver is often known to be a window in ultrasound procedures. This is especially the case with the gallbladder since it is located behind the liver.
All but which of the following are segmentation landmarks in the lower part of the liver?
Hepatic veins.
Ligamentum teres.
Vena cava.
Right portal vein branch.
Hepatic veins
In the lower portion of the liver, additional segmentation landmarks are needed because the hepatic veins run backward and upward from the periphery of the organ. The segmentation landmarks in the lower part of the liver are the ligamentum teres, vena cava, gallbladder, and right portal vein branch.
The bend of the colon which is the juncture between the transverse colon and the descending colon is known as which of the following?
Cecum.
Splenic flexure.
Appendix.
Hepatic flexture.
Splenic flexture
The splenic flexture is the bend of the colon which is the juncture between the transverse and descending colon. It is located near the spleen.
The majority of abdominal aortic aneurysms occur below which of the following?
Renal artery.
Hepatic artery.
Gonadal artery.
IVC.
Renal artery
The majority of abdominal aortic aneurysms occur below the renal artery. An aortic aneurysm occurs when the diameter of the aorta exceeds 3 cm.
The celiac trunk is related superiorly to which of the following?
- Splenic vein, confluence, superior mesenteric artery, and splenic artery.
- Jejunum.
- Body of the pancreas.
- Left lobe of the liver and antrum of the stomach
Body of the pancreas.
The celiac trunk is related superiorly to the body of the pancreas.
Which of the following are the two barriers to scanning the aorta and vena cava?
Ribs and diaphragm.
Gas in the stomach and bowel.
Lung and ribs.
Stomach and transverse colon.
Stomach and transverse colon.
The two main barriers to scanning the aorta and vena cava are the stomach and transverse colon. However, the two vessels usually can be quickly located by sliding the transducer across the upper abdomen. Knowledge of anatomy is key to successful sonography.
Focal nodular hyperplasia is often indistinguishable sonographically from which of the following?
Atypical hemangioma.
Abscess.
Hepatocellular carcinoma.
Focal sparing.
Atypical hemangioma
Focal nodular hyperplasia is a hypoechoic or sometimes isoechoic mass. FNH is often indistinguishable sonographically from an adenoma or atypical hemangioma.
What causes bulging of an organ through the tissue that holds it in?
Distention.
Abscess.
Hernia.
Appendicitis.
Hernia.
Hernias occur when an organ sticks out due to a weakness in the wall that holds it, such as the abdominal wall. It generally causes pain and a visible lump.
When imaging the spleen, which of the following optimizes scanning conditions?
- Have the patient supine with the right arm raised above the head.
- Have the patient fast beforehand, including abstinence from coffee and nicotine.
- Have the patient positioned on the right side with the left arm stretched up over the head.
- Have the patient take antigas medication.
Have the patient positioned on the right side with the left arm stretched up over the head
The spleen is difficult to visualize, so the patient should be positioned on the right side with the left arm stretched up over the head. Proper patient positioning during scans increases the quality of sonographic images produced, which are vital to correct diagnosis and superior patient care.
How do you define embryonic demise?
- Loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks.
- The loss of pregnancy after the fetal structure is detectable by ultrasound.
- Loss of pregnancy before it is detectable by ultrasound.
- Loss of pregnancy due to a chromosomal defect.
The loss of pregnancy after the fetal structure is detectable by ultrasound
The embryonic phase of development is complete at the end of the 10th week. After going through dramatic changes, it is important to use ultrasound to determine the health of the embryo at this point. If there is a nonliving embryo present at this point it is known as embryonic demise.
What does a chorionicity scan check for?
Shared sac.
Shared placenta.
Down syndrome.
Tay-sachs.
Shared placenta
A chorionicity scan occurs at the same time as the dating scan and looks for a shared placenta between twins. This is important to know so complications regarding a shared placenta can be monitored throughout pregnancy.
An echogenic endometrium with posterior acoustic enhancement is present during the
Follicular phase.
Secretory phase.
Ovulatory phase.
Proliferative phase.
Secretory phase
During the secretory phase, the functional layer of the endometrium continues to thicken and may demonstrate posterior acoustic enhancement. The luteal phase of the ovary corresponds with the secretory phase of the endometrium.
Where are fimbriae located?
On the distal end of the vagina.
Inside of the ovum.
Outside of the vagina.
Distal end of each fallopian tube.
Distal end of each fallopian tube
There are two fallopian tubes. Each fallopian tube is approximately 4 inches long. They extend from each ovary. Their job is to move the ovum from the ovaries into the uterus. Fimbriae are the finger like projections on the fallopian tubes. They are found on the distal end of each fallopian tube.
What does hormonal milieu do?
- Helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life.
- Causes birth defects.
- Causes several mood swings.
- Eliminates sperm entering the uterus.
Helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life
The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus includes the following functions: labor, menses, implantation, gestation, and delivery. It responds to hormonal milieu. Hormonal milieu helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life.
Menses occurs how often?
About every 14 days.
About every 22 days.
About every 28 days.
About every 35 days.
About every 28 days
The uterus is made up of 3 tissue layers. They include the endometrium ( inner layer), myometrium (middle layer), and serosa or perimetrium (outer layer). The inner layer is considered the most active layer. This layer reacts to cyclic ovarian hormone changes. This layer is crucial for menstruation and reproduction. In the inner layer, a fertilized egg will implant itself. If a woman is not pregnant this layers lining will slough off around every 28 days.
What is the opening to the womb?
Ovaries.
Cervix.
Uterus.
Vagina.
Cervix
The cervix is in between the vagina and uterus. It is what softens and dilates so that a baby can be born.
The uterus responds to which of the following?
Physical exercise.
Sleep cycles.
Hormonal milieu.
Insulin.
Hormonal milieu
The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus includes the following functions: labor, menses, implantation, gestation, and delivery. It responds to hormonal milieu. Hormonal milieu helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life.
What is the typical cervix length?
2mm.
2cm.
3cm.
3mm.
3cm
The cervix in pregnancies generally 3cm or more. Any shorter and the cervix is considered short and could mean an incompetent cervix.
What is the best frequency of transducer to use when checking the central nervous system for abnormalities during the second trimester?
2-3mHz.
3-5mHz.
7-10mHz.
12-14mHz.
3-5mHz
High frequency transducers decrease the penetration of the sound beam. 3-5mHz allows for the best penetration to get a look at the central nervous system.
What external female reproductive organ has 2 long skin folds which are covered in hair?
Fallopian tube.
Ovary.
Labia majora.
Vestibule.
Labia majora
There are several external organs found in the reproduction system of the female. There are 6 of them. They include: labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, vestibule, perineum, and Bartholin’s glands. Running posteriorly from the mons pubis is the labia majora. The labia majora has 2 long skin folds which are covered in hair. The labia majora is used to protect other external reproductive organs.
The perineum is located where?
At the end of the fallopian tubes.
Between the upper and lower vagina.
Between the anus and vaginal opening.
Inside the uterus.
Between the anus and vaginal opening
There are several external organs found in the reproduction system of the female. There are 6 of them. They include: labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, vestibule, perineum, and Bartholin’s glands. The perineum helps constrict the vaginal opening, urinary opening, and anal opening. It supports pelvic contents. It is located between the anus and vaginal opening.
The ovaries are similar in both size and shape to a ___.
Pea.
Almond.
Apple.
Grape.
Almond
The main function of the ovaries is to produce eggs and for the production of estrogen and progesterone hormones. The ovaries are similar in both size and shape to an almond. The ovaries lay against the pelvis’s lateral walls. Ovaries are kept in place by the broad ligament. Ovarian follicles are compact like tissues that are on the ovaries.
Which of the following might indicate an ectopic pregnancy if it cannot be found within the ultrasound?
- There is little or no fluid inside the abdominal cavity.
- There is an identifiable intrauterine pregnancy and maternal serum HCG levels are less than 1500.
- There is no identifiable intrauterine pregnancy and maternal serum HCG levels are greater than 1500.
- There is no identifiable intrauterine pregnancy and maternal serum HCG levels are less than 1500.
There is no identifiable intrauterine pregnancy and maternal serum HCG levels are greater than 1500.
An ectopic pregnancy will show no signs of there being an embryo present in the uterus. However, HCG levels of over 1500 would indicate a pregnancy.
The first trimester ultrasound uses which of the following?
Sound waves.
Radiation.
Light waves.
Sound waves and radiation.
Sound waves
The first trimester ultrasound occurs during week 5-14 of pregnancy. During a first trimester ultrasound, images are taken of the uterus using sound waves. Radiation is not used. This test is usually done to determine the date of a patient’s last period. It also can make sure any bleeding is not dangerous to the pregnancy.
What layer of uterine tissue is considered the muscular layer?
Endometrium.
Myometrium.
Perimetrium.
Trenometrium.
Myometrium
The uterus is made up of 3 tissue layers. They include the endometrium ( inner layer), myometrium (middle layer), and serosa or perimetrium (outer layer). The myometrium layer of tissue creates most of uterine volume. It is considered a muscular layer. It is made of mostly smooth muscle cells.
What is the typical treatment for PKU?
PHE-restricted diet.
High iron diet.
Blood transfusion.
Medication.
PHE-restricted diet.
PKU treatment involves a diet for life. Supplements are also necessary.
A fetus estimated to be 7-8 weeks old should have a CRL of which of the following?
1-4 mm.
4-10 mm.
11-16 mm.
17-23 mm.
