arrt Flashcards
List the order of meningeal layers surrounding spinal cord from most superficial
Dura mater
Arachnoid
Subarachnoid
Pia mater
How much Barium is used to fill the large intestine
1000-2000 mL
Effective dose is used to calculate ____
Risk of cancer
what is the equation for EfD
EfD = D x Wr x Wt
Comparing biological damage is calculated by ___
a. effective dose
b. equivalent dose
B
Which method of radiation measurement consider radiation and tissue types
a. effective dose
b. equivalent dose
A
MCP & MTP joints are what type of articulation?
a. synovial, ellipsoidal
b. synovial, gliding
A
Intervertebral articulations and pubic symphysis are considered what type of joint?
a. diarthoidial
b. symphysis
c. synovial
B
___ projection is used to rule out transverse fx
lateral
3 types of movements for ellipsoidal joint
flex/extend
abduct/adduct
circumduct
decrease in beam intensity
1 HVL = ___
2 HVL = ____
50%
75%
Pain relief =
analgesics
Constipation =
cathartic/laxative
nausea/vomitting =
antiemetics
what 3 bones articulate with temporal bone
- parietal
- occipital
- sphenoid
dorsum sellae is seen in which projection ?
AP Axial Skull (Town method)
what happens to IR exposure when a grid is use
decreased IR exposure bc of a decrease in # photons striking the IR
what is the most superior part of the uterus?
fundus
which position will show pisiform free of superimposition
AP oblique wrist ( not on arrt
(UGI) LPO position will demonstrate which structures
duodenal bulb & C-loop
(UGI) RAO position will demonstrate which structure
duodenum
duodenum is best seen on which position
RAO/LPO
Fold of peritoneum surround the loops of small intestine is called __
mesentery
What 3 structures should be visible on AP humerus
greater tubercle in profile
parallel humeral epicondyle
olecranon process superimpose trochlea
X-axis on histrogram represents
specific exposure values captured by IR
Y-axis on histogram represents
frequency of specific exposure values
Histogram quantization is
measuring signal intensities and convert the to digital values
ROI or VOI represent patient anatomy on a histogram
VOI
Rescaling compensate for ___
underexposure & overexposure
if mAs is lower than expected, which digital process will fix display proper exposure
rescaling
LUT ensure___
ideal brightness and contrast
mucosal lining of stomach is __-
rugae
mucosal lining of large intestine is __
haustrae
Primary barrier is ___
wall behind upright bucky (7Ft)
secondary protective barrier extend to the ceiling with ____ overlap
1/2”
secondary protective barrier are__
lead apron
control booth
____ mm lead eq for lead window by control booth
1.5
Beclere and Holmblad method visualize ___
intercondylar fossa
Settegast & Merchant method visualize ___
patellofemoral joint
increased diagnostic filtration results in (3)
decrease patient dose, contrast, IR exposure.
Atelectasis is ___
total or partial collapse of lung
Empyema is ____
pus in body cavity
what are the side effects of iodine contrast media
flushing
warm feeling
metallic taste
Anaphylactic reactions are ___ (3)
flusing
hives
nausea
Cardiovascular reactions are ___
hypotension
tachycardia
cardiac arrest
Early indicators anaphylaxis shock ___ (3)
bronchospasm
chest tightness
itching (palms/soles)
what is the angle used for axiolateral projection of TMJ
25-30 caudad
Hypovolemic shock caused by ___
caused by large amount of blood loss
Septic shock caused by ___
caused by toxins produced during infection
which 2 bones form the flat bony partition between sides of nasal cavity
ethmoid & vomer
for BE, RAO will show ___
hepatic flexure, ascending colon, sigmoid colon
relationship between beam quality and attenuation
inverse - if quality of beam increase, then attenuation decrease bc beam can penetrate matter without being absorbed
which structure is just distal to tubercles of humerus
surgical neck
PA skull will show petrous ridge
filling orbits
PA caldwell will show petrous ridge
lying in lower 1/3 of orbit
Water will show petrous ridge _____
inferior to maxillary sinus
Early somatic effect of radiation (3)
ARS (acute radiation syndrome)
1. hematopoietic
2. GI
3. CNS
ARS is considered
a. threshold, stochastic
b. threshold, deterministic
c. nonthreshold, stochastic
d. nonthreshold, deterministic
B
threshold dose for 3 organs system response under ARS
1
10
50Gy
Besides ARS, other early somatic effects are __ (3)
cataract
erythema
epilation
double-walled membrane that lined the abdominal cavity is ___
peritoneum
which condition cause pulmonary alveoli to lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated
Emphysema
Thick Barium ____ internal organs
Thin Barium ____ internal organs
coats
fills
Chole-
bile
Cysto-
sac/bladder
-lith
stone
Function of
1.Liver
2. Gallbladder
- produce bile
- store bile
L & R hepatic duct joined to form ___
Common hepatic duct
what duct connected to the gallbladder
cystic duct
Cystic duct and common hepatic duct formed __
common bile duct
___ is a double-folded of peritoneum that connects small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall
mesentery
____ is a double-folded of peritoneum that extends from lesser curvature of stomach to portions of liver
lesser omentum
____ is a double-folded of peritoneum that connects transverse colon to greater curvature of stomach
greater omentum
[UGI] AP scout - CR?
sthenic: ___
hypersthenic: _____
asthenic: ____
- L1
- 2” above L1
- 2” below L1
L or R kidney is lower
R
This reaction is a nonallergic reaction
Mild
Which reaction does not require drug intervention
MILD
what are the 2 most common mild reaction
metallic taste and flushed sensation
An anaphylactic reaction is considered ___
a. moderate
b. severe
Moderate reaction
Vasovagal reaction is considered ___
a. moderate
b. severe
B
Severe reaction results when contrast iodine causes ___
the blood pressure and heart rate to drop.
Extravasation is caused by ___ (2)
- loss of vein access
- needle is improperly placed
Following extravasation, inflammatory response peaks ___ hours
24-48
WIthin 6hrs following extravasation, ___ & ___ occur
ulceration & tissue necrosis
What to do if extravasation is observed? (4 steps)
- notify department
- elevate affected extremity above heart
- use cold compress followed by warm
- document
What is Phlebitis
vein inflammation
Phlebitis happens because ___
administration of IV contrast or vein access
What to do if Phlebitis is observed?
- discontinue
- locate an alternative site above the affected area or opposite side
Radiographer’s response to MILD reaction of contrast
comfort, reassure, and monitor patient
Radiographer’s response to MODERATE reaction of contrast
call for medical assistance & monitor patient
Radiographer’s response to SEVERE reaction of contrast
call a code & notify physician
To reduce the severity of contrast reaction, what kind of premedication is given to patient
antihistamine (benadryl) and prednisone over a period of 12h+
who may be candidate for premedication
pt who has fever, asthma, food allergy
For venipuncture, what kind of consent form is needed
informed
Ideal veins for venipuncture are (3)
median cubital, cephalic, basilic veins
[Venipuncture] Tourniquet is placed ___
3-4” proximal to site
[Pt scheduling] which study should be scheduled last?
