Area I C. state and local gov Flashcards
FAR3C10004
How is the transaction price allocated to performance obligations in a contract?
A. Based on the relative fair value of each performance obligation
B. Equally among all performance obligations
C. According to the specific costs incurred for each obligation
D. Based on the standalone selling prices of the goods or services
D. Based on the standalone selling prices of the goods or services
The transaction price is allocated to each performance obligation based on their standalone selling prices, which is the fourth step in the model.
FAR1E10024
In modified cash basis accounting, how are long-term assets typically treated?
A) Expensed when purchased.
B) Capitalized and depreciated over time.
C) Recognized when they are fully paid off.
D) Not recorded until they are sold
B) Capitalized and depreciated over time.
Modified cash basis accounting blends elements of both cash and accrual accounting. Long-
term assets are capitalized and depreciated, similar to accrual accounting.
FAR2C011n
Which of the following is correct regarding the lower of cost or market rule?
A. In LCM, “market” is defined as the cost to replace the item in an active market
B. In LCM, “market” is defined as the cost to replace the item subject to a max and minimum
C. In LCM, “cost” is defined as the cost to replace the item subject to a max and minimum
D. In LCM, “cost” is defined as the cost to replace the item at market value
B. In LCM, “market” is defined as the cost to replace the item subject to a max and minimum
In LCM, “market” is defined as the cost to replace the item subject to a max and minimum. The maximum is net realizable value (NRV), and the minimum is NRV minus a normal profit margin. The “cost” in LCM simply means the historical cost of the inventory.
FAR1A60008
In the consolidation process, what happens to the carrying amount of the parent’s investment in the subsidiary?
A. It is maintained as a separate line item
B. It is eliminated against the subsidiary’s equity
C. It is revalued to fair market value
D. It is classified as a long-term liability
B. It is eliminated against the subsidiary’s equity
During consolidation, the carrying amount of the parent’s investment in the subsidiary is eliminated against the equity of the subsidiary. This elimination is crucial to avoid double counting of the investment and the subsidiary’s assets and liabilities in the consolidated statements.
FAR1A40030
A company’s statement of changes in equity showed a beginning common stock balance of $100,000 and an ending balance of $120,000. However, it was later found that new stock issuance worth $15,000 was mistakenly omitted. What should be the corrected ending balance of common stock?
A) $135,000
B) $105,000
C) $120,000
D) $115,000
A) $135,000
The corrected ending balance of common stock is found by adding the omitted new stock issuance to the initial ending balance. The calculation is:
Corrected ending balance = Initial ending balance + Omitted issuance
Corrected ending balance = $120,000 + $15,000 = $135,000
FAR2E30019
An investor owns 50% of an investee and records its investment using the equity method. If the investee earns a net income of $20,000 and declares no dividends, what is the journal entry to record the investor’s share of income?
A. Debit Investment $10,000; Credit Income from Investment $10,000
B. Debit Income from Investment $10,000; Credit Investment $10,000
C. Debit Investment $20,000; Credit Income from Investment $20,000
D. Debit Cash $10,000; Credit Investment $10,000
B. Debit Income from Investment $10,000; Credit Investment $10,000
The investor’s share of income (50% of $20,000 = $10,000) increases the investment’s carrying value (credit) and is recognized as income (debit).
FAR2H10035
A company issues a $50,000 bond payable at a discount of 8% for five years. What is the annual amortization of the bond discount using the straight-line method?
A. $400
B. $800
C. $4,000
D. $10,000
B. $800
The total discount is 8% of $50,000, which is $4,000. Using the straight-line method, the annual amortization is $4,000 / 5 years = $800.
What is the purpose of reporting comprehensive income?
A. To summarize all changes in equity from non-owner sources.
B. To reconcile the difference between net income and cash flows provided from operating activities.
C. To provide a consolidation of the income of the firm’s segments.
D. To provide information for each segment of the business.
A. To summarize all changes in equity from non-owner sources.
This is the whole point of reporting comprehensive income.
FAR2F10008
Which of the following best exemplifies an intangible asset with an indefinite life?
A. A patent with a 20-year legal life.
B. A trademark with no legal expiry date.
C. A software with a 5-year technology cycle.
D. A customer contract lasting 10 years.
B. A trademark with no legal expiry date.
A trademark with no legal expiry date exemplifies an intangible asset with an indefinite life, as it does not have a foreseeable limit on the period over which it is expected to generate net cash inflows.
FAR2E30001
When should a company use the equity method for accounting for an investment in another company?
A. When it holds less than 20% of the voting stock.
B. When it has significant influence over the investee.
C. When it has no influence over the investee.
D. When it owns more than 50% of the voting stock.
B. When it has significant influence over the investee.
The equity method is used when an investor has significant influence over the investee but does not have control. This is typically indicated by owning 20% to 50% of the voting stock. Owning less than 20% (A) usually suggests a lack of significant influence, and owning more than 50% (D) suggests control, leading to consolidation, not the equity method. Option C is incorrect as the equity method requires influence.
FAR2A10018
A deposit recorded by the bank but not yet by the company is:
A. An outstanding check
B. A deposit in transit
C. An error
D. An unrecorded deposit
D. An unrecorded deposit
A deposit that the bank has recorded but the company has not is an unrecorded deposit. It should be added to the company’s general ledger balance during reconciliation. An outstanding check (A) and a deposit in transit (B) represent different concepts. An error (C) could be a possible explanation, but it’s more accurate to identify it specifically as an unrecorded deposit.
FAR1F10005
To assess a company’s profitability relative to its shareholders’ equity, which ratio should be used?