11-16 mm
A fetus estimated to be 7-8 weeks-old should have a CRL of 11-16 mm. The CRL or crown rump length is measured from the top of the head to the area above where the legs begin.
What procedure is used to fill the uterus with fluid for better imaging?
Colonoscopy.
Uterosectomy.
Sonohysterography.
Catheterography.
Sonohysterography
This procedure is used to put fluid into the uterus for better ultrasound imaging. This may be needed when an ultrasound needs to be done immediately and the bladder is not full.
The inner layer of uterus tissue is crucial for what?
Hormone production.
Mental thoughts.
Physical body growth.
Menstruation and reproduction.
Menstruation and reproduction
The uterus is made up of 3 tissue layers. They include the endometrium ( inner layer), myometrium (middle layer), and serosa or perimetrium (outer layer). The inner layer is considered the most active layer. This layer reacts to cyclic ovarian hormone changes. This layer is crucial for menstruation and reproduction.
No fetal pole identified on a transvaginal scan when the size of the gestational sac is such that a fetal pole should be seen may indicate which of the following?
Anembryonic pregnancy.
Ectopic pregnancy.
Spontaneous abortion.
Endometriosis.
Anembryonic pregnancy.
When no fetal pole is identified on a transvaginal scan when the size of the gestational sac is such that a fetal pole should be seen, an anembryonic pregnancy may be diagnosed. It may also be diagnosed if no fetal pole is identified on a transabdominal scan, and there is little to no growth of the gestational sac between interval scans.
The uterus is responsible for which of the following functions?
Menses.
Gestation.
Implantation.
All of the above.
All of the above
The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus includes the following functions: labor, menses, implantation, gestation, and delivery. It responds to hormonal milieu. Hormonal milieu helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life.
During the proliferative phase, what is released?
Cilia.
Sperm.
Follicle stimulating hormone.
Testosterone.
Follicle stimulating hormone
During a women’s menstruation, mucus, blood, and epithelial cells are all expelled from the uterus. It occurs on a monthly basis. Menstruation does not occur in women that are pregnant and lactation. There are three distinct hormonal interactions in a women’s cycle. In days 1-5 of a menstrual cycle there is a decrease in both estrogen and progesterone production. This phase is known as the menses phase. When progesterone drops, endometrial lining begins to slough off. The proliferative phase occurs in days 6-14. During this time, FSH s released. FSH is used to stimulate an ovum maturing. At the close of this phase, an increase of LH causes the ovum to be released or the body to ovulate. The final phase is the secretory phase which is days 15-28 of a women’s cycle. There are high levels of LH and that causes graafian follicles to turn into corpus luteum.
How much does the CRL increase each day between the 6th and 9th week?
1mm.
2mm.
3mm.
5mm.
1mm
At this point in pregnancy it is mostly a fetal cell mass not quite resembling a baby yet. The growth rate of 1mm per day leads to proper development and structure by the ninth week, allowing for a different type of fetal measurment by 12 weeks.
In regards to gynecology, what does PROM stand for?
Premature Rupture of Membranes.
Practical Rupture of Membranes.
Pregnancy Rules of Membranes.
Pregnancy Range of Membranes.
Premature Rupture of Membranes
PROM stands for Premature Rupture of Membranes. This is associated with patients who are past 37 weeks of pregnancy and has a rupture of the membranes. This will occur before labor.
Of the following, which is not evaluated during a fetal biophysical profile?
Fetal tone.
Non-stress test.
Fetal swallowing.
Amniotic fluid volume.
Fetal swallowing
The biophysical profile is a sonographic evaluation of fetal well-building. It includes a specific time or number of fetal movements, breathing movements,fetal tone,amniotic fluid volume, and a non-stress test.
What is the main component of the cervix?
Blood.
Fluid.
Collagen.
Muscle.
Collagen
The cervix is mostly made up of collagen. The collagen is what keeps the cervix firm during gestation.
How might a doctor manage placental insufficiency?
Establishing a nutritional guideline.
Establish a pattern of fetal monitoring and check for preeclampsia.
Blood transfusion.
It is not manageable.
Establish a pattern of fetal monitoring and check for preeclampsia
The baby’s growth will need to be monitored closely if placenta is insufficient. The mother may also be at high risk for preeclampsia, so regular checks are crucial.
How long is the average vagina on the posterior wall?
7.5 cm.
9 in.
9 cm.
12 cm.
9 cm
The average vagina is 9 cm long on the posterior wall. On the anterior wall, it is 7.5 cm.
Which is true of the uterus?
Found only in males.
Found only in females.
Found in both females and males.
Found in menopausal women only.
Found only in females
The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus includes the following functions: labor, menses, implantation, gestation, and delivery. It responds to hormonal milieu. Hormonal milieu helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life.
What does the thyroid do?
Produces blood.
Regulates a person’s metabolism.
Produces insulin.
Helps the body breathe.
Regulates a person’s metabolism
The thyroid is a glad found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid.