Barium studies
[Pt scheduling] put in order sequence of examination from first to last
Endoscopy
UGI
Biliary system -
CT studies -
lower GI -
[contrast media] Properties of positive contrast media (3)
- high atomic number
- high attentuation
- provide low density on radiograph
[contrast media] what is the water temperature for BE ?
100F
Barium escape into peritoneal cavity can cause ___
peritonitis
Iodinated compounds can cause ____
dehydration
[Non ionic vs ionic] Which contrast agent will increase blood plasma osmolality ?
ionic - because cation will ionize and create 2 separate particles in blood
[Non ionic vs ionic] Which contrast agent will provide a lower incidence of contrast reaction
non ionic
[Non ionic vs ionic] what is the difference between these?
nonionic doesnt have cation and stay intact when injected, whereas ionic has cation and anion which will ionize and separate into 2 particles
FOR GI studies, what lab values are important - and its values (3)
BUN : 7-21 mg/dL
Creatinine: 0.7-1.5
eGFR: 90-120
what is the chain of infection (6)
pathogen
reservoir
portal of exit
mode of transmission
portal of entry
susceptible host
Reservoir for infection includes: (3)
human, animals, environment
[indirect contact] fomite
object
[indirect contact] vector
organism
How long to rinse off chemicals If they got in contact with
eye: ____
skin: ___
15min
5min w cool water
Gloves must be used when ___ (3)
handle needles.syringes
handle bandages & dressing
assist patient with urinals/bedpans
difference between medical and surgical asepsis
medical is reduce number of pathogens but surgical is complete destruction of pathogens on instruments/ equipment
Esophagus originate at ___
inferior border of cricoid cartilage (C6)
Epiphyseal plate is found between ____
metaphysis & epiphysis
The primary center of ossification is ___
diaphysis
____ of ossification appear after birth
secondary centers
Intramembranous ossification occurs in ____
bones of skull
Endochondral ossification occurs in ____
long bone
____ centers of ossification are mainly cartilaginous and not visible until calcification occurs
secondary
____ center of ossification occur after birth
secondary
Natural curve of T spine is ____
Kyphotic (convex)
Optic foramina located on which bone
sphenoid bone
what parts of gloves are considered sterile
palmar surface and under-folded cuff
which position is the patient placed in after contrast injection for myelogram
Trendelenburg
grid = ____ IR exposure
decrease
CR angle for AP Towne Skull
30 caudad to OML
37 caudad to IOML
Endogenous infection -
nosocomial infection occured as result of overgrowth of normal flora
Exogenous infection -
diseases caused by external sources
Iatrogenic infection -
caused by medical treatment or healthcare prof
WHy would GI system require to be done with iodinated contrast
possible perforation, leakage
Fail to dorsiflex foot for AP oblique ankle will result in ___
superimposition of lateral malleolus and calcaneus
Cavity between lungs is termed
mediastinum
The enema bag should be hung on IV at a distance of __
24” above tabletop
Enema tip should be inserted no more than __
3-4”
another name for radiation tissue rection
determistic
Skeletal survery performed because ___ (3)
- child abuse
- metabolic bone disease
- OI
CR for PA UGI on sthenic patient
MSP between L1 & L2
3 functions of skeletal system
produce blood cells
store calcium
interact w muscles
in which projection of ankle should malleoli be equidistant
AP oblique 15 medial rotation (plane thru malleoli parallel to IR)
What are the cons of fixed kVp system? (2)
provide more scatter
lower contrast
What type of joint is SC ?
Synovial, gliding
Which duct joins common bile duct as it enters small bowel
Pancreatic duct
How far posterior is the sacrum in relation to ASIS?
3.5”
What type of joint is costovertebral joint
Synovial, Gliding
What type of joint is radioulnar
Synovial, piVOT
which kVp system will produce higher-contrast images and increases resolution
variable kVp
What is the pro of variable kVp system
allow small changes in exposure to compensate for variations in body part thickness
What is anatomically programmed radiography system
combine AEC system with exposure factors that correspond to specific anatomical procedures
[AEC] what happened to exposure when appropriate voltage for a diagnostic-quality exposure is reached?
operational amplifier terminate the exposure
[AEC] tight collimation near the chamber location results in ____
a. overexposed image
b. underexposed image
A - because the chamber will think that the tissue is extremely dense, thus increasing the exposure time
[AEC] no collimation will result in ___
a. overexposed image
b. underexposed image
B - because scatter occurs causing AEC to terminate early
[AEC] what part of AEC establish maximum exposure time to prevent overexposure & overheating of xray tube
backup timer
[AEC] Backup timer should be ____% of anticipated manual exposure time
150
[AEC] What happens to the image if the backup timer is too short
underexposed images
Which part of digital radiography control brightness/density?
Rescaling
Which part of digital radiography control grayscale/contrast?
LUT
Which part of digital radiography control brightness/density?
Rescaling
Which part of digital radiography control magnification?
Matrix size or FOV
increase spatial resolution = ___ pixel pitch
decrease
Which part of digital radiography control shape distortion ?
part alignment
high kVp = ____ contrast
low
Large-size object will have:
___ spatial frequency
____ spatial resolution
low
low
Small-size object will have:
___ spatial frequency
____ spatial resolution
high
high
what is modulation transfer function (MTF)
ability to display contrast of anatomic objects in different sizes
MTF =1
This is easily achieved with __-sized objects w ___ spatial frequency
large
Low
MTF = 0, meaning?
no difference in brightness level
Ideally, do we want high or low MTF
HIGH
what is DQE
how efficient IR convert xray exposure to quality image
high DQE = ___ exposure required = ___ patient dose
low
low
DQE is affected by ___
type of material used in image receptor
Grid is used when:
part thickness is ___
more than ___kVp is used
10cm
60kvp
why can grid reduce IR exposure
it absorbs scatter as well as some of the transmitted radiation
when grid is used, what must be adjusted to maintain exposure
mAs
Grid ratio to GCF
no grid: ___
5:1: ___
6:1: ____
8:1:____
12:1:___
16:1___
1-6
If a grid is used but no changes in mAs, it could result in ?
quantum noise or excessive patient exposure
what is fog
unwanted exposure that reaches IR & decreases image quality
which type of grid pattern allow the angulation of x-ray tube
linear
which grid is primarily used in fluoro
parallel
what is grid focus
orientation of lead lines
which type of grid matches the beam divergence of xray
focused grid
GCF equation
mAs with grid/ mAs without grid
high grid ratio = ___ grid cutoff
more
which type of grid errors result in decrease exposure along the outer edge of the image (3)
1.upside down
2. off-focus
3. off-angulation
which type of grid errors result in decrease exposure across the image (2)
off-level
off-center
which type of grid cutoff results when the tube or grid being angled
off-level
another name for lateral decentering is
off-center grid cutoff
off-center grid cutoff occurs when ___
Xray beam is not aligned or centered to one side of a focused grid
Off-focus grid cutoff occurs when __
SID is out of focal range
A stationary grid can result in which artifact
Moire effect
How to fix Moire effect
higher grid frequency & moving grid
Increase in AEC response time = ___ (3)
- decrease in kVp
- increase part thickness
- increase SID
flow rate of drip infusion
10-20
kVp ONLY has effect on ____ (2)
IR & contrast
Exposure of embryo to radiation from ____ result in congenital abnormalities
10d-6w ( organogenesis)
Exposure of embryo to radiation from ____ result in microcephaly or decrease in IQ
6w-birth (fetal period)
25-gauge needle is best used for ___ injection
subcutaneous
Which route of administration involve needle and syringe
parenteral
___ route produce more rapid onset of reaction than __ route
parenteral
oral
which route of administration is through spinal canal?
