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AQP > AQP oral > Flashcards

AQP oral Flashcards

1
Q

What does the AVAIL light mean?

A

AVAIL light means correct voltage, frequency, and phase.

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2
Q

What are the sources of AC power?

A
  • 2 engine driven generators
  • APU generator
  • 1 Air Driven Generator (ADG)
  • 1 AC external power plug in
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3
Q

What does the Generator Control Unit do?

A

Controls and monitors the generators, and provides protection and voltage regulation for each generator

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4
Q

What is the main battery rated to?

A

17 Amps 24 Volts

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5
Q

How long can the battery master be left on without another power source?

A

5 minutes

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6
Q

Why the 5 min limitation?

A

Because the ED1 and ED2 utilize AC cooling fans, and they will overheat

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7
Q

What is the IDG and what does it do?

A

The integrated drive generator converts variable N2 speed to a constant 12,000 RPM generator speed

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8
Q

What are the engine driven generators rated to?

A

40 KVA, 115 VAC, 400 Hz

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9
Q

What is the APU Generator rated to?

A

40 KVA, 115 VAC, 400 Hz

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10
Q

When would the ADG automatically deploy?

A

When the AC Bus 1 and AC Bus 2 lose power

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11
Q

What is the ADG rated to?

A

15 KVA, 115 VAC, and 400 Hz

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12
Q

What does the ADG power?

A
  • Ac ESS Bus
  • Hyd Pump 3B
  • Stab Trim ch 2
  • Flaps/Slats 1/2 speed
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13
Q

What would cause the FAULT light on the IDG to illuminate?

A

High oil temperature and/or Low oil pressure

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14
Q

What will cause the AC ESS XFER switch light to illuminate?

A

The AC ESS XFER switch will illuminate anytime the AC ESS Bus is not being powered by AC Bus 1

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15
Q

What is the priority for the AUTO XFER?

A
  • On side
  • APU
  • Off side
  • External Power
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16
Q

What would cause the FAIL light to illuminate on the AUTO XFER switch light?

A

The GCU has detected a bus fault or generator over current

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17
Q

What will happen when the LH/RH eng fire push switch lights are selected?

A
  • Fuel SOV closes
  • Hydraulic SOV closes
  • Bleed air SOV closes
  • IDGs are taken offline
  • Engine bottle squibs are armed
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18
Q

What happens if a crew member selects the L Hyd SOV?

A

The left Hyd SOV closes and the flow of hydraulic fluid is shutoff to the engine driven pump

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19
Q

The QRH asks the crew to verify that the SOV is closed, where is the L Hyd SOV located?

A

Picture

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20
Q

How many hydraulic systems does the CRJ900 have?

A

Hydraulic power is provided by 3 independent systems

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21
Q

What is the hydraulic system normal pressure?

A

3000 PSI

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22
Q

What is the normal hydraulic fluid quantity?

A

45-85%

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23
Q

During normal cruise, how many pumps would be operating?

A

3 hydraulic pumps

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24
Q

What would cause the back up (b) pumps to turn on?

A

Flaps greater than zero (0)

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25
Q

What lighting should be on when instructed to “line up and wait”?

A

All lights except landing and taxi

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26
Q

What would cause the boost pumps to automatically turn on?

A

Low fuel pressure at the main ejector

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27
Q

In AUTO mode, when would the system begin to transfer fuel?

A

When an imbalance of more than 200 lbs exists

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28
Q

When will the system stop transferring fuel?

A

When the fuel tanks are balanced plus 50 lbs

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29
Q

What would cause the GRAVITY XFLOW FAIL light to illuminate?

A

The gravity cross flow valve is in the uncommanded position

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30
Q

Can you identify the gravity cross flow valve?

Picture

A

Picture

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31
Q

How many fuel pumps does the CRJ have?

A

5 in total

  • 2 engine driven pumps
  • 2 boost pumps
  • 1 APU pump
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32
Q

What is the max fuel imbalance for takeoff?

A

300 lbs

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33
Q

What is the max fuel imbalance for all phases of flight?

A

800 lbs

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34
Q

What would cause the fuel SOV to close?

A

The engine fire push switch

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35
Q

After selecting the APU PWR FUEL switch, what must the crew observe prior to selecting the START/STOP switch?

A
  • APU SOV OPEN Status message
  • APU IN BITE Status message
  • APU RPM and EGT gages
  • APU DOOR OPEN message displayed
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36
Q

When will the APU AVAIL light illuminate?

A

At 99% RPM plus 2 seconds

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37
Q

What is the maximum altitude for operating APU?

A

FL410

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38
Q

What is the maximum altitude to start APU?

A

FL370

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39
Q

What is the maximum altitude on APU for bleed air extraction?

A

FL250

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40
Q

If the APU door position is unknown or OPEN with APU not operating, what airspeed is the crew restricted to?

A

220 kts

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41
Q

What APU exhaust hazard area exists for CRJ900?

A

No hazard due to the height of the exhaust

42
Q

Where does the APU receive its fuel from?

A

Left collector tank

43
Q

In the event that the APU pump fails, will the APU continue to operate?

A

Yes, if the APU pump fails, an internal bypass valve opens

44
Q

How much voltage must batteries have prior to start attempt?

A

22 volts on each

45
Q

If there is a fire in the APU, what prevents/contains the fire from spreading to other areas?

A

The APU is surrounded by a titanium fire proof container

46
Q

In the event of an emergency and the Crew is not present, how can the ground crew shut down the APU?

A

Red switch in ground crew panel

Picture

47
Q

What would happen if the APU caught fire and the aircraft was unattended?