All but which of the following are differential considerations for sonographic findings indicative of a benign cyst in the breast?
Lactiferous duct.
Glandular breast tissue.
Fibroadenoma.
Carcinoma.
Glandular breast tissue.
When evaluating sonographic findings, it’s important to take into account differential considerations. Differential considerations for the sonographic findings characteristic of a benign cyst in the breast include lactiferous duct, fibroadenoma, and carcinoma.
Which of the following statements is true?
- Thyroid sonograms use low doses of radiation.
- Thyroid sonograms use moderate doses of radiation.
- Thyroid sonograms use high doses of radiation.
- Thyroid sonograms do not use radiation.
Thyroid sonograms do not use radiation.
The thyroid is a gland found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It does not use radiation. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid.
Which of the following is a differential consideration for sonographic findings indicative of fibrocystic disease?
Fibroadenoma.
Carcinoma.
Mastitis.
Normal breast fat.
Mastitis
When evaluating sonographic findings, it’s important to take into account differential considerations. Differential considerations for the sonographic findings characteristic of fibrocystic disease include multiple breast cysts and mastitis.
The sonographic appearance of the skin line of the breast is:
Hyperechoic.
Hypoechoic.
Echo-free.
Isoechoic.
Hyperechoic
When scanning the breast it is important to know how a healthy breast should appear sonographically. The skin line of the breast appears hyperechoic.
Which of the following is not a benefit of breast sonography?
- Can characterize masses.
- Can getter a better view of dense breasts.
- Uses only a small amount of radiation.
- Can provide new clinical information after a mammogram.
Uses only a small amount of radiation.
Breast sonography is used to acquire images of one or both of the breasts. Sound waves are used in breast sonography. There are many advantages , some include: can provide new clinical information after a mammogram, can getter a better view of dense breasts, does not use radiation, it can characterize masses, has the potential to eliminate the need for a biopsy, and has excellent contrast resolution.
How many parathyroid glands are there?
4.
5.
6.
7.
4
There are four parathyroid glands. They can be found behind and next to the thyroid. They produce the parathyroid hormone. A parathyroid sonogram checks the parathyroid’s health.
A thyroid sonogram can do which of the following?
Inject radiation into the thyroid.
Help with guiding a needle during a biopsy.
Reduce lump sizes.
Treat cancer.
Help with guiding a needle during a biopsy
The thyroid is a gland found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid glands produce the hormone thyroxine. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid. It can be used to help with biopsies, by guiding the needle.
A testicular sonogram is performed for all of the following reasons, except:
Identify an infection of the testicles.
Shrink cancer in the testicles.
Monitor testicle inflammation.
Locate undescended testicles.
Shrink cancer in the testicles
A testicular sonography is used to acquire images of the testicles and scrotum. Sound waves are used in testicular sonography. It can show pictures of the epididymis, vas deferens, and prostate gland. It is used to evaluate a mass in the testicles, to evaluate pain in the testicles, to monitor for any recurrence of testicular cancer, identify infection, monitor inflammation, and locate undescended testicles.
How is a breast sonogram performed?
- A tool is moved back and forth over the breast.
- A tool is inserted into the breast.
- A camera is used to take a picture of the superficial layer of the breast.
- The patient places her breast against a metal plate.
A tool is moved back and forth over the breast.
Breast sonography is used to acquire images of one or both of the breasts. Sound waves are used in breast sonography. To perform the procedure a tool is moved back and forth over the patient’s breast. The tool used is called a transducer.
The Patient’s Bill of Rights is part of which of the following?
HIPAA.
Affordable Care Act.
Bill of Rights.
Public Health Law.
Affordable Care Act
The new Patient’s Bill of Rights was created in 2010. It is part of the Affordable Care Act. Some of the rights given under this are: patient’s are entitle to particular preventive screenings free of charge, patient’s have the right to have an easy to understand list of their health plan benefits, and all people are entitled to coverage regardless of pre-existing conditions.
What does HIPAA stand for?
- Health Insurance Policy and Accountability Act.
- Health Insurance Portability and Action Act.
- Health Ideals Pursued and Accountability Act.
- Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
HIPAA stands for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. Health plans must be in compliance with the rules set by the act. The adoption of the standards has increased the use of electronic data.
The section hearings can be found in what main category of the ARRT’s Standards of Ethics?
Risks of work.
Code of Ethics.
Administrative procedures.
Rules of Ethics.
Administrative procedures
The Standards of Ethics gives proactive guidance that promotes qualified and ethical behavior in the work environment. It is comprised of three large categories. The first is the Code of Ethics. There are ten sections. The Rules of Ethics is comprised of 22 sections. The final section, administrative procedures has 6 sections. Hearings can be found in the administrative procedures category.
Making false, injurious statements about another person in writing is known as which of the following?
Slander.
Deriliction.
Libel.