a. intrathecal
b. parenteral
c. antegrade
A
single-phase generators have ___% ripple factor
100
100% ripple factor means ____
voltage drops to 0 during xray exposure
bit depth related to ____
a. contrast resolution
b. spatial resolution
A
a response is known to occur during ___
a. stochastic effect
b. deterministic effect
b
___ affect subject contrast
a. filtration
b. grid
c. mAs
d. OID
e. all of the above
Filtration
___ affect image contrast
a. mAs
b. kVp
c. OID
d. SID
e. focal spot size
f. grids
g. tube filtration
h. beam restriction
i. motion
j. anode heel
k. patient factors
l. angle
B D F G H K
Air-gap technique can be used in place of a grid due to ____
beam divergence
which bones comprise of the orbit (7)
frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, lacrimal, maxilla, zygoma, palatine
most cell damage from ionizing radiation occurs when x-ray interact with __
water molecules
Which component can substitute for Vidicon camera
CCD
[Inverse square law] If the distance is doubled, then exposure ___
decreased to 1/4 of original value
[Inverse square law] If distance is reduced by half, then intensity___
quadruples
The purpose of mA selector (Rheostat)
adjust filament temperature
To double exposure, ___
increase kVp by 15%
[15% rule] TO maintain IR exposure, increase kVp by 15% = ____
reduce mAs by half
Factors affect quantity (4)
mAs
kVp
distance
filtration
factors affect quality (2)
kVp
filtration
subcutaneous site for drug injection: (4)
abdomen, back & outer thigh & upper arm
sampling frequency related to ___
pixel size or spatial resolution
increase pixel size = ___ sampling frequency
decrease
Evaluation criteria for no tilt on PA chest
T4 superimposed manubrium
Evaluation criteria for no rotation on PA chest
Sternal ends of clavicles are equidistant
Subject contrast is determined by (3)
- energy of xray beam
- amount of irradiated material
- type of irradiated material
increase in quantum mottle = ___ field size
decrease because collimation reduce the amount of x-ray photon reaching the IR
AP axial of Cspine must demonstrate
C3-T2
High LET = ____ RBE
high
What are the types of personnel dosi? (4)
- OSL
- Film badges
- TLDs
- Pocket ionization chambers
which type of dosi is the most common type
OSL
OSL contains what kind of detector film
aluminum oxide
OSL dosi needed to be changed every ___
1-3months
OSL is scanned by ____ for read out
laser
what are the advantages of OSL (3)
- lightweight
- easy to carry
- not affected by heat, moisture, pressure
Film Badge record _____
whole body exposure accumulated at low dose
difference between the filters inside OSL & Film badge
OSL: allow for different degrees of attenuation
Film badge: allow for measurement of energy of radiation
which dosi can determine if exposure is from scatter or primary beam
film badge
TLD contains _____ as the sensing material
crystalline form of lithium fluoride
Energy in TLD is released by ____ and release ___ to indicate dose
heat
visible light
which dosimeter only got read once and cant be affected by external factors
TLD
which dosimeter need to be read everyday for accuracy
pocket ionization chamber
Eq dose limit for fetus ___ per ___
0.5 mSv/ month
Eq dose limit for student
1 mSv
[NCRP] Xray tube = ____
0.25mm Al eq
[NCRP] Bucky slot cover = ____
0.25 Ld eq
[NCRP]gloves= ____
0.25 Ld eq
[NCRP]gonads= ____
0.25 Ld eq
[NCRP] curtain = ____
0.25 Ld eq
[NCRP] thyroid = __
0.5 mm Ld eq
[NCRP] Fluoro apron = __
0.5 mm Ld eq
[NCRP] window barrier = __
1.5 mm Ld eq
[NCRP] glasses = __
0.35 mm Ld eq
[NCRP] medical XR tube = ___
2.5 mm Al eq filtration
what is annual effective dose for occupational and student > 18years old?
50 mSv
what is the dose for public frequent vs infrequent
fre: 1 mSv
inf: 5 mSv
___ effect is directly related to dose
deterministic
____ effect is randomly occurring in which the chance of effect is proportional to dose received
Stochastic
Purposes of primary beam restriction (collimation) (4)
- decrease patient dose
- decrease scatter
- increase contrast
- increase quantum noise IF no adjustment in mAs
Collimator misalignment should be less than ___ of SID used
2%
Maximum air kerma rate for fluoro is ____ R/min
10R/min
DAP (Dose-area product) measure ___
exposure in air, followed by estimated absorbed dose)
Brightness gain is ___
an expression of image intensifier tube conver x-ray into light
FLux gain is expressed as ___
photon @ output/ photon @input
Purpose of input phosphor? which material is used?
