AQP study 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

What time is a crewmember expected to report for duty?

A

Crewmembers are expected to report for duty at the specified time indicated on the crewmember’s schedule. This time marks the beginning of a crew member’s duty day for that duty period. (Typically 45 minutes prior to departure, and inside security. (1 hour international)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What time is a crewmember required to report to the aircraft or expected arrival gate?

A

Crew members report to the aircraft or expected arrival gate 35 minutes prior to departure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What action should be taken to modify a report time due to late arrival at an overnight station?

A

When report time is modified due to late arrival at the overnight station, the PIC coordinates with Crew Support to determine a report time consistent with the required rest period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is a crewmember released from duty?

A

Crewmembers are released from duty 15 minutes after the completion of the last scheduled flight or aircraft movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is the fit for duty affirmation accomplished?

A

EFB connectivity – Activating for a flight segment in the FliteView application. Upon activation, each crewmember’s electronic signature affirming fit for duty is permanently attached to the release signatory document. Additionally, each dispatch release is affixed with a fit for duty affirmation statement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

– In the absence of EFB connectivity, what must be done to accomplish the fit for duty affirmation?

A

No EFB connectivity – Contacting the dispatcher for a manual activation; both crewmembers must independently state each is fit for duty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What documents are crew members required to possess when reporting for duty for a domestic flight?

A

Current pilot’s certificate with appropriate type, class, and endorsements. Medical certificate Current and appropriate class. Company identification badge. Photo identification must be one of the following Either A or B Below. (A) Driver’s license issued by a State, the District of Columbia, or territory or possession of the United States; • (B )Government identification card issued by the Federal government, a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory or possession of the United States. U.S. Armed Forces’ Identification card; SIDA badge (Where Required) Current Jeppesen Airway Manual, FOM, and SOPM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What additional documents/equipment are crewmembers required to possess when reporting for duty for an international flight?

A

FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit (only required for International Operations). Valid passport (only required for International Operations). (Only One Pilot must possess) Corrective lenses when required by the pilot to meet FAA medical certification, a spare set readily available is required for international operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What actions should be taken in the event a crewmember has lost or misplaced an Airman or Medical Certificate?

A

The pilot contacts Crew Support and requests issuance of the required proof of certificate. Crew Support provides the pilot a copy of the Crew Qualification as proof of certification. This is used to meet the requirements of 14 CFR Part 121.383 and “Issued under the authority of Exemption No. 11152, as amended.” 2) Replacement of a lost or misplaced airman or medical certificate a) In the case of a lost or misplaced airman or medical certificate, the pilot must apply to the FAA for a replacement within 72 hours. This is done toll-free to Oklahoma City (866.878.2498) for pilot certificates and 405.954.4821 for medicals (office hours: Monday - Friday, 0800-1600 CST) or online at http://www.faa.gov/. In both cases, the crewmember must request and receive, in writing, a “TEMPORARY AUTHORITY TO EXERCISE CERTIFICATE PRIVILEGES.” The pilot then must update their pilot data as specified above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How long is the temporary proof of airman or medical certificate issued by SkyWest valid for?

A

72 hrs. The written temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges issued by the FAA must be carried in place of the lost certificate and expires 60 days after issuance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What equipment must a crewmember possess when reporting for duty?

A

Corrective lenses when required by the pilot to meet FAA medical certification, a spare set readily available is required for international operations (suggested for all other operations). A flashlight in good working condition. Headset in good working condition. EFB in good working order (charged to at least 80%) with chord. Back up battery (Charged to 100%) A flight bag suitable for carrying, protecting, and securing their EFB as outlined in Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) Program Manual SP 3105.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Regarding report for duty requirements and the EFB, what does good working order mean and what is the minimum battery charge to begin a flight segment?

A

Efb does not have any damage, screen/glass cracks (Rapid decompression), defects and /or known conditions that precludes it from operating in the manner set forth in the manual Minimum battery charge is 80% Battery Percentage is provided within flight view, (Flight checklist item)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the report for duty requirements for the backup battery?

A

Minimum battery charge is 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the currency requirements for the Jeppesen Flight Deck Pro and Company Manuals applications?