Advocacy.
Libel
Libel occurs when a person makes false or injurious statements about another in writing. This is a form of character defamation. Sonographers and other healthcare providers have a duty to avoid libel and other forms of defamation.
Nonverbal behavior that indicates consent, such as nodding, is known as which of the following?
Informed consent.
Uninformed consent.
Express consent.
Implied consent.
Implied consent
Implied consent is nonverbal behavior that indicates consent. It is most likely to be used in emergency situations where a patient is unable to give verbal or written consent.
What is the main goal of the ARRT’s Standards of Ethics?
- To act in the best interest of the patient.
- To act in the best interest of sonographers.
- To employ as many sonographers as possible.
- To have sonographers achieve the highest pay possible.
To act in the best interest of the patient.
The ARRT’s Standards of Ethics apply solely to individuals that have a certification from ARRT. The goal of the standards is to act in the patient’s best interest. The Standards of Ethics gives proactive guidance that promotes qualified and ethical behavior in the work environment. It is comprised of three large categories. The first is the Code of Ethics. The second is the Rules of Ethics. The final category is Administrative Procedures.
When used as a contrast medium, CO2 appears as which of the following on x-ray?
Radiolucent.
Radiopaque.
Radiotransparent.
Radiography.
Radiolucent.
Contrast media is used to opacify or make visible soft tissue pockets that cannot ordinarily be seen. When used as a contrast medium, CO2 appears radiolucent on x-ray.
Which of the following forms the first part of the ARRT’s Standards of Ethics?
Administrative procedures.
Risks of work.
Code of Ethics.
Rules of Ethics.
Code of Ethics.
The ARRT’s Standards of Ethics is for the use of only people that have a certification from ARRT. The goal of the standards is to act in the patients best interest. The Standards of Ethics gives proactive guidance that promotes qualified and ethical behavior in the work environment. It is comprised of three large categories. The first is the Code of Ethics. The second is the Rule of Ethics. The final category is the Administrative Procedures.
Which of the following types of Doppler can show both the speed and direction of blood flow?
Color Doppler.
Power Doppler.
Challenge Doppler.
Visual Doppler.
Color Doppler
A Doppler ultrasound is used to evaluate blood flow that is occurring in a blood vessel. It includes both arteries and veins. There are three types. They are color Doppler, power Doppler, and spectral Doppler. A color Doppler turns measurements into a variety of colors through a computer. It can be used to show both the speed and direction of blood flow. The power Doppler is considered more sensitive than the color Doppler. It is used to get images that are considered hard or impossible to gather. It provides a greater detail of blood flow in blood vessels found in organs. It is not used to provide images about direction of blood flow. The spectral Doppler gives information about blood flow in graph measurements. It will give information about flow velocities that have been taken over a period of time.
Which thermal output measure expresses bone?
TTI.
TIB.
TIS.
TIC.
TIB.
TIB is the abbreviation or symbol that represents bone in the tissue thermal index. The index also has labels for blood and tissue.
The piezoelectric crystal that produces ultrasound waves vibrates at what kind of frequency compared to the imposed alternating current?
Higher frequency.
Lower frequency.
Alternating frequency.
Same frequency.
Same frequency
The piezoelectric crystal is exposed to an alternating electric current, which causes it to emit a pulse of sound. The piezoelectric crystal that produces ultrasound waves vibrates at the same frequency as the imposed alternating current.
Of the following, which is true about ultrasounds?
High doses of radiation are used.
Low doses of radiation are used.
High frequency sound waves are used.
Low frequency sound waves are used.
High frequency sound waves are used.
Ultrasounds are considered both painless and safe. They use sound waves to see images of inside of the body, instead of radiation. The procedure uses a probe or transducer. The transducer is moved around on the skin directly. High frequency sound waves are used for the procedure.
How does focusing the beam affect the length of the near field?
It shortens it.
It lengthens it.
It widens it.
It does not.
It does not.
The length of the near field is not affected by focusing the beam. It makes the beam narrower in the near field and the wider in the far field. This increases the resolution in the near field.
Hemodynamics are based on which of the following?
Hopkinson’s law.
Umov effect.
Carnot’s theorem.
Ohm’s law.
Ohm’s law
Hemodynamics are considered physical actors that are used to govern blood flow. It s based on Ohm’s Law, which s the fundamental law of physics. Hemodynamic monitoring will be done if the patient has cardiac tamponade, acute respiratory failure, postcardiac surgery, pulmonary edema, shock, and need for fluid evaluation. It is associated with Doppler.
All but which of the following are disadvantages of using a linear transducer?
- Large footprint.
- Poor resolution of structures near the transducer.
- Cannot scan through a narrow acoustic window close to the transducer.
- Poorer resolution of structures at greater depths.
Poor resolution of structures near the transducer.