convert xray into visible light
cesium iodide
Purpose of photocathode and material used
convert light into electron
cesium antimony
Purpose of output phosphor & material used
convert electron to light
zinc cadmium sulfide
what part of the image intensifier keep the electron stream narrowed
focusing lenses
Disinfectants vs antiseptics which one used to eliminate the growth of microorganisms
antiseptics
1 disadvantage of PACS through a web-based network
if internet is slow, images take longer to access
oblique projection of 2nd toe, foot should be rotated ___
30-45 medially
[Waters] if petrous ridge superimpose maxillary sinus, what must be done to correct the positioning
raise the chin to make OML 37 degree with IR
[quality control test] adjacent mA stations should be within ___ of one another
10%
[quality control test] when exposure reproducibility is tested, variation in radiation intensity should not ___
be more than 5%
[quality control test] to ensure collimator is providing appropriate safety, it must be within ___
2% of SID
[quality control test] penetrating ability, must be within ___
5%
{fluoro} this feature automatically adjust kVp & mAs during fluoro
automatic gain control
ionization is the removal of:
a. electron from the nucleus
b. electron from the atom’s orbit
B
the distance from peak to peak of sine waves is _
wavelength
max height of a wave is ___
amplitude
step-down transformer is used to ____ (2)
decrease voltage
increase current
what is the primary purpose of filtering x-ray beam
safety
full-wave rectification produces ___
pulsating DC
Line focus principle states that ____ actual focal spot
____ effective focal spot
large
small
[xray tube] purpose of vacuum
prevent electrons from colliding with atoms of gas
[xray tube] purpose of tube housing
restrict leakage radiation and provide electrical insulation
Synarthroses (aka ____) is ____
fibrous joint - generally immovable
Amphiarthroses (aka ____) is ____
cartilaginous joint - slightly movable
Diathroses(aka ____) is ___
synovial - freely movable
example of synarthroses
skull suture
examples of amphiarthroses
intervertebral disk
pubic symphysis
[JOINT] Hand, wrist, forearm, elbow, ankle are ____
synovial, diarthroses
[type of joint movement] IP joints are ___
ginglymus (hinge)
[type of joint movement] MCP/ MTP joints are ___
ellipsoidal (condyloid)
[type of joint movement] CMC / TMT joints are ___
plane (gliding)
acetabulum is formed by which bones
ilium, ischium, pubic
tubercle of ribs articulate with ____
costal facets of transverse process
head of ribs articulate with ___
demi-facet of vertebral body
Lateral L spine demonstrate _____(3)
IVF
spinous process
disc spaces
Oblique L spine desmontrate
articular facets (Z- joint)
os coxae (aka___) are found in ____
innominate bone
pelvis
[quality control test] ESE dose is __
100 mGya/min
[quality control test] CR plate must be erased at least every ___
48hours
[quality control test] CR reader is calibrated ___
annually
which spine is Lordotic (concave curvature)
C & L spine
___ & ___ has convex curvature
T & sacrum
cathode side should be placed over which part of spine
a. thoracolumbar
b. cervical
A
purpose of expiration for t-spine
reduce air volume in thorax for a more uniform brightness and density
orthostatic breathing requires ___
min of 2-3s of exposure time with low mA setting
[t-spine] patient with wide hip will require support ___
under waist to prevent sag
[t-spine] patient with broad shoulder will require___
10-15 cephalic CR angle
the ability to produce quality radiograph using wide range of technical factors
exposure latitude (radiographer)
the range of exposure captured by detector is ___
dynamic range
___used for contrast enhancement
histogram equalization
leakage radiation is limited to ____
a. 10mGy/hr at 1m
b. 1mGy/hr at 1m
1mGy/hr at 1m
MODERATE rxns to contrast (3)
- erythema
- hives
- bronchospams
double distance = ____ intensity
1/4 of original intensity
the source of electrons is
filament
the source of xray radiation is
actual focal spot
gross overexposure error results in __
data drop - missing data points
data drop can lead to ____
saturation
Scintillator is used to ___
convert xray photons to light
CCD and photodiode are used to __
collect light and convert them to electrical signal
TFT is used to ____
release electrical signal to ADC
DEL is ___ that collect____. It has 2 components which are ___
detector element that collect electrical charges. it has TFT and storage area
[AEC] how to increase IR exposure
increase density control
increase grid ratio = ___ & ___
Increase patient dose
Decrease IR exposure
Because high grid ratio requires increase in mAs to compensate
Because high grid ratio absorbs some of the primary radiation
direct square law formula
mas1/mas2 = D1^2/ D2^2
decrease target angle = ___ size of effective focal spot & actual focal spot
decrease
decrease effective focal spot = ____ spatial res
increase spatial resolution
decrease anode angle = ___ anode heel effect
increase
increase field size = ____ anode heel effect
increase
decrease SID = ____ anode heel effect
increase
off-focus radiation is caused by ___
failure of histogram analysis
RPO show ___ Z-joint
R
[tube loading] heat formula
kVp x mAs x s x W
[tube loading]
single phase = ____
3phase - 6 pulses= ____
3phase - 12 pulses = __
high frequency = ____
1
1.35
1.41
1.45
layers of esophagus from internal to external
mucosa
submucosa
muscularis
fibrous
Dose of contrast media for peds
1.5-2.0 mL/kg
Dose-response curve for cataractogenesis
Nonlinear-threshold
Dose-response model for genetic effects
Linear-nonthreshold
Which dose-response model estimate risk of cancer
LNT
Threshold = ____ effect
Deterministic
Nonthreshold = ___ effect
Stochastic
Leukemia threshold dose
5-7 Gy
Leukemia threshold dose
5-7 Gy
Decreased blood count threshold dose
150 mGy
Erythema threshold dose
2000 mGy
Epilation threshold dose
3000 mGy
In CR imaging plate, the initial response of the phosphor layer when interacting with x-ray photon is to release __
a. latent image
b. light photons
B
3 common digital artifacts
Phantom/ghost
Fog from bg radiation
Dropout
Histogram analysis error caused by: (3)
improper collimation, technique, beam alignment
Phatom/ghost artifact caused by ___
incomplete plate erasure
Which artifact is due to photons with extreme energy striking a digital detector?
Saturation
UGI - barium
AP:___
PA:____
Fundus
Body
UGI - which position best demonstrates fundus filled barium
LPO
The energy of the bremsstrahlung photon is __
Equal to difference between entering and exiting KE of incident electron
The spine of the scapula ends in a flattened triangular process termed the:
Glenoid process
Coracoid process
Coronoid process
Acromion process
Acromion process
Which of the following pathologic conditions may require a decrease in technical factors?
Atelectasis
Pneumonia
Pneumothorax
Pneumoconiosis
C
Which of the following photon interactions with matter results in the production of a recoil electron?
Pair production
Coherent scatter
Compton’s interaction
Photoelectric interaction
Compton
A small concave depression on the lateral surface of the proximal ulna that provides for articulation with the radial head is the:
Radial notch
Semilunar notch
Bicipital groove
Ulnar notch
A
Filtration built in the x-ray tube will:
Improve the radiographic quality of the image
Remove short wavelength photons
Reduce hardening of the beam
Reduce exposure to the patient’s skin
D
Improved demonstration of a diaphragmatic hernia during a stomach exam could be accomplished by placing the patient in which position?
Prone
Supine
Right anterior oblique (RAO)
Trendelenburg
D
An intravenous urogram (IVU) examination demonstrates hydronephrosis with failure to fill the ureter. To increase the possibility of filling the ureter, the patient should:
Be in prone
The structures that attach the muscle to bone in the forearm are:
Tendon
The normal image intensifier tube is a glass envelope that has been:
Gas-filled
Air-filled
Gas-evacuated
Liquid-filled
Gas-evacuated
3 functions of collimator shutter
Reduce penumbra, off-focus radiation, infinite number of light field
3 factors affect DQE
IR material
energy of xray beam
SNR
Injection of a contrast media just proximal to the aortic valve would demonstrate the:
Left ventricle
Left atrium
Carotid arteries
Coronary arteries
Coronary arteries
4 common vital signs
Pulse (60-100bpm) (infant: 100-150]
BP (sys/di)
Respiratory rate
Temperature (98.6)
Feathery appearance of sbs
Jejunum
The styloid process is a structure of the:
Temporal
(BE) Which position show hepatic flexure
Lpo/ RAO
Minimum lead eq required for thyroid shield
0.5
Purpose of myelogram
study of spinal cord
[myelogram] where is the contrast injected
subarachnoid space
clinical indication for myelogram (3)
- ** herniated nucleus pulposus
- benign tumor/cyst
- multiple lesions
contraindication to myelogram (4)
- blood in CSF
2 .arachnoiditis - increase intracranial pressure
- recent LP
[myelogram] ideal positioning (2)
prone
left lateral
[myelogram] how to verify location of needle?