A

FD Pro may show updates available and still be considered current. Reference the update screen, when the green line falls within the Flight Duty Period window, the data in use by FD Pro is current and a download is not required for the Flight Duty Period. Company Manuals data must have been synced and downloaded within the preceding four calendar days to be considered current for the current day’s operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

– What does Emergency fuel provide? What are Emergency fuel values for the CRJ 200/700/900?

A

30 min of endurance Declared when landing with 30 minutes of fuel remaining 200= 1050 lbs 700= 1500lbs 900= 1550lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does Minimum fuel provide? What are Minimum fuel values for the CRJ 200/700/900?

A

Minimum fuel provides go around fuel and emergency fuel/ Missed approach/ Go Around fuel Burn Calculated from (200 ft to 10nm final and landing) 200 = 450 lbs 7/9 = 600 lbs Minimum declared when est fuel on landing is less than 200=1,500 lbs 700= 2,100 lbs 900=2,150 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is a cold weather pre-flight inspection required?

A

A Cold Weather Preflight Inspection must be performed during the external inspection to determine if the critical surfaces are free from frozen contaminants when:
The OAT is ≤ 5C, or Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing exist, or
The aircraft has remained overnight and may have been subject to contamination, or
A through flight and residual ice from the inbound leg may have accumulated, or The wing fuel temperature is ≤0C Cold soaked ice is suspected in the wing tank area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a Hold Over Time?

A

The Holdover Time (HOT) range is an estimate of the time the deicing/anti-icing fluid is effective in preventing the formation of frost, ice, or the accumulation of snow on a treated surface. HOT begins when the final application of the deicing/anti-icing fluid commences and expires when the deicing/anti-icing fluid loses its effectiveness, e.g., when ice or snow begins to form on or in the fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a pretakeoff check and when is it required to be conducted?

A

All Aircraft within hot and before takeoff

  1. The Pretakeoff Check Procedure is performed by the flight deck crew prior to taking the active runway for departure as outlined in this procedure.
  2. The Pretakeoff Check Procedure must be performed anytime the aircraft has been deiced/anti-iced, and HOT has been established, to ensure critical surfaces remain free of frozen contaminants.
  3. The Pretakeoff Check Procedure is performed by the flight deck crew within the HOT, and as close as practical to takeoff, regardless of how much of the holdover time has elapsed or the absence of active precipitation.
  4. The flight deck crew conducts this check from whatever vantage point in the aircraft the PIC determines gives an accurate indication of the condition of the representative surface (i.e., flight deck or cabin).
  5. Several Pretakeoff Checks may be required.
  6. When the check is conducted from the cabin, the PIC ensures the Pilot Out-of-Flight Deck Protocol as outlined in FOM SP 3100 Chapter 04 Flight Operations is followed.
  7. When the flight deck crew is unable to determine that representative surfaces are free of frozen contaminants, the aircraft must be deiced again and anti-iced if precipitation is present and a new HOT is established before a subsequent takeoff.
  8. In low light conditions, wing lighting or flashlights are used.
  9. The flight deck crew should be aware of the possibility of deice/anti-ice fluid failure. When fluid failure is detected during the Pretakeoff Check, the aircraft must be deiced/anti-iced again. B. Objective 1) To ensure critical surfaces are free of frozen contaminants prior to takeoff.
          Procedure 
  10. Visually inspect the representative surfaces for evidence of frozen contamination.
  11. When the representative surfaces are free of frozen contaminants and takeoff will occur within the HOT, the aircraft is considered clean and may takeoff
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

– What is normally the representative surface on SkyWest aircraft?

A

Normally the left wing leading edge and upper surface for all SkyWest aircraft.

a. The surface that is checked while conducting the Pretakeoff Check
b. Not limited to a treated surface
c. Cannot be a heated surface.
d. Normally the first surface to be deiced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you determine if de-ice and/or anti-ice fluid has failed?

