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ARCL 228 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of trauma?

A

Injury caused to living tissue by an outside force.

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2
Q

Give three examples of trauma causes.

A

Projectiles, cutting tools, strangulation.

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3
Q

What is the role of a forensic anthropologist in trauma analysis?

A

To determine timing, cause, and sequence of trauma events.

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4
Q

What is the main difference between forensic anthropology and forensic pathology?

A

Anthropologists analyze bones, while pathologists examine soft tissue.

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5
Q

What are the five manners of death?

A

Homicide, suicide, accident, natural, unknown.

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6
Q

What is a simple fracture?

A

Bone broken into two segments.

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7
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

Bone broken into multiple bone fragments.

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8
Q

Define an avulsion fracture.

A

Caused by tension pulling a piece of bone away.

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9
Q

What is an infractions fracture?

A

An incomplete fracture (common in juveniles).

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10
Q

What is a spiral fracture?

A

Caused by torsion forces (skiing accidents).

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11
Q

What are radiating fracture lines?

A

Cracks that start from the point of impact and spread outward.

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12
Q

What are concentric fracture lines?

A

Circular cracks around the point of impact.

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13
Q

What stops a fracture line from propagating further?

A

Sutures or other fracture lines.

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14
Q

What is unique about fracture lines in juveniles?

A

Their bones bend more, reducing the likelihood of clean breaks.

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15
Q

What force causes depressed fractures?

A

Compression.

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16
Q

What is antemortem trauma?

A

Trauma sustained before death, showing signs of healing.

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17
Q

What is perimortem trauma?

A

Trauma occurring around the time of death, with green bone response.

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18
Q

What is postmortem trauma?

A

Trauma occurring after death, with dry bone and no fracture lines.

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19
Q

What are signs of antemortem healing?

A

Porosity, callus formation, and rounded edges.

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20
Q

What are sharp edges and hinging evidence of?

A

Perimortem trauma.

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21
Q

What is projectile trauma?

A

Trauma caused by high-speed objects like bullets.

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22
Q

What are the three types of firearms?

A

Handguns, rifles, shotguns.

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23
Q

What is beveling in bullet wounds?

A

Funnel-like shapes indicating entry or exit wounds.

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24
Q

How does caliber affect wound size?

A

Larger calibers create larger wounds.

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25
Q

What is rifling?

A

Grooves in a firearm barrel that spin bullets for stability.

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26
Q

What are hollow-point bullets designed for?

A

To deform on impact and cause more damage.

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27
Q

What type of fracture lines are common with high-velocity projectiles?

A

Radiating and concentric lines.

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28
Q

What is a keyhole wound?

A

A wound caused by a tumbling bullet.

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29
Q

What is blunt force trauma?

A

Injury caused by a force impacting over a broad surface area.

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30
Q

What is a depressed fracture?

A

Bone pushed inward, often seen in the skull.

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31
Q

What is the sequence of skull deformation during blunt force trauma?

A

Inbending, outbending, radiating fractures, and bone wedges.

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32
Q

What are LeFort fractures?

A

Fractures in the face, such as the alveolar ridge and nasal processes.

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33
Q

How does bone brittleness affect blunt trauma?

A

Older, brittle bones are more likely to fragment.

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34
Q

What is sharp force trauma?

A

Injury caused by blades or pointed instruments.

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35
Q

What are the three main types of sharp force injuries?

A

Punctures, incisions, and chopping wounds.

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36
Q

What is wastage in sharp force trauma?

A

Loss of bone fragments due to heavy chopping.

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37
Q

How are striations used to analyze sharp force trauma?

A

Striations indicate the sharpness and type of blade.

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38
Q

What is forensic taphonomy?

A

Study of postmortem changes to the body and environment.

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39
Q

What are four postmortem changes caused by the environment?

A

Weathering, animal activity, burial, and fire.

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40
Q

How does fire damage change bone color?

A

Bones progress from yellow to white (calcination) as temperature increases.

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41
Q

What is trowel trauma?

A

Damage caused during excavation of remains.

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42
Q

How can animal scavenging marks be identified?

A

Punctures, pits, and parallel scoring marks.

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43
Q

What is rickets?

A

A condition caused by vitamin D deficiency resulting in soft bones.