backflow of CSF
The end of spinal cord is also called ___
conus medullaris
Purpose of IVU
visualize urinary system with contrast medium
IVU is a functional or structural test
functional
[IVU} what is the purpose of compression paddle
enhance filling of pelvicalyceal system & proximal ureters
[IVU] what is the alternative to compression paddle
putting patient in Trendelenburg position
most contrast reactions will occur within ____
5minutes
when does the nephrogram phase occur
immediately after injection
[Cystogram] CR angle+position for AP
15 CAUDAL
2” above pubic symphysis
Diaphoresis = __
sweating
Y view demonstrate ____ & ___ dislocation
anterior & posterior
obliquity for SI joint
25-30
RPO of acetabulum = ____ &___
posterior rim of left acetabulum
left anterior iliopubic column
Wr - ___
different ionizing radiation to determine effect on tissue
____ is antegrade flow of contrast thru superficial vein of arm
IVU
____ retrograde injection through ureteral catheter by a urologist as a surgical procedure
retrograde urography
____ retrograde flow into bladder thru urethral catheter driven by gravity ONLY
retrograde cystography
____ retrograde flow into bladder thru catheter, followed by withdrawal of catheter for voiding image
VCUG
Routine for IVU (3)
Scout & series
RPO & LPO
Post-void
[IVU] AP must include ___ without cutting ___
symphysis pubis w//o cutting upper kidneys
[IVU] CR for nephrogram
between xiphoid process and iliac crest
[IVU] prior to contrast injection, patient must ____
empty the bladder so contrast is not diluted
[IVU] RPO/LPO show trauma or obstruction of ____ ureter
downside
[IVU] RPO will show =___ kidney & ___ ureter
left
right
[Cystography] routine? (4)
AP
LPO & RPO
Lateral
AP Axial
[cystography] obliquity
45-60 degrrees
[cystography] CR for AP Axial
2 superior to symphysis pubis
10-15 caudal
[cystography] what angle would project symphysis pubis inferior to bladder
10-15 caudal
[cystography] to demonstrate urinary reflux CR ___
iliac crest
[cystography] CR for RPO & LPO
2” superior to symphysis pubis & 2” medial to ASIS
[VCUG] AP voiding - __
RPO voiding - ___
female
male
[VCUG] male urethra is demonstrated
superimpose soft tissue of right thigh
[VCUG] female urethra is demonstrated ___
inferior to symphysis pubis
uterus is bordered posteriorly by ____ and anteriorly by ___
rectosigmoid colon
urinary bladder
name the parts of uterus from superior to inferior (4)
- fundus
- corpus (body)
- isthmus
- cervix
name the 3 layers of uterus from outer to inner
serosa
myometrium
endometrium
name the 4 structures of the fallopian tubes from proximal to distal
- isthmus
- ampulla
- infundibulum
4 fimbrae
[HSG] what is the contraindication
pregnancy (main )
others: pelvis inflammatory & acute uterine bleeding
[HSG] what time period when HSG is allowed to be performed
7-10 days after onset of menstruation
[L-spine] obliquity for anterior and posterior oblique
45 degree
[L-spine]
50 degree oblique = ___
30 degree oblique = ____
L1-2 Z-joint
L5-S1
[L-spine] CR for LPO /RPO
L3 @ level of lower costal margin
(1-2” above iliac crest & 2” medial to upside ASIS
[L-spine] which position do you visualize pedicle and Z-joint
Anterior or Posterior oblique
[L-spine] how to indicate the following for oblique position
1. over rotation: ___
2. under rotation :___
- pedicle closer to midline & less of pedicle is seen
- pedicle look lateral on vertebral body border with more lamina
[L-spine] name the body part for scotty dog
nose:
ear:
leg:
eye:
body:
neck:
transverse process
superior articular process
inferior articular process
pedicle
lamina
pars interaticularis
[L-spine] what position show: intervertebral disc, IVF, and spinous process
Lateral
[L-spine] patient with a wider pelvis and narrow thorax may require a ____ CR angle for lateral position
5-8
[L-spine] how to position patient for scoliosis
place the convexity of spine down to open intervertebral spaces
another name for articular facets of L-spine
Z-joints
[L-spine] CR for L5-S1 spot
5-8 caudal
1.5 “ inferior to crest & 2” posterior to ASIS
[L-spine] L5-S1 projection - CR must parallel to ___
interiliac line
[L-spine] AP Axial L5/S1- CR
female : 30 cephalad
male: 35 cephalad
direct to ASIS
[Scoliosis ] AP R/L beind - what is used as a fulcrum during changes in position
pelvis
____ move torso posteriorly as fas as possible
hyperextension
[Sacrum] CR AP AXIAL
15 cephalad
2” superior to pubic symphysis
whose sacrum is generally shorter and wider
female
CR to include both sacrum and coccyx in 1 image
3-4” posterior to ASIS
indication for retrograde urography
renal insufficency
3 signs of patient going into shock
- pallor
- increase heart rate
- diaphroresis
[SI joint] patient obliquity
25-30
Atropine is used for ____
hypotension
hypotension w tachycardia, diffuse erythema, and bronchospasm will require the administration of ____
epinephrine
decreased respiratory rate is called ___
bradypnea
spontaneous respiration is called
apnea
difficulty breathing is called
dyspnea
difficulty breathing if lying down
orthopnea
Systolic BP is when
highest point reached during contraction of left ventricle
during BP, the first pulse sound heard is ___, the last pulse sound heard is ____
systolic
diastolic
severe indicator of impending anaphylactic shock
falling BP (rapid onset of hypotension)
3 vessels used to palate patient’s pulse
- axillary artery
- common carotid artery
- brachial artery
purpose of PICC line (2)
deliver medication thru vein
collect blood
where is PICC line usually inserted
into basilic vein or cephalic vein in distal humerus
how is Benadryl administered
intravenously (IV)
6 rights of medication administration
patient, medication, dose, route, time, documentation
[ ROA ] which route will make the drug absorb within GI tract
a. enteral
b. parenteral
A
Medical asepsis is defined as ___
reduction in number of pathogenic miroorganism in the env.