A

A. A fluid is considered failed when it is no longer able to absorb frozen precipitation. Under these circumstances, the assumption must be the contamination is adhering to the critical surfaces.
B. Failed fluids can be difficult to recognize as a layer of clear ice may have formed under the fluid, or ice crystals have formed in the fluid creating a surface roughness for takeoff that can significantly degrade aircraft performance or controllability.
C. A failed fluid usually loses all its glossiness and resembles a dulled, crystalline appearance. The ability to discern structural detail (rivets, screws, seams) through the fluid is lost. While snowfall on a wing may be readily apparent, any clear ice that may have formed underneath is not.
D. Accumulated snow on a wing on top of deice/anti-ice fluids means the fluid has failed and will not blow off on the takeoff roll. Similarly, Type I fluid when used alone can refreeze in a matter of a few minutes after the holdover time has expired under certain precipitation conditions, especially freezing drizzle and freezing rain. Failed fluid takes on the appearance of a dull rough coating of frost.
E. The PIC directs the specific application requirements of fluids on aircraft surfaces, the execution of GDPM procedures, and is the final authority to assess and determine when the aircraft is properly deiced, anti-iced, and safe for takeoff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is a pretakeoff contamination check required? 7/900

A

700 900 Only
The Pretakeoff Contamination Check must be performed when freezing or frozen precipitation has been present since completion of the Post Deicing/Anti-icing Check and,
A. The HOT has been exceeded, or
B. The HOT is no longer valid due to changing weather conditions, or
C. Operations in heavy snow are being conducted.
D. Takeoff must occur within five minutes of the completion of the Pretakeoff Contamination Check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is a pretakeoff contamination check conducted?

A

1) The PIC:
a. Sets the parking brake and ensures the aircraft remains static while the check is conducted.
b. Turns the landing and taxi lights off,
c. Turns the wing inspection lights on.
d. Makes a cabin announcement to inform the passengers a flight deck crewmember will be
entering the cabin to conduct an inspection of the wings for the purpose of ensuring the
absence of frozen contaminants prior to takeoff.

              2) The flight deck crewmember conducting the check: 
              a. Calls the flight attendant and asks to have the ceiling lights switched to dim and all other  
              cabin lights turned off during lowlight conditions. 
              b. Enters the cabin using the Pilot Out-of-Flight Deck Protocol. 
              c. Proceeds to the most advantageous row from which to view the wing upper surfaces. 
              d. Asks the passengers seated in the adjacent rows to stand in the aisle while the inspection is 
              performed, as applicable. 
              e. Conducts a close visual inspection of both wing upper surfaces, including associated control   
              surfaces and winglets.  (1)	During hours of darkness when using a flashlight, the flight deck crewmember must shine   the light through the adjacent window behind the adjacent row to illuminate the upper wing.  (2)	When the ceiling lights restrict visibility of the wing, asks the flight attendant to turn them  
   off.  f. Determines if the wing upper surfaces are free of frozen contamination.  g. Asks passengers to be re-seated and to fasten seat belt.  h. Using the Pilot Out-of-Flight Deck Protocol, regains entry to the flight deck.  i. Reports findings to the PIC, as applicable.  3) When the wing upper surface is free of frozen contaminants and takeoff will occur within              
 five minutes, the aircraft is considered clean and may takeoff.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the definition of a Dry Runway?

A

Runway that is neither wet nor contaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the definition of a Wet Runway?

A

A runway is considered wet when more than 25% is covered by any visible dampness that is
1/8 inch or less in depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the definition of a Contaminated Runway?

A

A runway is considered contaminated when more than 25% is covered by more than an 1/8th inch of standing water or its equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow or any depth of ice or compacted snow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How are Ficon contaminants applied to takeoff performance if RwCC values are not permitted to be used for takeoff?

A

Used for departures to identify the runway third with the most limiting contaminant. Also used to determine operating limitations such as crosswind limits with low runway friction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What limits are considered by the dispatcher when calculating a MFPTW?

A

All flight planning limits except MRTW. These limits include MTOW, METW, MLDW + fuel burn off, fuel capacity limited takeoff weight, structural MTXW-taxi fuel and if required takeoff alternate METW.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What RwyCC values and/or braking action reports prohibit a takeoff or landing with a crosswind component greater than 10 knots?