A. Return on Equity
B. Return on Assets
C. Earnings per Share
D. Operating Margin
A. Return on Equity
Return on Equity (A) directly measures a company’s profitability relative to the equity held by its shareholders. Return on Assets (B) assesses profitability relative to total assets, Earnings per Share (C) reflects the company’s profit allocated to each share of stock, and Operating Margin (D) shows profitability from core business operations.
As of December 1, year 2 a company obtained a $1,000,000 line of credit maturing in one year on which it has drawn $250,000, a $750,000 secured note due in five annual installments, and a $300,000 three-year balloon note. The company has no other liabilities. How should the company’s debt be presented in its classified balance sheet on December 31, year 2 if no debt repayments were made in December?
Current liabilities of $1,000,000; long-term liabilities of $1,050,000.
Current liabilities of $500,000; long-term liabilities of $1,550,000.
Current liabilities of $400,000; long-term liabilities of $900,000.
Current liabilities of $500,000; long-term liabilities of $800,000.
Current liabilities of $400,000; long-term liabilities of $900,000.
The current liabilities include:
The $250,000 drawn on the line of credit
of the $750,000/5years installment note, so $150,000
Total of $400,000
The long-term liabilities include:
The $600,000 of the installment note
The $300,000 balloon note
These total $900,000
FAR2B10002
If a company decides to write off a bad debt of $2,000, which of the following journal entries correctly records this transaction?
A) Debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $2,000; Credit Trade Receivables $2,000
B) Debit Trade Receivables $2,000; Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $2,000
C) Debit Bad Debt Expense $2,000; Credit Trade Receivables $2,000
D) Debit Trade Receivables $2,000; Credit Bad Debt Expense $2,000
A) Debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $2,000; Credit Trade Receivables $2,000
The correct entry for writing off a bad debt involves decreasing both the allowance for doubtful accounts (a contra asset account) and the trade receivables (an asset account). This entry does not affect the income statement as the expense was recognized earlier when the allowance was created.
FAR2F10018
A finite-lived intangible asset is purchased for $200,000 and is expected to generate benefits for 8 years. If the asset is impaired and its recoverable amount is determined to be $150,000 at the end of year 4, what is the impairment loss?
A. $50,000
B. $25,000
C. $150,000
D. $12,500
A. $50,000
At the end of year 4, the carrying amount is $200,000 – ($200,000 / 8 years * 4 years) = $100,000. The impairment loss is the difference between the carrying amount and the recoverable amount: $150,000 – $100,000 = $50,000.
FAR1F10025
The Accounts Payable Turnover Ratio is calculated using which formula?
A. Total Purchases / Average Accounts Payable
B. Average Accounts Payable / Total Purchases
C. Cost of Goods Sold / Accounts Payable
D. Accounts Payable / Total Purchases
A. Total Purchases / Average Accounts Payable
The Accounts Payable Turnover Ratio is determined by dividing Total Purchases by Average Accounts Payable. It measures how fast a company pays off its suppliers.
FAR1F10039
A company with a Debt-to-Equity Ratio of 0.5 indicates what about the company’s financing structure?
A. It has twice as much equity as debt.
B. It has more debt than equity.
C. It has equal amounts of debt and equity.
D. It has half as much debt as equity.
A. It has twice as much equity as debt.
A Debt-to-Equity Ratio of 0.5 indicates that the company has twice as much equity as debt. This ratio shows a lower level of debt financing relative to equity. It does not suggest more debt than equity (B), equal amounts of debt and equity (C), or half as much debt as equity (D).
FAR1D10010
What is the primary difference in the financial statements found in Form 10-K and Form 10-Q?
A. The financial statements in Form 10-K are less detailed than those in Form 10-Q.
B. The financial statements in Form 10-K are unaudited, while those in Form 10-Q are audited.
C. The financial statements in Form 10-K are audited, while those in Form 10-Q are unaudited.
D. There is no difference in the financial statements; they are identical in both forms.
C. The financial statements in Form 10-K are audited, while those in Form 10-Q are unaudited.
The primary difference is in the level of scrutiny the financial statements undergo. The financial statements in Form 10-K are audited, providing a higher level of assurance about their accuracy, while those in Form 10-Q are unaudited.
FAR1A30017
In what section of the financial statements is Other Comprehensive Income typically reported?
A. In the Balance Sheet.
B. In the Cash Flow Statement.
C. In the Statement of Changes in Equity.
D. In the Statement of Comprehensive Income.
D. In the Statement of Comprehensive Income.
Other Comprehensive Income is reported in the Statement of Comprehensive Income, which shows all changes in equity during a period except those resulting from investments by and distributions to shareholders.
A is incorrect as the Balance Sheet shows the financial position at a point in time. B is incorrect as the Cash Flow Statement shows cash inflows and outflows. C is incorrect as the Statement of Changes in Equity focuses on changes due to transactions with shareholders.
FAR2A10011
When reconciling the cash balance per the bank statement to the general ledger, which of the following would be added to the general ledger balance?
A. Bank service charges
B. Outstanding checks
C. Deposits in transit
D. NSF (Non-Sufficient Funds) checks
C. Deposits in transit
Deposits in transit are amounts that have been recorded by the company but not yet reflected on the bank statement. Therefore, they should be added to the general ledger balance.
Bank service charges (A) and NSF checks (D) are deducted from the general ledger balance. Outstanding checks (B) are deducted from the bank statement balance.
FAR2H10011
When does a change to the terms of a debt instrument qualify as a troubled debt restructuring?
A. When the debtor is experiencing financial difficulties
B. When the creditor grants a concession to the debtor
C. When both A and B are true
D. When the interest rate of the debt is increased
C. When both A and B are true
Troubled debt restructuring occurs when the debtor is experiencing financial difficulties and the creditor grants a concession that it would not consider under normal circumstances. This includes reductions in the stated interest rate, extension of the maturity date, or a reduction in the face amount or market value of the debt.