primary site of drug metabolism
liver
what is fidelity
obligation to be loyal or faithful
what is veracity
obligation to tell the truth
what is autonomy
respect independence of others
nonmaleficence
do no harm
3 requirements for infection to survived or transmitted
- pathogen
- favorable env
- exogenous & endogenous transmission
tip of hickman catheter located in ___
SVC
average rate of respiration for
adult___
children__
12-20 breaths perminute
30-60 min
____ used to treat nausea & vomiting
antiemetics
pyrexia means
fever
bid =
twice a day
antiseptic & examples
impede growth of microorganism
alcohol, peroxide, H2O2
Which 3 projections demonstrate patellofemoral joint
Lateral
Axial projection (Settegast)
Axial projection (Merchant)
High kVp = ____ PE
low
High kVp = ____ PE
low
Best position to demonstrate pleural effusion in ap chest
Lateral decub w affected side down
CR for urethra during voiding
At pubic symphysis
Purpose of cumulative timer in fluorosystem
Record total time fluoro beam is activated
What affect image signal strength? Kvp or mas
Mas
What determine the biological impact of radiation on tissues
A. Type of tissue
B. Dose rate
B
CR for lateral coccyx
3.5” posterior and 2” inferior to ASIS
For lower GI study, which position show polyps on lateral side of descending colon
Right lat decub
1024 x 1024 means ____
Number of pixels in matrix
1024 x 1024 means ____
Number of pixels in matrix
CR for sinus SMV
3/4” anterior to EAM
Pneumothorax vs pneumonia
Air vs fluid
ARRT mission - goals of mission
Standard of Ethics
ARRT mission - guide for RT
Codes of Ethics
ARRT mission - mandatory standards
Rule of Ethics
Which somatic effect involves the probability of it happening, but unrelated to severity
Stochastic
Which somatic effect involves both severity and probability
deterministic
MSDS provide guidelines for ___ (3)
Handling precautions
Safe use
Clean up & disposal
Chemicals contact must be rinsed with ____
Skin: ____
Eye:___
Cool water
5min
15min
What is tort
Civil law
Personal injury & compensation
Imaging wrong pt or body part
Battery
Improperly expose pt’s body part
Invasion of privacy
What are considered manipulation of electronic data (3)
- Wrong processing algorithm
- Alter EI
- Crop/mask postexposure
Gross negligence
Reckless act disregard of life or limb
Cough or sneeze is ___ contact
Direct
Standard precautions use barriers to prevent contact with _____ (4)
Blood
Body fluids
Nonintact skin
Mucous membranes
Most common route of infection for nosocomial infection
Urinary catheter
Normal adult body temperature
98-99F
Symptoms of shock include systolic pressure ___ mm Hg
<30
Which infection results in low BP
Septic shock
which detection device is sensitive to heat
film badge
varicella is ___ - require what type of precautions (3)
chickenpox
contact
airborn
standard precautions
vasodilator most likely used for _____
chest pain
most common vessel to measure BP
brachial artery
which medication administration routes are considered parenteral (2)
injection
topically
any method of medication administration route that bypass GI tract is considered ___
parenteral
Lyme disease is
ticks
Malaria is ___
mosquito
cerebral hypoxia developed in ___
less than 5minutes
Purpose of PEG tube
nutritional support
what is required for all pathogens to survive
host
most common method of sterillization
steam heat - AUTOCLAVE
Where does the tip of Swan ganz catheter go
pulmonary artery
tachycardia = ____
bradycardia = __
above 100
below 60
temperature
rectal __
oral ___
axillary ___
99.6F
98.6F
97.6F
circulation of blood thru heart
SVC/IVC –> R atrium –> tricuspid valve –> R ventricle –> pulmonary valve –> Pulmonary artery –> lungs – > pulmonary veins –> L atrium –> bicuspid valve –> L ventricle –> aortic valve –> aorta
UGI will be done before or after BE
after
BUN measures ____
amount of urea nitrogen in blood
Creatinine measure ___
how well kidneys are performing their job of filtering waste from blood
GFR purpose
if low = kidney disease
BUN, creatinine, GFR measure ___ functionc
kidneys
mild, severe, moderate ?
vomiting
mild
mild, severe, moderate ?
excessive hive
moderate
mild, severe, moderate ?
laryngeal edema
moderate
mild, severe, moderate ?
hypotension w tachycardia
severe
medication for arrhythmia
xylocaine or lidocaine
medication for anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest
epinephrine
medication for urticaria
antihistamine (benadryl)
angle for administration of injection
intramuscular__
subcutaneous ____
intravenous___
intradermal___
90
45
25
10-15
where is basilic vein
medial along ulnar
The number of times per second the electric and magnetic fields generate themselves is called __
frequency
Unit of frequency
Hz or cycle/s
the distance bw xray travel during one regeneration of electric and magnetic field is ___
wavelength (peak to peak)
INverse square law
intensity of radiation if inversely proportional to square of distance bw xray tube and IR
when distance x2 = intensity decrease by 4x
which is not a properties of xray
a. travel in waves
b. highly penetrate
c. electrically neutral
d. travel speed of light
A
which are the properties of xray
a. travel in waves
b. highly penetrate
c. electrically negative
d. travel speed of light
e. can be focused by a lens
f. cause fluorescence
g. narrow range of wavelength
B D F
[PE] the photoelectron has the energy ___
of the incident photon and binding energy of electron involved
rank subject density from least to most attenuated
Fat, water, air, muscle, bone
air
fat
water
muscle
bone
number of ionization in air is _
exposure
exposure is calculated in __
c/kg
enegry absorbed in matter per unit mass is __
absorbed dose
Equivalent dose is determined by __
D x Wr
Weight factor forr
xray, beta, gamma __
fast neutrons____
alpha___
1
10
20
which compare biological damage
equivalent dose
which compare different type of examinations and exposures
effective dose
rank organs from most to least radiosensitive
breast, thyroid, lungs, gonads, liver, colon, bone marrow
bone marrow
breast
colon
liver
lung
gonads
thyroid
what is primary radiation
xray beam prior to any interaction w patient, grid, IR
what is secondary radiation
leakage and scatter
least scatter is observed when radiographer is ____ from patient
90degree angle
which c-arm projection will give least exposure to operator
PA projection (tube underneath, ir on top)
C-arm, with horizontal beam, least exposure will be at___
IR
foot pedal for carm and fluoro is ____
dead-man type
occupational exposure records must be kept how long
life time
length of dose record keeping
3years
which component of the circuit is clled variable resistor
rheostat
Purpose of rheostat
regulate thermionic emission
purpose of step-up transformer
increase V to kV to produce Xray
purpose of step-down transformer
decrease voltage
increase A
purpose of rectifier
convert AC to DC
Voltage ripple
how mcuh it has to drop back down before coming up
voltage ripple %
single phase ___
3phase 6 pulse ___
3phase 12 pulse ___
high frequency
100%
14%
4%
1%
electrons interact with the anode at ___
actual focal spot
____ produced from rebounding electrons, outside of the anode focal spot
off-focus radiation
examples of inherent filtration
inside tube
glass envelope
insulating oil
compensating filters compensate for ____
difference in thickness and densities
histogram
x-axis;___
y-axis:___
amount of exposure
number of pixels for each exposure
digital contrast is controlled by ____
LUT
High S number = _____
underexposed
wrong celll = ____
underexposed
maximum mAs for backup timer
600mAs
[AEC] as kVp increases, AEC ___
decrease
mottle= not enough ___
mAs
scanning laser beam overlap with grid line structure will cause ____ artifact
moire effect
SSD for mobile fluoro (c-arm)
12” or 30cm
SSD for stationary fluoro
15” or 38cm
the site from which microorganisms leave host to enter another host is ___
portal of exit
ways to reduce presence of microorganisms (3)
- disinfection
- use antiseptic
- hand hygiene
reservoirs include __ (5)
humans
animals
environment
insects
objects
where is fist placed for heimlich maneuver
below sternum
positive contrast appear radio-__
paque
orthostatic hypotension is caused by ____
decreased pulse rate
nitroglycerin is taken ___
sublingual
Swan-ganz catheter is used for ___ (3)
- measure cardiac output
- measure heart pressures
- diagnose ventricular failure
isotopes have the same ____, different ___
atomic number (proton)
mass number
main advantag of high frequency generators
reduce pt dose by reducing exposure time
____ fluoroscopy reduce total exposure time
intermittent
21 CFR, how frequent radiation protection equipment is inspected
annually
the biological effectiveness of absorbed dose energy is called ___
RBE
____ cause atom to vibrate and re-emit photon with no energy loss
coherent scattering
symptoms of ARS (3)
headache
nausea
fever
j/kg & Gy measure ___
absorbed dose
1mrem = ___ mSv
0.01
higher grid ratio = ____ latitude of exposure setting
decrease
which dosi is capable of measuring doses from different types of radiation
TLD
cell sensitivity from least to most
blood cells
muscle
nerve
reproductive
GI
epithelial tissue
nerve
muscle
epithelial tissue
GI
reproductive cells
blood cell
OER increases = cell survival ___
cell survival decrease
cell cycle
PMAT
high LET = less ____, more___
penetrating
absorb
the ability of radiation to cause biologic damage is called
RBE
the rate at which radiation energy is deposited in matter is __
LET
RBE is affected by __ (3)
type of radiation
dose rate
tissue rate
dose that considered to increase chances of getting leukemia as dose goes up is
linear nonthreshold
___ means there is certain amount of dose required to initate the reponse
linear threshold
stochastic effect is based on which dose-response model
LNT
Tissue reaction effect is based on which dose response model
nonlinear threshold
dose determine the chance of getting the effect is ____
stochastic
dose determine the severity of effect is ___
deterministic
which dosi provide immediate result
pocket ionization chamber
dosi worn at collar measures radiation dose to __ (3)
head, neck, thyroid
effect of mAs on ESE
mAs x2 = exposure x2
how is ESE is calculated
minimum SOD
limit set by FDA for ESE
10 cGy/mib
when SOD increases, ESE __
decrease
which two interaction produce diagnostic xray?
