Arrhythmia drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Which class of drugs do procainamide and quinidine belong to?

A

Class 1a

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2
Q

What is the mode of action of class 1a drugs such as procainamide and quinidine? (3)

A

Moderate sodium channel blockers- slow depolarisation, slow conduction velocity and prolong repolarisation.

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3
Q

What class of drugs to propanolol, bisoprolol, atenolol and metoprolol belong to?

A

Class 2

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4
Q

Describe the mode of action of class 2 antiarrhythmics such as propanolol (3)

A

They are beta blockers- slows depolarisation and slow funny currents of SAN to slow HR, they also increase refractory period at AVN.

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5
Q

Name one class 1c antiarrhythmic.

A

Flecainide

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6
Q

What is the mode of action of class 1b drugs like lidocaine?

A

Class 1b dissociate from the sodium channels very quickly, so have no effect on sodium channels in normal tissue, but in ischaemic/ depolarised tissue they’ll inactivate the open sodium channels and repolarise the tissue.

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7
Q

What is the difference between mode of action of class 1 a and c drugs?

A

Class 1c drugs dissociate from the sodium channels more slowly so cause more marked increase in threshold and decreases in conduction velocity.

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8
Q

Give 2 examples of a class 3 anti- arrhythmic

A

amiodarone

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9
Q

How does amiodarone work?

A

Block K+ channels- alone this extends refractory period to slow conduction and terminate arrythmias, but may lead to early after depolarisations. For this reason it also has some Class 1, 2 and 4 actions as well

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10
Q

How does sotalol work?

A

Blocks K+ channels and is also has some beta- blocker properties

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11
Q

What class of drugs does verapamil and amlodopine belong to?

A

class IV

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12
Q

Other than verapamil and amlodipine, name one other class IV anti- arrhythmic?

A

Dilitazem

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13
Q

How do class IV anti- arrhythmics such as dilitazem and verapamil work?

A

Blocks Ca2+ channels- mainly in the AVN, to slow conduction and increase refractory period and increase the threshold for conduction.

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14
Q

How does adenosine work?

A

Binds to A1 receptors, activating K+ channels in SAN and AVN, causing hyperpolarisation and so a drop in HR, it also binds to Ca2+ channels in the AVN, increasing the refractory period.

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15
Q

How does vernakalent work?

A

Blocks K+ channels in the atria only- slowing atrial conduction, so helping to terminate atrial fibrillation

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16
Q

How does ivrabradine work?

A

Blocks HCN/ funny current channels in the SAN. This slows HR, but doesn’t affect contractility or work systemically so maintains BP- unlike B- blockers.

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17
Q

How does digoxin work? (2)

A

It is a cardiac glycoside, so increases vagal activity- increase k+ conduction, decrease Ca2+ channels and increase refractory period in AVN to slow HR.
It also inhibits Na/K/atpase so Na+ builds up, NCX swaps and Ca2+ enters, which increase contractility- thus maintaining good CO even though HR drop.

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18
Q

How does atropine work?

A

Muscarinic antagonist, so increases HR.

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19
Q

What effect do Class 1a drugs have on an ECG?

A

Wider QRS complex (slows action potentials) and longer QT interval (slower conduction velocity)

20
Q

When are class 1a drugs procainamide and quinidine used?

A

Procainamide: Supraventricular and ventricular tachycardic arrhythmias.
Quinidine: AF and atrial flutter.
Both are broad spectrum

21
Q

List 3 side effects of class 1a antiarrhythmics

A
  • Hypotension- less contractility and slower HR
  • pro-arrythmic as they prolong QT
  • GI upset
  • Dizziness, confusion, seizure, insomnia at high dose
22
Q

What effect do class 1b anti- arrhythmic have on an ECG?

A

No effect in normal tissue, widens QRS complex in ischeamic or fast beating tissue

23
Q

When are class 1b antiarrhythmics used?