A

Takeoffs and landings are prohibited with an RCC value of 1 or 2 (or BA reports of POOR) with a crosswind component of greater than 10 kts.
Takeoffs and landings are PROHIBITED when:
a) NIL BA is reported.
b) RwyCC reports of 1 or 2 are reported with a crosswind component greater than 10 kt.
c) BA reports of POOR are being reported with a crosswind component greater than 10 kt.
d) Wet Ice, Water over Compacted Snow, or Dry Snow/Wet Snow over Ice are reported with RwyCC values less than 1 BA NIL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If a discrepancy exists between a braking action PIREP and a reported RwyCC, which report shall be used to determine landing performance?

A

When there is a discrepancy between a PIREP and a runway RCC, the most conservative estimation
between the two shall be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the minimum runway length for landing for all aircraft types?

A

5400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the minimum runway length for a CRJ 700 landing at a SAT level 3 airport with a field elevation less than 4,000 ft?

A

The required runway length for all aircraft is 5400’. Runway length may be reduced at SAT level 3 or lower airports when the airports field elevation is less than 4000’ to the following lengths 200- 5000’ 700- 5200’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

On a Simple Special Engine Failure procedure in IMC, when can radar vectors be accepted if available?

A

Simple Special departures are mandatory in IMC until 3000’or until radar vectors are provided. They are also mandatory in VMC to 1000’ AFE

34
Q

Is a Complex Special Engine Failure procedure mandatory in VMC conditions?

A

Yes complex departure procedures are mandatory in IMC and VMC conditions

35
Q

What are the memory items for a stab trim runaway in the CRJ 200?

A

CONTROL WHEEL………….ASSUME MANUAL CONTROL AND OVERRIDE RUNAWAY
BOTH STAB TRIM DISC…..PRESS, HOLD AND RELEASE
AIRPLANE CONTROL……..TRANSFER TO PILOT (LH) SIDE STAB CH 1 AND CH 2 HSTCU CIRCUIT
BREAKERS (2F5 AND 4A1)….OPEN

36
Q

What are the memory items for a double engine failure in the CRJ 700/900?

A
Continuous Ignition: ON
If engines continue to run-down (N2 less than 40%...thrust levers :shut off
ADG Manual deploy handle pull
STab trim channel 2 engage
Airspeed Above FL340 .7 mach
240 knots below FL 340
37
Q

What are the memory items for a stab trim runaway in the 7/9

A

Control wheel: assume manual control and override runaway

Stab Trim Disconnect

38
Q

What are the memory items for excessive asymmetry or loss of braking on landing?

A

Wheel brakes: release momentarily
Anti-Skid: off
Wheel Brakes: re-apply as required

39
Q

What are the memory items for a hot start, interrupted start, or N2 stagnation crj200

A

Affected thrust lever: shutoff
Ignition: off
Dry motor: until ITT reduced below 120C respecting starter time limit
Affected engine: stop

40
Q

What are the memory items for a no light off in teh CRJ 200

A

Affected thrust lever: shutoff
Ignition : off
Affected engine: stop

41
Q

What are the memory items for an L or R START ABORT message or HOT START in the CRJ 700/900?

A

Affected thrust lever: shutoff
Dry Motor: until 120 respecting starter time limit
Affected Engine: stop

42
Q

When conducting an evaluation to determine whether a return to gate, expedited deplaning or emergency evacuation is required, what PA announcement is made after the aircraft has come to a complete stop?

A

This is the captain, Remain seated.

43
Q

What crew actions are required when an unreliable airspeed indication is identified?

A

Autopilot: disengage
Disengage Flight Directors
Use standby instruments
Set pitch and power from QRH

44
Q

When are O2 masks required to be donned, 100 % selected and crew communication established?

A

FL250
Smoke fire fumes
Cab Altitude Warning

45
Q

Max takeoff weight CRJ 200

A

53,000

46
Q

Max takeoff weight CRJ 700

A

75,000

47
Q

Max Takeoff CRJ900

A

84,500

48
Q

Max landing crj200

A

47,000

49
Q

Max landing 700

A

67,000

50
Q

Max landing crj900

A

75,100

51
Q

Max operating altitudes

A

37,000

52
Q

With a 10 knot crosswind, what is the maximum N1 thrust setting allowed prior to releasing brakes for takeoff in the CRJ 700/900?