Characteristic
Brems
PE
Pair production
A & B
lead lining thickness for
primary barrier: ___
secondary barrier: ____
1.6mm(1/16”)
0.8mm (1/32”)
additional panel used to protect embryo/fetus in maternity aprons has
1mm lead equivalent (?)
how oxygen effect impact irradiated tissue?
a. react free radicals to produce peroxide compound
b. facilitate direct action and production of peroxide compounds
A
most efficient beam restricting device
a. aperture collimator
b. aperture diaphragm
A
xray and gamma rays are considered ___ radiation
a. particulate
b. electromagnetic
B
cellular effects of irradiation
instant death
reproductive death
apoptosis
mitotic death
mitotic delay
permanent/ temporary interference w function
chromosome breakage
cataractogenesis is — effect
deterministic
cell survival curve describe ___
the relationship bw radiation dose and proportion of cells that survive
DAP meter is used to __
unit?
measure exposure in air followed by computation to estimate absorbed dose
Gyxcm^2
LD 50/30 for humans with minimal clinical support is in the range of ___
3-4Gy
which 2 factors is increased by ABC to maintain level of brightness during fluoro to compensate for part thickness change
kVp
mAs
LD in human usually specified as ___
a. LD 50/30
b. LD50/60
B
which position give highest ESE during fluoro
lateral
atomic number after gamma radiation is ___
remain the same
atomic number after alpha
decrease by 2
atomic number after beta minus
increase by 1
which 3 dose eq is included on dosi report
quarterly
year-to-date
lifetime
fluoroscopy rate must not exceed
10mGy/min
ABC on image intensifier checked to ensure radiation hitting ___ is constant
input phosphor
Plate erasure every ___ hours
48
CR reader is calibrated ___
annually
apron, thyroid shields must be checked -___
annually
quantization is ____
assign a value to pixel correspond to the gray shade
flat fielding is ___
preprocessing technique to make image uniform
___ technique chart usually result in high contrast
variable kvp
high kvp = ___ exposure latitude
wide
___ technique chart usually result in lowcontrast
fixed kvp
increasing FOV = ___ scatter
more
increase FOV = ____ pixel size
increse
decrease FOV =
____ magnification
_____ brightness
___ quality
increase
decresase
increase
which position demonstrates pneumoperitoneum
Right Lat decub
Upright
intertochanteric crest is on ____
intertrochanteric line is on _____
posterior
anterior
3 fat pads on lateral elbow
posterior
anterior
supinator
high fill factor = ___ spatial
high
misrepresentation of true size is
magnification
The purpose of image intensifier during fluoro (3)
Increase brightness
Reduce dose
Decrease procedure time by provide clear images faster
If pt has pneumothorax, AEC detectors sensitivity needed to be ____
Decrease
If pt has breast implant, AEC sensitivity needed to be ___
Decrease bc early termination results in underexposed
If pt has breast implant, AEC sensitivity needed to be ___
Decrease bc early termination results in underexposed
Decreased grid ratio = ____ IR exposure
Increase
Primary control for size distortion
OID
1” OID = ___ “ SID to compensate
7-8
Elongation distortion results from ____
Angling tube & IR
Foreshortening resulting from ____
Angling the part
DQE evaluate the effect of ____ on image
SNR
VOI is determined during ___
Histogram analysis
What compound is used to directly covert xray to electrical signal
a-Se
Isotropic nature of xray indicate that photons:
A. Have different intensities
B.travel in all directions
C. Travel in same directions
B
Which is used to release information stored in PSP
A. Laser light
B. White light
C. Infrared light
A
Hip & shoulder joints
Ball & socket (diathrotic)
Cmc joint
Saddle (diathrotic)
Cmc joint
Saddle
Elbow, knee, finger
Hinge
stator use ____ to
magnetic induction
____ convert electrical energy to mechanial energy
motor
trochlea articulate with ___
semilunar notch
distal row of carpals (lateral to medial)
trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
scaphoid is on the ___ side
lateral
ipsilateral means
injuries on the same side
___ used to even out exposure levels across image and not part of radiographic unit.
a. compensating filter
b. inherent filter
A
___ used to absorb low-energy xray photons before they reach patient
a. compensating filter
b. inherent filter
B
Location of symphysis pubis in relation to ASIS
3-4” inferior to ASIS
Location of femoral neck
1-2” Medial and 3-4” inferior to Asis
Ossification pattern
0-3mo
Metacarpal, phalanges, radius, ulna
Ossification pattern
3-14mo
Capitate, hamate
Ossification pattern
14mo-3y
Epiphyses of
metacarpals, phalanges distal radius
Ossification pattern
3y-9y
Distal row of carpals
Ossification pattern
Epiphyseal fusion to metaphysis at ___
14 years +
energy of xray photon after compton interaction
decreases & changes direction
AP pelvis , what can be inferred if obturator foramen appears narrowed
rotated towards the side of narrowed foramen
AP KNEE LATERAL OBLIQUE will primarily show which anatomical structures (3)
fibular head
lateral femoral condyle
proximal tibia
CR angle and elbow positioning of coyle method to visualize radial head
45 cephalad (tw shoulder)
elbow flex 90
CR angle and elbow positioning of coyle method to visualize coronoid process
45 from shoulder (away from shoulder)
elbow flex 80
structure that control passage of food from small bowel into large bowel
ileocecal valve
structure that form
anterior border of pelvic inlet ____
posterior border of pelvic ____
lateral side of pelvic ___
Superior border ___
pubic symphysis
sacral promontory
Ischial tuberosity
Coccyx
if an image is under or over exposed, we adjust ____ not __
mas
kvp
COPD related to what 2 conditions
chronic emphysema
chronic bronchitis
which factor direcly influence SNR
a. exposure time
b, grid ratio
c detector material
A
function of DAP
measure and report dose
for patient w pneumothorax, increase AEC sensitivity will cause ____ of the lung field
a. underexposure
b. overexposure
A
tech’s dosi should be read ____
monthly
which device collect light signal released by PSP in plate reader
PMT
AEC optimize __ without influencing ___
dose
image contrast and resolution.
decrease spatial resolution = ____ DEL size = ____ DEL pitch
increase
increase
during pre-processing, if exposure is outside of acceptable range, computer will correct image by ____
rescaling
Using a grid w higher grid ratio results in ___ image contrast
increased image contrast
(Ugi) which position will show barium in the body & air in fundus
RAO
Not LAO (not a position for ugi)
(Ugi) which position will show barium in the body & air in fundus
RAO
Not LAO (not a position for ugi)
Which carpal form the base of 1st metacarpal
Trapezium
Bone contains coronoid fossa
Humerus
CR angle for Settegast method - which structure is visualized?