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44
Q

What is osteosarcoma?

A

A bone tumor.

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45
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Degeneration of joint causing pain and stiffness.

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46
Q

What is Paget’s disease?

A

A condition causing thickening of bones.

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47
Q

What are accessory bones?

A

Extra bones or ossicles that are not pathological.

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48
Q

What is enamel hypoplasia?

A

A defect in enamel development, often caused by malnutrition.

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49
Q

What is positive identification?

A

Matching skeletal or dental characteristics with antemortem records.

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50
Q

What is the role of frontal sinus analysis?

A

To use sinuses as a unique identifier.

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51
Q

What is a tentative identification?

A

Based on circumstantial evidence or associated objects.

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52
Q

What is shovel-shaped incisors associated with?

A

Asian or Indigenous ancestry.

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53
Q

What are cusp 7 teeth associated with?

A

Black ancestry.

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54
Q

What are the three core ethical principles in forensic anthropology?

A

Respect, confidentiality, honesty.

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55
Q

What is the Mohan guideline for expert testimony?

A

Necessary, relevant, and from a qualified expert.

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56
Q

What are the two components of a forensic anthropologist’s final report?

A

A one-page summary and a detailed discussion of results.

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57
Q

Why is maintaining a chain of custody important?

A

To ensure evidence is not tampered with or lost.

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58
Q

What is the difference between evidence and opinion in forensic anthropology?

A

Evidence is based on physical remains, while opinion is the interpretation.

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59
Q

What is the difference between an entry and an exit wound?

A

Entry wounds - smaller and beveled inward
Exit wounds - larger and beveled outward

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60
Q

What factors influence the size of a bullet wound?

A

Caliber of the bullet, bone thickness, bullet type (e.g., soft tip or hollow-point).

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61
Q

What does the alignment of entry and exit wounds help determine?

A

The direction of fire.

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62
Q

What are concentric fracture lines in projectile trauma caused by?

A

Pressure inside the skull from high-velocity bullets.

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63
Q

How does projectile velocity affect fracture patterns?

A

Higher velocity causes more extensive radiating and concentric fracture lines.

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64
Q

What does a non-circular bullet wound suggest?

A

The bullet tumbled or hit the bone at an angle.

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65
Q

What type of firearm typically produces multiple projectiles?

A

Shotguns.

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66
Q

What is the most common blunt force injury in the forearm called?

A

Parry fracture.

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67
Q

How can concentric fracture lines form in blunt force trauma?

A

When wedges of bone are forced inward due to compression.

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68
Q

What distinguishes blunt force trauma from sharp force trauma?

A

Blunt force trauma - wide area
Sharp force trauma - narrow focus

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69
Q

What does the presence of wedge-shaped bone fragments indicate?

A

Blunt force trauma.

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70
Q

What is the significance of skull buttressing areas in blunt trauma?

A

These areas (e.g., alveolar ridge) resist fractures due to their density.

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71
Q

What age-related factor affects skull fractures in blunt trauma?

A

Older skulls are more brittle and prone to depressed fractures.

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72
Q

What are horizontal striations in sharp force trauma associated with?

A

Incisions.

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73
Q

What are vertical striations in sharp force trauma associated with?

A

Punctures or chopping wounds.

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74
Q

What does the depth of a sharp force injury depend on?

A

The force applied and the type of instrument used.

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75
Q

How do chopping wounds differ from incisions?

A

Chopping wounds are deeper and can result in wastage.

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76
Q

What is the role of striae in identifying the weapon used?

A

Striae provide details about the blade’s sharpness and angle.

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77
Q

Why are fracture lines rare in incisions?

A

Force is concentrated in a small area.

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78
Q

What kind of marks do carnivores typically leave on bones?

A

Punctures, scoring, and furrows.

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79
Q

What kind of postmortem changes are caused by acidic soils?

A

Bone erosion and shadowy discoloration.

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80
Q

How can trowel trauma be distinguished from perimortem injuries?

A

Sharp, clean edges, no fracture lines.

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81
Q

What is kerf in the context of saw marks?

A

The cut made by a saw blade.

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82
Q

What is a false start kerf?

A

A shallow cut made when the saw initially fails to penetrate deeply.

