Armed Deployment Flashcards

1
Q

What does the term EMD “emotionally or mentally distressed” mean?

A

The term emotionally or mentally distressed is used to describe individuals who may behave in an

unexpected, extreme or challenging manner

as a result of a

mental health issue or
emotional distress.

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2
Q

What is a provoked shooting?

A

The term provoked shooting refers to a situation in which a subject engages in life-threatening behaviour or criminal activity in an attempt to create a situation where a police officer will shoot them.

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3
Q

What are the stay safe principles?

A

stay safe – think about your own and the public’s safety
see – what is happening and where
tell – communicate, describe incident/type of weapon
act – stay safe, update, observe/contain and give first aid

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4
Q

How can unarmed police responders be used?

A

1) providing a physical or visible deterrent, or reassurance
2) directing potential victims or other vulnerable persons from locations where harm may occur
3) dealing with casualties and, where possible, providing immediate first aid
4) gathering information and reporting back
5) implementing cordons

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5
Q

What are Environmental and behavioural influencers?

A

Environmental and behavioural influencers can affect a subject’s behaviour and their response to any contact with police officers.

  • crowd dynamics and peer group pressure
  • environments where communication is difficult
  • sensory impairment or communication difficulties, for example, hearing impairment or where the subject may have difficulty in understanding or communicating in English
  • the effects of drugs or alcohol
  • subjects whose movements are impaired or exaggerated by reason of a medical condition
    subjects who have learning difficulties.
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6
Q

What are the 4 criteria for deployment of AFOs?

A

The deployment of AFOs should only be authorised in the following circumstances:

where the officer authorising the deployment has reason to suppose that

officers may have to protect themselves or others from a person who:

is in possession of, or has immediate access to, a firearm or other potentially lethal weapon,

or
is otherwise so dangerous that the deployment of armed officers is considered to be appropriate,

or
as an operational contingency in a specific operation (based on the threat assessment),

or
for the destruction of animals which are dangerous or are suffering unnecessarily.

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7
Q

What are the options for dealing with an individual who is EMD?

A
BUGEEL 
Back off (if safe)
Use of effective cover by police
Give time and space to the subject
Evacuation of immediate area
Early negotiation advice
Less lethal options to be considered
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8
Q

What is a marauding terrorist attack (MTA)?

A

A marauding attack will involve attacker(s) actively and deliberately seeking out new victims. The “marauding” element may involve attackers moving between or within structures or other populated areas searching for victims. It may also include the circumstances where an attacker seeks out new victims with little or no need for such movement; for example an attacker discharging a high powered firearm from a vantage point into a crowded area.
The motivation for a marauding attack may be terrorism, and where this is the case it will be referred to as a Marauding Terrorist Attack (MTA). Operation Plato is the agreed national identifier for the multi-agency response to such an attack which is designed to inform and prepare personnel from all three emergency services for the response to an extraordinary event.

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9
Q

What advice is given to the public regarding firearms attacks?

A

Run
Hide
Tell

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10
Q

First responders should report with the METHANE report. What does it stand for?

A
Major Incident
Exact Location
Type of Incident (i.e MTA)
Hazards (e.g. guns, knives, IEDs)
Access (i.e. describe the route in to save time)
Number of casualties 
Emergency Services Required
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11
Q

What is the hot zone?

A

A hot zone is an area assessed to contain a credible and continuing threat to life, including the presence of attackers with weapons.

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12
Q

What is the warm zone?

A

The warm zone is an area assessed as where the attackers are not believed to be present but an identified threat remains.

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13
Q

What is the cold zone?

A

The cold zone is an area where no known threat exists or where appropriate control measures have been implemented. Some cold zones will not require any control measures. The RVP and FCP will be within this zone.

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14
Q

Can unarmed responders be deployed into hot or warm zones?

A

Yes.

Taser officers can confront a subject with a knife

Can distract attackers

Provide first aid

Create cordons

Direct public to evacuation routes

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15
Q

What are the recommended cordon distances for person borne IEDs?

A

Cordon distances
Recommended Minimum cordon distance guidance.
100m for smaller items (eg, rucksacks or briefcases or PBIED).
200m for medium items (eg, suitcases, wheelie bins or car).
400m for larger items (eg, vans or lorries).