A

In ventricular tachycardia due to MI/ angina

24
Q

Give 3 side effects of class 1b anti- arrhythmics?

A

Dizziness, drowsniess, GI upset

No effect on normal tissue to no hypotension etc.

25
Q

What effect do class 1c anti- arrhythmics have on an ECG?

A

increase PR interval- slower conduction, widen QRS and QT interval due to slower conduction

26
Q

When are class 1c anti arrhythmics used?

A

Wide spectrum- supraventricular arrhythmias, WPW syndrome

27
Q

Give 3 side effects of class 1c antiarrhymics?

A
  • Quite proarrhythmic due to elongation QT, so dont use in structural heart disease or long term
  • CNS and GI effects
28
Q

Why should flecainide not be used on its own to treat AF?

A

It may decrease the rate of AF to a level where ventricles keep up, but rate is still 200+ so leads to ventricular tachycardia.

29
Q

What effect to class 2 antiarrhythmics have on ECG?

A

increased PR interval (slows conduction from A-> V), slows HR (as slows rate of SAN depolarisation)

30
Q

What arrhythmias are class 2 drugs such as bisoprolol, atenolol and propranolol used for?

A

supreventricular tachycardia, sinus tachycardia, terminating AV nodal reentry.

31
Q

List 3 side effects for betablockers?

A
  • Bronchoconstriction (dont use in asthmatics)
  • hypotension (dont use in heart failure)
  • slows AV conduction (so dont use in heart block)
32
Q

What effect to class 3 antiarrhythmics like amiodarone have on ECG?

A

Extend PR, QRS and QT interval, decrease heart rate.

33
Q

How does sotalol work?

A

Beta blocker but also has some K+ channel blocking properties, so increases QT interval and decreases heart rate

34
Q

When can amiodarone be used?

A

wide spectrum- supra and ventricular tachycardias

35
Q

List 4 side effects of amiodarone?

A
  • pulmonary fibrosis
  • hepatic injury
  • thyroid disease
  • photosensitivity
  • increased LDL
    The risk of theses increase w/ time so avoid long term use and if you do, use low dose + digoxin.
36
Q

What effects do class 4 drugs like verapamil and dilitazem have on an ECG?

A

Increase PR interval (prolong time to get from SAN–> AVN), HR change variable depending on response to BP drop.

37
Q

List 3 side effects of Calcium channel blockers

A

hypotension (avoid in heart failure), sick sinus syndrome, GI upset

38
Q

What effects does adenosine have on an ECG?

A

increases PR interval (decreases AVN conduction) and decrease HR

39
Q

When is adenosine used?

A

Atrial flutter, AVN reentry–> used in stable, regular, monomorphic wide complex tachycardia.

40
Q

List 3 side effects of adenosine?

A

flushings, dyspnoea, headache, GI upset, AV block

41
Q

When is digoxin used?

A

adjunct to reduce ventricualr rate in AF, esp if pt has heart failure as keeps contractility high while decreasing HR so maintaining cardiac output

42
Q

List 2 side effects of digoxin?

A

dizziness, diarrhoea, nausea, headache

43
Q

Describe the rate and rhythm control used in AF

A

Rate: B blocker (bisoprolol), Ca blocker (verapamil) +/- digoxin
Rhythm: K+ blocker (amiodarone), Na+ blocker (flecainide), vernakalent
Rate control is 1st line, rhythm only used in acute episodes usually.

44
Q

Describe acute treatment of re- entrant SVT

A

Adenosine (slows rate), flecainide (may terminate), verapamil (slows rate).
Chronic is same - adenosine + B blocker/ sotalol

45
Q

Describe treatment of ectopic beats

A

beta blockers - bisoprolol first, then Na+ blockers (flecainide)

46
Q

Describe treatment of wolf- parkinson- white syndrome

A
  • flecainide to slow conduction back to atria

- Amiodarone to slow conduction further, back to paceset by SAN