With a linear transducer, multiple parallel elements are arranged in a straight line, producing a rectangular image field. The main disadvantages of a linear transducer are that it has a large footprint and it cannot scan through a narrow acoustic window close to the transducer. It also does not have the best resolution of structures at greater depths.
Which of the following is a strong natural reflector?
Bone.
Gallbladder.
Heart.
Diaphragm.
Diaphragm.
Natural reflectors that are strong include diaphragm, bowel, and pleura. Objects that are offset or angled to strong reflectors can result in a mirror image artifact. Metallic objects are also strong reflectors.
The beam will be cylindrical in the ______.
Far field.
Near field.
Near and far field.
Entire field.
Near field
The beam is cylindrical in the near field. The beam will diverge in the far field. The near field has a larger length than the far field.
How many doppler shifts occur during an exam?
3.
4.
2.
1.
2
One Doppler shift occurs when sound strikes red blood cells. The other happens when the transducer receives the reflected sound wave.
How are the gaps filled between the scan lines in the scan converter?
They are not.
Greyscale.
Intrapolation.
Interpolation.
Interpolation
The scan converter is used to store the echoes in the correct location. Gaps between the scan lines are filled using a mathematical sequence called interpolation. This improves the image.
What type of resolution can be enhanced by adding color?
Elevational resolution.
Temporal resolution.
Contrast resolution.
Axial resolution.
Contrast resolution
The eye is more likely to be able to distinguish different colors as opposed to varying shades of grey. This increases the contrast between different parts of an image.
What is temporal resolution?
- The time from the end of a frame to the beginning of the next frame.
- The time from the beginning of a frame to the next.
- The time from the beginning of a frame to the end of that frame.
- The number of focal points.
The time from the beginning of a frame to the next
Temporal resolution is used to determine the capability the ultrasound machine has to distinguish between instantaneous events of rapidly moving subjects. The less time it takes, the more accurate results you can get.
What is placed on the skin directly during an ultrasound?
X-ray machine.
Transducer.
Catheter.
Lamp.
Transducer
Ultrasounds are considered both painless and safe. They use sound waves to see images of inside of the body, instead of radiation. The procedure uses a probe or transducer. The transducer is moved around on the skin directly. High frequency sound waves are used for the procedure.
Which of the following is not a type of echocardiography?
Doppler.
Z-mode.
M-mode.
B-mode.
Z-mode
There are three different types of echocardiography. They are M-mode, B-mode, and Doppler echocardiography. Each type offers a different view.
The piezoelectric effect is:
- When ultrasounds do not create images.
- Voltage created between a non-conducting substance as a mechanical stress is put on it.
- Lack of voltage created between a non-conducting substance as a mechanical stress is put on it.
- The creation of ultrasound images.
Voltage created between a non-conducting substance as a mechanical stress is put on it
The voltage created between a non-conducting substance as a mechanical stress is put on it is known as the piezoelectric effect. Piezoelectric materials can be found in transducers. It is considered a reversible process.
The rate that sound travels through a medium is known as which of the following?
Attenuation speed.
Propagation speed.
Sonic speed.
Echogenicity.
Propagation speed
Propagation speed is the speed at which sound travels through a medium. It is determined solely by the medium and is measured in mm/s.
How is duty factor calculated?
(PRP/pulse duration) x 100.
Pulse duration/100.
Pulse duration x 100.
(Pulse duration/PRP) x 100.
(Pulse duration/PRP) x 100
The duty factor is a fraction of transmission time, therefore, pulse duration must be divided by the pulse repetition period. The number is then multiplied by 100 to get the duty factor percentage.
Which type of artifact appears as bright, curved lines that usually seen in hypoechoic or echo-free structures?
Beam-width artifact.
Mirror-image artifact.
Lateral edge shadow.
Side-lobe artifact.
Side-lobe artifact
Side-lobe artifacts are bright, curved lines that are usually seen in hypoechoic or echo-free structures. They are caused by side-lobes, which are secondary oblique concentrations of energy located off the main beam access.
Tissues that produce echoes which are brighter than the surrounding tissues are known as which of the following?
Hyperechoic.
Isoechoic.
Anechoic.
Hypoechoic.
Hyperechoic
Hyperechoic tissue produce very strong echoes. They will appear brighter than the surrounding tissue.
The phased array fires the beam from ________.
All elements.
Subset of elements.
Center elements.
Outer elements.
All elements.
The phased array fires the beam from all elements in the transducer, and the linear from a subset of elements. The phased array manages to focus the beam by using fractional time delay.
The amount of matter in a given space is known as which of the following?
Volume.
Density.
Refraction.
Compression.
Density
Density is the volume of material in a given space. The denser a medium, the slower sound moves through it.
What is the definition of bandwidth?
The range of frequencies.
The type of transducer.
The range of wavelengths.
The number of sound waves produced.