15-20 from lower leg
Patella
CR angle for Merchant method
30 caudal from horizontal planes OR 30 to femur
Holmbald method
Patient kneeling w knee flex 60-70 debree
CR: perp to midpopliteal crease
Holmbald method
Patient kneeling w knee flex 60-70 debree
CR: perp to midpopliteal crease
Camp coventry method
Pt prone knee flex 40-50
CR: perp to lower leg OR 40-50 caudal
Beclere method
Supine
Knee flex 40-45
CR perp to lower leg
Proper lateral ankle xray will show fibula superimpose ____
Posterior half of tibia
Distance bw ASIS and table top is <19cm, CR: ____
5 caudal
Distance bw ASIS and table top is <19cm, CR: ____
5 caudal
Distance bw ASIS and table top is 19-24cm, CR: ____
perpendicular to IR
Distance bw ASIS and table top is 19-24cm, CR: ____
perpendicular to IR
Distance bw ASIS and table top is >24cm, CR: ____
5 cephalad
The end of spinal cord ends at /
L2
topical landmark located at junction of frontal and nasal bone is ____
a. glabella
b. nasion
B
in order to demonstrate glenoid cavity, the body of scapula should be ___
parallel w IR
___ show the relationship bw glenoid cavity and humeral head
inferosuperor axial - shoulder
CR: Perp to IR
origin of right common carotid artery
brachiocephalic artery
which carpal bone can be visualized in its entirety with Gaynor-Hart method
pisiform
gaynor-hart method
hyperextend wrist
dorsiflex hand 90
rotate hand 10 medially
cr: 1” distal to base of 3rd metacarpal
which structure separate EAM and the middle ear
tympanic membrane
3 bones of auditory ossicles (lateral to medial)
malleus
incus
stapes
which position will demonstrate right glenoid fossa
a. 45 LPO
b. 45 RPO
c. AP
B
ureter or urethra is retroperitoneal structure
ureter
CR for hand:
a. base of third metacarpal
b. 3rd metacarpal joint
B
PA Axial projection of intercondylar fossa has the CR __
a. perp to shaft of femur
b. perp to shalt of tibia
B
the process projecting superior and anterior from mandibular ramus is ____
a. coronoid process
b. corocoid process
c. condyloid process
A
longest segment of small intestine
ileum
function of ABC mechanism of fluoro
maintained a fixed exposure rate to image intensifier
Obliquity for ugi rao
40-70
Obliquity for ugi lpo
30-60
embryonic period
1-10days
preimplantation
embryonic period
10d-6w
organogenesis
embryonic period
6w - birth
fetal period
microcephaly and effect on CNS happen during _____
fetal period
congenital abnormalities is the effect during ____
oranogenesis
a diagnostic image is produced even though the patient dose is much higher than desired. this is because of ____
exposure latitude, should be N put dynamic range
increase filtration = _____ beam intensity
decrease
which position will demonstrate joint space bw first and second metatarsal bases and the joint space bw first & 2nd cuneiform
LATERAL OBLIQUE OF FOOT
Obliquity of lateral foot
30
CR for AP thumb
first metacarpophalangeal joint
what type of consent occur when patient undergo CXR
implied
unit for air kerma
Gy
unit for exposure
C/kg
_____measure occupational radiation exposure
unit?
EQUIVALENT DOSE
Sv
____ measure pt dose
unit?
absorbed dose
Gy
____ measure number of ionization
unit?
exposure
C/kg
____ measure Kinetic energy of ionization in air
unit?
AIR KERMA
J/kg or Gy
Gy = ____
A. J/kg
B. C/kg
J/kg
excessively high mAs can be identified through ____________
EI that outside of acceptable range
[image intensifier] the primary brightness gain occurs from ___ & ___
acceleration and focusing of electron beam
[image intensifier] ____ convert electrons into light available for viewing
output screen/ output phosphor
the ratio of # of light photons at output phosphor to the number of Xray at the input phosphor is _____
flux gain
____ occurs as the result of same number of electrons produce at large input screen being compressed into small output screen
minification gain
input screen or output screen smaller
output
___ is an increase in brightness or intensity
minification gain
___ is the ability of image intensifier to increase illumination level of image
total brightness gain
how is muti-focus image intensifier tube is designed to magnify image electronically
increase voltage on electrostatic lenses
increased voltage focus electrons at a point closer to ____
a. input screen
b. output screen
input screen
central portion of output phosphor possess greatest ____
a. brightness
b. spatial resolution
B
___ & ____ correct for slight underexposure or overexposure errors
LUT
rescaling
how often should AEC be tested to ensure consistent performance
monthly
obliquity for RAO (i couldnt remember for what exam, fk it) i did this card at 3am
35-40 from prone
AP town best visualize which cranial bone
occipital bone
purpose of reproducibility test
ensure uniform radiation output across exposures
which grid matched the divergence of beam
focused grid
what software used for digital documentation of patient health info
EMR
____ is used to display image as if it was exposed using proper technical factors
rescaling
“linearity” means____
consistency of radiation output relative to mA settings
CR for ap axial for toes
10-15 cephalad
purpose of performing daily quality control check
check system’s ability to reproduce image contrast
purpose of adding phases and rectifiers
maintain high voltage
Its difficult to visualize ___ objects with ___ frequency
Small
High
___ affect receptor exposure (also which one is the main factor)
a. mAs
b. kVp
c. OID
d. SID
e. focal spot size
f. grids
g. tube filtration
h. beam restriction
i. motion
j. anode heel
k. patient factors
l. angle
A B D F H J K
mAs
___ affect spatiaal resoultion
a. mAs
b. kVp
c. OID
d. SID
e. focal spot size
f. grids
g. tube filtration
h. beam restriction
i. motion
j. anode heel
k. patient factors
l. angle
C D E I K L
___ affect distortion
a. mAs
b. kVp
c. OID
d. SID
e. focal spot size
f. grids
g. tube filtration
h. beam restriction
i. motion
j. anode heel
k. patient factors
l. angle
C D K L
purpose of GSDF
luminance reponse of display monitor and digital image values
AAPM recommend luminance response fall within ___ of GSDF standard
10%`