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16
Q

Will an incident resulting in an Op Plato declaration always be a major incident?

A

A marauding attack that results in the declaration of Operation PLATO is likely to be declared as a major incident.

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17
Q

Is Op Plato to be declared for any active shooter or for terrorist motivated attacks only?

A

It is also recognised that not all marauding attacks may be motivated by terrorism. The motivation may also include personal disaffection with family, an employer or school. During the early stages of an incident, it may not be possible to identify the motivation of the subject(s) and the initial response may be informed more by the nature of the attack than its motivation. If the attacker’s motivation is not known, then Operation PLATO should be declared. If it becomes known that the attacker’s motivation is not terrorism, then the Op PLATO declaration should be rescinded and plain speech should be used to share information about what is taking place.

However where it is clear that it is a non-terrorist marauding attack, whilst some or all of the principles contained within this document may be used, Operation PLATO should not be declared and plain speech should be utilised to describe what is taking place and the response required.

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18
Q

What is the overarching strategic aim of an op PLATO response?

A

The overarching strategic aim of an Operation PLATO response will be the preservation of life and neutralising the ongoing threat.

In order to achieve the overarching strategic aim it is expected that the policing response will be to identify, locate and confront subjects in order to neutralise the threat.

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19
Q

Why is the traditional response to firearms incidents unsuitable for Op Plato incidents?

A

The traditional response of containing the threat is unlikely to be appropriate as it may fail to stop subjects where their capability and intent appears to be to indiscriminately kill as many people as possible.

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20
Q

What is ICI?

A

Identity
Capability
Intent

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21
Q

What is VSL?

A

Victim
Subject
Location

The bigger the triangle the longer you have to consider it

22
Q

What phase of the NDM do you consider whether the subject is EMD?

A

Info and intel

23
Q

What actions should the SFC in relation to post incident procedures?

A

Duty to investigate under ECHR article 2.

Must preserve all evidence relating to it

Refer to the IOPC

Consider CIA

Consider critical incident

Implement Post incident procedures - appoint PIM

Identify Kew police witnesses and consider separation

First aid

Any ongoing threat to any person

Consider family of those harmed

24
Q

What are the criteria for post incident investigations?

A

Where there had been a discharge of a weapon which caused:

Death of serious injury

Revealed failings in command

Caused danger to officers or the public

25
Q

What is the role of the PIM?

A

1) facilitate the investigation
2) ensure the integrity of post-incident procedures
3) explain post-incident procedures and developments to KPWs
4) consider the need to separate KPWs and
5) record associated decisions or arrangements
6) ensure that the welfare of KPWs is considered
7) keep KPWs informed of developments.

26
Q

What are the criteria for the transfer of command?

A

KATS

Knowledge of the circumstances and available intelligence

ability to communicate

appropriate tactical advice available

suitable environment from which to exercise the command function.

27
Q

What should happen when a firearms incident crosses a force boundary in unplanned circumstances?

A

Where AFOs deploy across a policing boundary in circumstances that are not expected or planned for, the original authorisation, deployment and command structure will remain in place.

The strategic firearms commander in the force or command area in which the deployment is taking place, however, must be notified at the earliest opportunity so that they can review the deployment and command structure.

This will allow that officer to consider:

1) authorising the deployment of AFOs from the originating force or command area, together with their command structure, to continue running the operation

2) assuming responsibility for the operation, including command and the provision of AFOs

3) reviewing the deployment of AFOs and assuming the responsibility of strategic firearms commander (or appointing a new strategic firearms commander from within the force area) and dealing with the incident using the armed officers from the originating force


4) assuming responsibility and curtailing the operation.

28
Q

What should happen when a firearms incident crosses aforce boundary in planned circumstances?

A

In circumstances where it is anticipated that AFOs will be operating across policing boundaries, command protocols should provide clarity as to any transfer of command that is required.
Where it is known that an armed deployment (including surveillance and protection operations) may transcend one or more policing boundaries, the original authority will normally remain, and no further authority will be required unless the operation:
* is intended to intervene, intercept, contain, or have some other overt interaction with a subject or members of the public
* is likely to have a significant impact on the community through which it will pass, or take place
* will require support from the police area through which it is passing.
* the nature and intention of the operation
* the area in which it will be undertaken
* contact details of the strategic and tactical firearms commanders

29
Q

What are the generic tactical options?