The range of frequencies
Bandwidth refers to a specified frequency range. For instance, there are transducers that can produce frequencies from 5-7.5MHz in order to perform superficial imaging.
What converts to analog?
DAC.
RI.
PI.
ADC.
Correct Answer:
DAC
Digital analog converter converts the image from digital back to analog. This is necessary for the echoes to be shown with the appropriate brightness of the CRT or the cathode ray tube.
PI is associated with which of the following?
Pacemakers.
Stents.
Doppler.
X-rays.
Doppler
PI stands for pulsatility index. It is associated with Doppler. It is calculated by (Maximum flow – Minimum flow) divided by the Mean Flow. The PI should be between 1 and 5. The higher the PI, the more likely the probability of technical errors is.
What is the typical range of the duty factor?
1% to 2%.
- 2% to 1%.
- 1% to 1%.
- 2% to 2%.
0.1% to 1%.
The duty factor typically has a range from 0.1% to 1%. It is higher in Doppler pulse because the scan time is longer.
Tissue that produces no echoes is known as which of the following?
Anechoic.
Hyperechoic.
Hypoechoic.
Isoechoic.
Anechoic
Some tissue produces no echo. This is known as anechoic tissue. It may also be referred to as sonolucent tissue.
What is true of scattering?
It goes in a single direction.
It goes in all directions.
It goes in two directions.
It goes in three directions.
It goes in all directions
Scattering differs from reflection. The energy from reflection is distributed in one direction. In scattering, the energy is distributed in all directions, and it is weaker than reflected energy.
The spectral Doppler waveform is used to calculate ______.
CA and RI.
RI.
PI.
RI and PI.
RI and PI
The spectral Doppler waveform calculates both the resistive index (RI) and the pulsatility index (PI). Low RI or PI are indications that there is a malignancy in the tissue.
Which of the following is an advantage of using a linear transducer?
Good resolution of structures at greater depths.
Small footprint.
Ability to scan through a small acoustic window.
Good resolution of structures near the transducer.
Good resolution of structures near the transducer
In a linear transducer, multiple parallel elements are arranged in a straight line, producing a rectangular image field. The main advantage to using a linear transducer is that it has good resolution of structures near the transducer.
The focal zone is where ___.
- The object being examined is located.
- The best resolution is achieved with a particular transducer.
- The closest focus of an object occurs.
- The portion ultrasound beam is indicated to the left of the image.
The best resolution is achieved with a particular transducer
The focal zone is the area that an object should be placed in for the best results because the better resolution affords for great detail in the examination. Therefore, the focal zone is where the best resolution is achieved.
The head of the pancreas is related anteriorly to which of the following?
Pyloric region, duodenal bulb, and liver.
Vena cava and right renal vein.
Portal vein and hepatic artery.
Third part of the duodenum.
Pyloric region, duodenal bulb, and liver
With a length of approximately 15 cm and a diameter of 2-3 cm, the pancreas has a spatial relationship with many organs. The head of the pancreas is related anteriorly to the pyloric region, duodenal bulb, and liver.
While a gallbladder ultrasound can be performed with the patient in a supine position, what position is ideal?
Prone.
Sims’.
Left lateral decubitus position.
Right lateral decubitus position.
Left lateral decubitus position
The left lateral decubitus position is facing towards the left. This would be an ideal position to get images of the gallbladder since it is on the right side.
What is a risk factor of cholelithiasis?
Being female.
Being male.
Being underweight.
Family history of gallbladder disease.
Being female
Females have a much higher chance of getting the condition. This is increased even more in pregnant women.
You should use which of the following as a reference when evaluating the parenchyma of the liver?
Parenchyma of the gallbladder.
Pancreatic parenchyma.
Parenchyma of the bladder.
Renal parenchyma.
Renal parenchyma
The parenchyma of the liver shows a moderately dense, homogeneous echo pattern. Though it is slightly hypoechoic to the liver, the renal parenchyma is used as a reference for evaluating hepatic echogenicity.
The right portal vein branch divides which of the following segments of the lower portion of the liver?
Posterior and lateral.
Lateral and medial.
Medial and anterior.
Anterior and posterior.
Anterior and posterior
Additional segmentation landmarks are needed in the lower portion of the liver because the hepatic veins are small and arborized. The right portal vein branch divides the anterior and posterior segments.
The noncontracted gallbladder walls may be up to how thick?
2 mm.
3 mm.
4 mm.
5 mm.
3 mm.
The gallbladder wall consists of three layers and may be up to 3 mm thick. Thickness of the gallbladder wall may be measured to diagnosis of both chronic and acute cholecystitis. Knowledge of anatomy is key to successful sonography.
The average diameter of the aorta is which of the following?
3 to 3.5 cm.
5 to 5.5 cm.
1 to 1.5 cm.
2 to 3 cm.
2 to 3 cm.