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83
Q

What kind of saw creates smooth, polished kerf walls?

A

Power saws.

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84
Q

What are the characteristics of a crosscut saw?

A

Teeth are angled at 70 degrees to cut across the grain.

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85
Q

What are the characteristics of a rip saw?

A

Teeth are angled at 90 degrees to chisel material out.

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86
Q

How does kerf width relate to blade type?

A

Coarse saws - wider kerfs
Fine saws - narrower kerfs

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87
Q

What is the difference between superficial false starts and proper cuts?

A

False starts are shallow scratches, while proper cuts penetrate the bone.

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88
Q

What is the sequence of animal scavenging activity?

A

Soft tissues of the head and neck
Thorax
Upper limbs
Lower limbs
Long bones

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89
Q

How can rodent gnawing marks be distinguished from carnivore marks?

A

Rodent marks - narrower and parallel
Carnivore marks - punctures and furrows

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90
Q

What are furrows in animal scavenging?

A

Deep marks caused by carnivore teeth at the ends of bones.

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91
Q

Why are bones scattered during animal scavenging?

A

Carnivores move bones to access marrow and other soft tissues.

92
Q

How do human dismemberment patterns differ from animal scavenging patterns?

A

Humans tend to leave head in the joints, while animals chew and scatter bones.

93
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

Vertebral arches fail to close completely.

94
Q

What is a sternal foramen?

A

A hole in the sternum that can be mistaken for a gunshot wound.

95
Q

What is cleft palate?

A

A defect where the maxilla fails to fuse properly.

96
Q

What is scurvy?

A

A condition caused by vitamin C deficiency, leading to weakened blood vessels.

97
Q

What are pulp stones, and what age group are they common in?

A

Calcifications in dental pulp, common in individuals over 50 years old.

98
Q

What is fluorosis?

A

Excessive fluoride intake causing hardened, fracture-prone bones.

99
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Spinal bones fuse, leading to stiffness.

100
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

A cancer causing weakening bones from the inside out.

101
Q

What is osteonecrosis?

A

Bone death due to a lack of blood supply.

102
Q

What is the most common form of bone cancer?

A

Osteosarcoma.

103
Q

What is the purpose of forensic odontology?

A

To identify individuals and analyze injuries related to teeth.

104
Q

What is the most common dental pattern in individuals?

A

All teeth present with no restorations.

105
Q

What is enamel hypoplasia an indicator of?

A

Periods of malnutrition or psychological trauma.

106
Q

What are the three types of opinions in forensic anthropology?

A

Speculation, possible, probable.

107
Q

Why should definitive numbers be avoided in forensic reports?

A

To account for uncertainty

108
Q

Why is respecting human remains important in forensic anthropology?

A

To uphold ethical standards and honor the deceased and their families.

109
Q

What is the role of honesty in forensic testimony?

A

To ensure findings are data-supported and free from bias.

110
Q

What is the goal of facial reconstruction in forensic anthropology?

A

To create a representation of an individual’s face for identification purposes.

111
Q

What are the three main methods of facial reconstruction?

A

Anatomical (Russian), Tissue Depth (American), and Manchester (a combination of the two).

112
Q

Who developed the anatomical method of facial reconstruction?

A

Mikhail Gerasimov.

113
Q

What is the anatomical (Russian) method based on?

A

Reconstructing muscles, glands, and fatty tissue using skull markings.

114
Q

What are the advantages of the anatomical method?

A

It results in very realistic representations.

115
Q

What are the limitations of the anatomical method?

A

It is time-consuming and requires extensive knowledge of soft tissue anatomy.

116
Q

What is the tissue depth (American) method?

A

It uses average tissue depths to reconstruct the face.

117
Q

What are tissue depth markers?

A

Pegs placed on the skull to represent the thickness of soft tissue at various points.

118
Q

What are the advantages of the tissue depth method?

A

It is quicker and doesn’t require as much anatomical knowledge.

119
Q

What are the disadvantages of the tissue depth method?

A

It can produce generic-looking faces and may not account for mixed ancestry.

120
Q

What is the Manchester method?

A

A combination of the anatomical and tissue depth methods.

121
Q

What is a key advantage of the Manchester method?

A

It combines realism with efficiency.