A

Apply maximum of 75% N1 before brakes released, then TOGA thrust. NML TAKEOFF PROCEDURE

53
Q

When are reduced thrust takeoffs prohibited?

A
Cowl and/or wing anti ice
Contaminated runways
tailwind greater than 5 knots
windshear warnings
anti-skid inop
takeoff behind heavy or larger
CRJ200 Flaps 8
54
Q

When is continuous ignition required ?

A

Takeoff and landings on contaminated runways
Takeoff with crosswind greater than 10 knots
Moderate or heavier rain
Moderate or heavier turbulence
Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms

55
Q

Max temperature for t/o and landing

A

ISA+35

56
Q

What is Vmo all airplanes?

A

335

57
Q

What is Mmo 700/900 rvsm?

A

700-.83

900-.82

58
Q

Vfo 20 CRJ200

A

200

59
Q

Vfe crj900

A

220

60
Q

Max flap extension altitude?

A

15,000

61
Q

Minimum spoiler speed crj200

A

approach speed +20

62
Q

Minimum spoiler speed 700/900

A

approach+10

63
Q

Minimum runway width

A

100’

64
Q

Max contamination depth wet snow crj200

A

1.5 inches

65
Q

Max apu start altitude crj200

A

30,000’

66
Q

Max apu start altitude 700/900

A

37,000

67
Q

Max bleed use altitude crj200

A

15,000

68
Q

Max apu door open speed APU not operating 700/900

A

220 knots

69
Q

Fuel capacity crj 200

A

14,518

70
Q

fuel capacity 700/900

A

19,594

71
Q

When can you takeoff with more than 500 pounds in the center tank?

A

Each main tank is above 4,400 or
Each wing tank is above 2,000 and
The allowable zero fuel weight is reduced by the weight of the fuel in the center tank in excess of 500 lb; and the allowable center of gravity (CG) in this configuration is verified to be within allowable CG envelope. This process is calculated and verified using the manifest application in FliteView. Refer to EFB Company Manuals > EFB > FliteView User Guide.

72
Q

Minimum reduced thrust setting 3B1 engines CRJ200

A

83.5

73
Q

Engine start duty cycles CRJ200

A

60 sec ON 10 sec OFF
60 sec ON 10 sec OFF
60 sec ON 5 min OFF
60 sec ON 5 min OFF

74
Q

Engine start duty cycles 700/900

A
90 sec ON 10 sec OFF 
             90 sec ON 10 sec OFF 
             90 sec ON 5 min OFF 
             90 sec ON 5 min OFF 
             90 sec ON 5 min OFF
75
Q

If the OAT is -15C and engine N2 is 57%, what action, if any, is required?

A

If N2 is ≤57% with the OAT of -20° C or greater, do not advance thrust levers above idle. Contact Maintenance.

76
Q

What is the Max ground idle N2 split?

A

Less than or equal to 2%

77
Q

Max single pack operating crj200

A

25,000’

78
Q

Max single pack CRJ700/900

A

31,000’

79
Q

What conditions require Cowl Anti-Ice for taxi in the CRJ 200?

A

When OAT is ≤10° and: Visible moisture is present, or Visibility is ≤1 mile, or When operating on surfaces where ice, snow, standing water or slush is present

80
Q

What conditions require Wing Anti-Ice for Taxi and takeoff in the CRJ 200?

A

TAXI When OAT ≤5°C, with or without visible moisture, and the aircraft has not been anti-iced with Type II or IV fluid: After the second engine start and at least two minutes prior to takeoff: ANTI-ICE – WING……NORM Takeoff
Takeoff when ≤OAT 5°C: Visible moisture in any form including any precipitation, fog, mist, or clouds < 400 feet AGL; or the runway is wet or contaminated: ANTI-ICE – WING……ON
ANTI-ICE - COWL LH / RH…..ON Check: – ED-2: WING A / ICE ON advisory message displayed prior to takeoff

81
Q

What requires wings on for 700/900 takeoff?

A

Less than or equal to 5 C
Visible moisture
Less than or equal to 1SM
Contaminated runway