The average diameter of the aorta is 2 to 3 cm. Diameters which are less than or greater than this may indicate stenosis, aneurysm, or other pathology.
What medical history may be important to know about someone before performing a liver ultrasound?
Diabetes.
Alcohol consumption.
Diabetes and alcohol consumption.
Eating disorders.
Diabetes and alcohol consumption
Fat as well as toxins can greatly affect the liver. Both of these could make the liver larger and inflamed.
Which of the following might show up in a kidney ultrasound?
Kidney stones.
Cysts or tumors.
Kidney stones / cysts or tumors.
None of the above.
Kidney stones/cysts or tumors
An ultrasound of the kidney is done to show the size and any abnormalities of the kidneys. It is often a great noninvasive way to find kidney stones, cysts, and tumors.
The body of the pancreas is related superiorly to which of the following?
- Celiac trunk.
- Left lobe of the liver and antrum of the stomach.
- Splenic vein, confluence, superior mesenteric artery, and splenic artery.
- Jejunum.
Jejunum.
With a length of approximately 15 cm and a diameter of 2-3 cm, the pancreas has a spatial relationship with many organs. The body of the pancreas is related superiorly to the jejunum.
Which of the following arteries supplies the gallbladder?
Hepatic artery.
Colic artery.
Gonadal artery.
Cystic artery.
Cystic artery
The cystic artery supplies blood to the gallbladder. The ability to locate and identify the vessels and organs of the abdomen is a key skill in abdominal sonography.
Decidua basalis can be defined as __.
Where implantation takes place.
The opposite uterus wall.
The capsule around the chorion.
The after birth.
Where implantation takes place
Decidua basalis is the piece of the decidua where the basal plate is formed and implantation takes place. It is also where the detachment of placenta takes place after birth.
Which of the following may be a sign that a patient has an abdominal abscess?
Low body temperature.
Appendix pain.
Huge appetite.
Abdominal distention.
Abdominal distention.
An abdominal abscess can be caused by an infection or ulcer. If it is large it can distend the stomach.
Fibrolipomatosis requires differentiation from which of the following?
Chronic pancreatitis.
Acute pancreatitis.
Salt-and-pepper pattern in pancreatic parenchyma.
Pseudocysts.
Salt-and-pepper pattern in pancreatic parenchyma
Fibrolipomatosis is a homogeneous increase in parenchymal echogenicity due to fatty infiltration. The condition requires differentiation from a coarse “salt-and-pepper” pattern, which is a normal variant.
Which of the following arteries supplies the testes?
Cystic arteries.
Gonadal arteries.
Sigmoid branches.
Renal arteries.
Gonadal artery
The gonadal arteries supply the gonads – the testes in men and the ovaries in women. The ability to locate and identify the key vessels and organs is an important skill for sonographers.
Which of the following typically produces a comet-tail artifact due to high impedance mismatch?
Ligamentum teres.
Simple calcifications.
Hemangiomas.
Air in the bile ducts.
Air in the bile ducts
Air in the bile ducts typically produces a comet-tail artifact due to the high impedance mismatch. This condition can have numerous causes including a previous papillotomy, a stent in the bile duct, a biliary-enteric anastomosis, and cholangitis.
What is the organization that develops guidelines for ultrasound procedures?
AIIM.
AIUM.
AUMI.
AAUM.
AIUM
AIUM stands for American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine. This association was made to govern the advancement and practice of ultrasound.
All but which of the following are sonographic signs of chronic hepatitis?
Hyperechoic liver parenchyma.
Decreased echogenicity of portal vein walls.
Hyperechoic portal vein walls.
Enlarged liver.
Hyperechoic portal vein walls.
In chronic hepatitis, as opposed to acute hepatitis, there is decreased echogenicity of the portal vein walls. Other signs include enlarged liver and hyperechoic liver parenchyma.
The tail of the pancreas is related superiorly to which of the following?
Body of the stomach and left lobe of the liver.
Colon and splenic hilum.
Left kidney and splenic vein.
Body and cardia of the stomach.
Body and cardia of the stomach.
With a length of approximately 15 cm and a diameter of 2-3 cm, the pancreas is related to numerous organs. The tail of the pancreas is superiorly related to the body and cardia of the stomach.
Sonographic features of vena cava thrombosis include all but which of the following?
Distension.
Lack of compressibility.
Intraluminal echogenicity.
Compressibility.
Compressibility
Thrombosis of the vena cava can be identified by the following sonographic features: distension, lack of compressibility, and intraluminal echogenicity. Proper evaluation of sonographic images is vital to correct diagnosis and quality patient care.
An upper abdominal longitudinal scan is used to measure which dimension(s) of the gallbladder?
Length.
Depth.
Width.
Both length and depth.
Both length and depth
Both the length of depth of the gallbladder are measured using an upper abdominal longitudinal scan. Proper evaluation of sonographic images is vital to correct diagnosis and quality patient care.