A

I 1. Wait

  1. Take Mitigating Action
  2. Keep the Subject Under Observations
  3. Investigative Assessment
  4. Contain the Area around the Subject
  5. Communicate with the Subject
  6. Decisive Action
30
Q

What is the key point of Osman 1988?

A

Article 2 imposes a positive obligation on authorities to take preventative measures to protect the life of an individual whose life is at risk from the criminal acts of another.

31
Q

What is the key point of Stockwell?

A

Need to confirm the ID of your subject. Risk of failure to correctly ID.

32
Q

What is the key points of McCann and others?

A

Need to ensure operations are planned and organised to minimise recourse to lethal force.

Need to consider whether instructions given effectively render inevitable the use of lethal force.

Consideration should be given to options of earlier arrest.

33
Q

What are the common tactical parameters?

A

No dynamic tactic to enter the premises unless an immediate threat to life or risk of serious injury.

No pursuit unless by suitable trained staff

No unarmed officer to stop the subject unless there is an immediate threat to life or risk of serious injury.

No unarmed officer to enter the premises unless there is an immediate threat to life or risk of serious injury.

34
Q

What is risk principle 3?

A

Risk taking involves judgement and balance.

Decision makers are required to consider the value and likelihood of the possible benefits of a particular decision against the seriousness and likelihood of the possible harms.

35
Q

What is risk principle 2?

A

maintaining or achieving the safety, security and wellbeing of individuals and communities is a primary consideration in risk decision making.

36
Q

R v Brady - what is the key point?

A

Public expectation that the police will act to protect them or challenge criminality

37
Q

R v McCann - what is the key point?

A

Need to be careful not to plan an operation so as to make recourse to lethal force inevitable

38
Q

What is a critical incident?

A

A critical incident is any incident where the effectiveness of the police response is likely to have a significant impact on the confidence of the victim, their family and/or the community.

39
Q

Who can authorise a critical shot?

A

Any commander

Ie SFC,
TFC or OFC

40
Q

What are the 4 categories of vulnerable persons?

A

EMD

EBI

Child or young person

Provoked shooting

41
Q

What is the purpose of a tactical parameter?

A

To set strategic direction, not to dictate tactics

42
Q

What are the 3 tests in testing and approving the tactical plan?

A

1) does it mitigate the primary threat?
2) does it achieve the working strategy?

3) is it ECHR compliant? PLANE
- proportionate
- lawful
- accountable
- necessary
- ethical

43
Q

What are the 3 criteria for a critical shot?

A

A commander may have access to decisive information relevant to an imminent threat to life which he cannot share with AFOs for one or more reasons:

  • insufficient time to fully brief AFOs
  • prevented by law from passing info
  • info is so sensitive cannot be shared
44
Q

What are the most common contingencies to prepare for?

A
Fight 
Flight - breakout on foot or vehicle
Shots fired at police
Shots fired within building
Hostage taking
No response
Surveillance loss
45
Q

What is a tipping point?

A

The point at which action is needed to prevent an article 2/3 violation.

46
Q

What are the 3 foot interception tactics?

A

Armed inquiry

Challenge from cover

Close quarter containment

47
Q

What are the 3 vehicle interception tactics?

A

Natural stop

Compliant stop

Enforced stop

48
Q

Vehicle interception. Once a vehicle is stopped what are the 3 tactics?

A

Approach/armed enquiry

Contain/challenge from cover

Extraction

49
Q

Who authorised EMOE?

A

The SFC authorises, but TFC determines deployment and use

50
Q

When can EMOE be used?

A
Hostage rescue
Kidnap
Seige 
CT operations
Life at risk operations
51
Q

What is Vanguard and who authorised?

A

A single substantial distraction device.

To be used for hostage rescue, CT ops or life at risk operations.

SFC authority.

52
Q

What is the criteria for deployment of a Conflict Management Dog(CMD)?

A

Same as for deployment of AFOs.

Authority for deployment with the SFC, but authority for use with TFC.