122
Q

How is nose length estimated in facial reconstruction?

A

It is based on the length of the nasal spine.

123
Q

Why is facial asymmetry considered in reconstruction?

A

Because human faces are rarely perfectly symmetrical.

124
Q

What skeletal factors influence body weight estimation?

A

Sex, skeletal robusticity, and height.

125
Q

How does muscle mass affect body weight?

A

Muscle weighs more than fat and increases body weight.

126
Q

What is the method for estimating body weight in forensic anthropology?

A

Determine sex and height, consult height/weight charts, and adjust for skeletal robusticity.

127
Q

Why is skeletal robusticity important in weight estimation?

A

Thicker bones indicate a more muscular build, suggesting a higher weight.

128
Q

What additional evidence can aid in estimating body weight?

A

Clothing

129
Q

What is the postmortem interval (PMI)?

A

The time elapsed since an individual’s death.

130
Q

Why is estimating PMI important?

A

It helps determine the timeline of death and decomposition.

131
Q

What are three environmental factors that affect PMI?

A

Temperature, humidity, and burial environment.

132
Q

What role does forensic taphonomy play in PMI estimation?

A

It studies how environmental factors alter remains over time.

133
Q

How does burial depth affect PMI?

A

Deeper burials slow decomposition due to reduced exposure to environmental factors.

134
Q

What are the color changes associated with fire damage to bones?

A

Yellowish-brown → black → gray → white (calcination).

135
Q

What causes bone shrinkage during fire exposure?

A

Loss of organic material due to heat.

136
Q

What is calcination?

A

The final stage of bone burning, where only calcium remains.

137
Q

How does fire damage affect bone shape?

A

Bones can warp or twist due to heat.

138
Q

What forensic evidence can fire-damaged bones provide?

A

Evidence of burning patterns, sequence of burning, and fuel used.

139
Q

What are non-fusion anomalies?

A

Conditions where bones fail to fuse properly, such as spina bifida.

140
Q

What is a metopic suture?

A

A suture in the frontal bone that may persist into adulthood.

141
Q

What is a bipartite patella?

A

A kneecap in two parts, often mistaken for a fracture.

142
Q

What are ossicles?

A

Extra bones found in sutures or long bones.

143
Q

What is pseudarthrosis?

A

The formation of a false joint when a fracture fails to heal.

144
Q

What is forensic radiography used for?

A

To compare antemortem and postmortem imaging for identification.

145
Q

What is unique about frontal sinus morphology?

A

It is as unique as a fingerprint and can aid in identification.

146
Q

What are three features analyzed in frontal sinus comparison?

A

Size, symmetry, and scalloping.

147
Q

What is a common issue with using frontal sinus radiographs?

A

Not everyone has them, and x-rays must be taken at the same angle for comparison.

148
Q

What are trabecular patterns, and how are they used?

A

Unique patterns in long bones used for identification.

149
Q

What are the three types of strangulation?

A

Hanging, ligature, and manual strangulation.

150
Q

Which type of strangulation is most likely to fracture the hyoid bone?

A

Manual strangulation.

151
Q

What percentage of hyoid fractures occur in manual strangulation?

A

34%.

152
Q

Why is the age of the victim important in hyoid fracture analysis?

A

The hyoid fuses with age, making fractures more likely in adults.

153
Q

What is a key sign of ligature strangulation?

A

Cord impressions around the neck.

154
Q

What are the two main parts of a forensic anthropologist’s final report?

A

A one-page summary and a detailed discussion of findings.

155
Q

What is included in the skeletal analysis summary?

A

Case number, ancestry, sex, age, stature, trauma, and unique skeletal characteristics.

156
Q

Why are appendices included in forensic reports?

A

To provide supporting evidence like photographs and data tables.

157
Q

What is the purpose of a chain of custody?

A

To maintain the integrity of evidence.

158
Q

What should a forensic report exude?

A

Professionalism, accuracy, and thoroughness.

159
Q

What are the five phases of courtroom testimony for a forensic anthropologist?

A

Pre-trial meeting, qualification establishment, direct examination, cross-examination, redirect examination.

160
Q

What are ‘Mohan guidelines’?

A

Standards for admissibility of expert testimony in Canadian courts.

161
Q

What must expert testimony be based on?

A

Evidence that is tested, peer-reviewed, and accepted by experts.

162
Q

What is the difference between direct and cross-examination?

A

Direct examination involves presenting evidence, while cross-examination involves answering opposing counsel’s questions.

163
Q

Why is it important to avoid overstating certainty in testimony?

A

To maintain credibility and ethical standards.

164
Q

What is the purpose of bite mark analysis?

A

To link a suspect to an injury or piece of evidence.

165
Q

What is osteochondritis dissecans?

A

A condition where bone tissue dies due to lack of blood supply.

166
Q

What is a kerf wall?

A

The interior surface of a saw cut.

167
Q

What does beveled bone indicate?

A

A gunshot wound, with inward or outward beveling.

168
Q

What is a philtrum in facial reconstruction?

A

The groove between the nose and upper lip.

169
Q

What is an overbite, and why is it significant?

A

A dental condition affecting facial reconstruction and bite analysis.

170
Q

What is bruxism?

A

Tooth grinding, often mistaken for wear due to age or diet.

171
Q

What does a shallow vs. deep puncture indicate in sharp force trauma?

A

The depth depends on the force applied and the object used.

172
Q

What is hypertrophic osteoarthropathy?

A

A condition causing swollen joints and bone deposition due to lack of oxygen.

173
Q

What is neurofibromatosis?

A

A genetic condition asymmetrical bone growth.

174
Q

What is the primary difference between static and dynamic forces?

A

Dynamic forces are sudden, while static forces build slowly.

175
Q

What is a concentric fracture line?

A

A fracture that creates rings around the point of impact.

176
Q

What is fluorosis?

A

Excessive fluoride intake leading to brittle bones.

177
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

Cells responsible for bone formation.

178
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

Cells that break down bone tissue.

179
Q

What is a temporalis muscle in facial reconstruction?

A

A muscle critical for chewing and head shape reconstruction.

180
Q

What is gout?

A

An inflammatory arthritis caused by uric acid buildup.

181
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Fusion of the spine, leading to stiffness.

182
Q

What is the difference between a transverse and a spiral fracture?

A

A transverse fracture is straight across; a spiral fracture is caused by twisting.

183
Q

What is meant by ‘speculation’ in forensic anthropology opinions?

A

A guess with little to no data support.

184
Q

What is a ‘probable’ opinion in forensic anthropology?

A

A conclusion with the highest level of certainty possible.

185
Q

Why are bullet exit wounds often larger than entry wounds?

A

Due to deformation of the bullet and greater outward pressure.

186
Q

What is a ‘green bone response’?

A

A reaction of living bone to perimortem trauma, indicating flexibility and moisture.

187
Q

What is beveled bone in projectile trauma?

A

Funnel-shaped bone damage at entry and exit points.

188
Q

What does thermal shrinkage indicate in bones?

A

Exposure to high temperatures leading to reduced bone size.

189
Q

What is a LeFort I fracture?

A

A horizontal fracture separating the maxilla from the skull base.

190
Q

What are accessory foramina?

A

Small holes in bones, often mistaken for trauma.

191
Q

What is spondylolysis?

A

A condition where the vertebral arch fails to fuse with the body.

192
Q

What is the primary cause of concentric fracture lines in blunt trauma?

A

Inward pressure from impact compressing the bone.

193
Q

What are hinge fractures, and what do they indicate about bone moisture?

A

Incomplete fractures indicating perimortem trauma, as the bone bends rather than breaking cleanly.

194
Q

How do concentric fracture lines differ in projectile vs. blunt force trauma?

A

Projectile trauma -pressure-induced concentric fractures Blunt trauma - surface-level concentric fractures.

195
Q

What are the limitations of forensic radiography for identification?

A

Lack of antemortem records, difficulty replicating x-ray angles, and radiation avoidance in living individuals.

196
Q

What does twisting in fire-damaged bones suggest about burn intensity?

A

High-intensity burns cause shrinkage and warping due to collagen loss.

197
Q

What type of bone erosion is caused by acidic soil?

A

Gradual degradation and pitting, often leading to loss of cortical bone layers.

198
Q

What is Callie’s fracture, and how does it occur?

A

A specific type of wrist fracture caused by falling onto an outstretched hand, often resulting from shearing forces.

199
Q

How does bending trauma typically occur?

A

It happens when force is applied perpendicular to the long axis of a bone, often causing parry fractures in defensive injuries.

200
Q

Why are torsion fractures more common in accidents like skiing?

A

Torsion fractures occur when one end of the bone is stationary and the other twists, as in feet stuck in ski boots during a fall.

201
Q

What is a ricochet wound, and how is it identified?

A

A wound caused by a bullet that has bounced off another surface, often smaller and irregular in shape.

202
Q

How can radiating fracture lines help determine the sequence of bullet wounds?

A

Fracture lines from a subsequent bullet will stop at those caused by an earlier shot, revealing the order of impacts.

203
Q

What is the significance of projectile focus in trauma analysis?

A

Focus refers to the area of impact: narrow focus (e.g., bullets) causes concentrated damage, while wide focus (e.g., shotgun pellets) affects a broader area.

204
Q

What is kerf progression, and how is it analyzed?

A

The direction of saw movement during a cut, identifiable by the entrance being well-defined and the exit rougher.

205
Q

How can the blade width be estimated from kerf marks?

A

Kerf width is divided by 1.5 to approximate the blade width.

206
Q

What distinguishes a power saw kerf from a hand saw kerf?

A

Power saw kerfs have smoother, polished walls, while hand saw kerfs show irregular striae due to manual cutting.

207
Q

What is the tooth set in saw analysis, and why is it significant?

A

The offset of saw teeth, creating a kerf slightly wider than the blade, which indicates the type of saw used.

208
Q

How does fire damage cause twisting or warping in bones?

A

Heat causes uneven contraction of organic material, leading to deformation.

209
Q

What environmental conditions exacerbate bone flaking?

A

Prolonged exposure to sunlight or alternating wet and dry cycles.

210
Q

How does acidic soil affect buried bones?

A

It erodes the cortical bone, leaving a shadowy or porous surface appearance.

211
Q

How is ear size estimated in facial reconstruction?

A

Ear length is estimated as the same length as the nose, and the width is half the length.

212
Q

What factors influence the shape of the lips in reconstruction?

A

The shape and size of the teeth, along with bite patterns (e.g., overbite, underbite).

213
Q

What is the role of the nasal spine in estimating nose length?

A

The length of the nasal spine is multiplied by three to approximate the length of the nose.

214
Q

What is the most challenging aspect of facial reconstruction?

A

Determining the thickness of soft tissue at specific cranial landmarks due to variation in ancestry, age, and body type.

215
Q

What is a frontal sinus scalloping pattern, and why is it significant?

A

The scalloped edges of the frontal sinus vary uniquely between individuals, aiding in identification.

216
Q

What challenges arise in comparing antemortem and postmortem x-rays?

A

Differences in imaging angles, equipment, and resolution may complicate comparisons.

217
Q

What parts of the skeleton are commonly analyzed in radiography besides sinuses?

A

Cranial sutures, dental patterns, and long bone trabecular structures.

218
Q

How can healed fractures aid in radiographic identification?

A

They create unique patterns visible in both antemortem and postmortem x-rays.

219
Q

What distinguishes hanging from ligature strangulation in terms of neck markings?

A

Hanging typically leaves a V-shaped mark, while ligature marks are horizontal.

220
Q

What is the physiological cause of death in most strangulation cases?

A

Asphyxia, caused by compression of the airway and blood vessels.

221
Q

What is the significance of time to death in strangulation cases?

A

Manual strangulation takes 3-4 minutes to cause death, while ligature times vary based on pressure applied.

222
Q

What is Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis (DISH)?

A

A condition causing ossification of ligaments, especially along the spine.

223
Q

What is myositis ossificans?

A

A condition where muscle tissue turns into bone after trauma.

224
Q

How can tool marks on bone help identify a perpetrator?

A

By linking specific saw or knife marks to a tool type or brand.

225
Q

What does periostitis indicate about antemortem health?

A

It shows inflammation, often linked to infection or repetitive trauma.

226
Q

What is the significance of beveled kerfs in saw analysis?

A

They indicate the type and direction of the saw blade’s movement.

UBC (1 decks)

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