A

The APU will automatically shutdown and the APU bottle will discharge after 5 seconds

48
Q

If the APU caught fire in the air, would the APU shutdown automatically?

A

The APU will shut down but the crew must discharge bottle

49
Q

What are the starter limitations for engines?

A
  • Attempts 1 & 2: 90 seconds on, 10 seconds off

- Attempts 3-5: 90 seconds on, 5 minutes off

50
Q

What are the HOT START memory items?

A

Affected thrust lever………………SHUT OFF
Dry motor………ITT below 120 or starter limit, whichever comes first
Affected engine STOP switch……………….STOP

51
Q

When must continuous ignition be used?

A
  • takeoff or landing on contaminated runway
  • flight through moderate or heavy rain
  • flight through moderate or heavy turbulence
  • flight in vicinity of thunderstorms
52
Q

How can the crew set GA thrust?

A

TOGA

53
Q

How can the crew set Max Continuous thrust?

A

CLIMB

54
Q

How can the crew set APR thrust?

A

MAX POWER

55
Q

What speed must thrust reverser be idle?

A

60 knots

56
Q

Why does the CRJ have the stowed thrust reverser limit?

A

FOD Ingestion hazard

57
Q

When do icing conditions exist on the ground?

A

OAT is 10 degrees Celsius or below AND visible moisture is present or surface contamination exists.

58
Q

What visibility value would be considered visible moisture?

A

1 statute mile or less

59
Q

When do icing conditions exist in the air?

A

TAT is 10 degrees Celsius or below AND visible moisture is present. Except when SAT IS -40 degrees Celsius or below

60
Q

What is bleed air used for in CRJ900?

A
  • Engine start
  • Anti-ice
  • Pressurization
  • Air conditioning
  • Avionics cooling
61
Q

What stage of the engine normally supplies bleed air?

A

The 6th stage is the normal source of bleed air

62
Q

What happens when there is a higher demand for bleed air than that stage is capable of producing?

A

When the demand exceeds the 6th stage capability, the HPV opens to supply 10th stage bleed air

63
Q

What PSI does the pressure regulating function limit the bleed air output to the packs?

A

Regulates the PSI to 45 PSI

64
Q

At what cabin altitude would we receive the CABIN altitude CAUTION?

A

> 8500 feet

65
Q

At what cabin altitude would we receive cabin altitude WARNING?

A

Audible “Cabin Pressure” and cabin altitude > 10,000 feet

66
Q

How can the crew manually decrease cabin altitude?

A
  • Select PRESS CONTROL to MAN
  • MAN ALT ON
  • Adjust MAN RATE to desired rate
67
Q

How many pressure controllers do we have?

A

2

68
Q

Do both pressure controllers operate at the same time?

A

No

69
Q

How does it determine which PC is used?

A

Weight on wheels plus 3 minutes

70
Q

When EMER DEPRESS is selected, what happens to the aircraft pressurization?

A

The aircraft will depressurize to 14,000 +/- 500 feet

71
Q

What would cause a pack fault?

A

Over temperature or over pressure

72
Q

What is the single pack limitation?

A

FL250 or FL310 depending on MEL

73
Q

What is the maximum altitude to select RAM AIR?

A

15,000 feet

74
Q

How can the crew manually cool down the cabin?

A
  • Press MAN

- Use switch to control hot/cold (no protection)

75
Q

When must the cargo COND AIR be selected ON?

A

When there are live animals in the cargo hold

76
Q

Which side of the mixing manifold does the RAM AIR supply air to?

A

RAM AIR provided Ram air to the right side of the mixing manifold

77
Q

Which of the cargo bays are pressurized?

A

Both forward and Aft cargo bays are pressurized

78
Q

Can we carry live animals in both cargo bays?

A

Live animals may only be carried in the aft cargo bay

79
Q

What is the aft cargo bay weight limit?

A

4,375 lbs

80
Q

What is the forward cargo limitation?

A

850 lbs

81
Q

What is the cargo floor loading limit?

A

75 lbs per square foot

82
Q

What can be done if an item exceeds this weight limitation?

A

Pallet the item

83
Q

If we are flying at 250 knots, temperature is 3 degrees Celsius, we are in the clouds, there is NO “ICE” annunciation; what should be on? Wings or Cowls?

A

Cowls

84
Q

What airspeed determines wing anti-ice usage?

A

230 knots

85
Q

Which hydraulic system is used for landing gear extension and retraction?

A

Hydraulic system 3

86
Q

Which hydraulic system is requested for alternate landing gear extension?

A

Hydraulic system 2

87
Q

What is the maximum speed for landing gear retraction?

A

200 knots

88
Q

What is the maximum speed for landing gear extension?

A

220 knots

89
Q

What is the maximum tire speed?

A

195 knots

90
Q

After type 4 fluid has been applied, if needed for taxi, what anti-ice system should be on?

A

Only cowls

91
Q

What are the affects of ice and front contamination?

A
  • increased weight
  • loss of lift
  • increased drag
  • loss of control
92
Q

If we are flying into uncontrolled airport during hours of darkness, how will we turn on runway lights?

A

Click mic 3 for low, 5 for medium, and 7 for high lights

93
Q

What is the lowest reported RVR required to initiate a Cat II approach?

A

1200 RVR

94
Q

When setting up for a Cat II approach, what is decision height determined by?

A

Radar Altimeter

95
Q

What is the lowest visibility required for TAKEOFF per Mesa Operations Specifications?

A

500 RVR

96
Q

What is the lowest visibility for First Officer to conduct a takeoff?

A

1 statute mile

97
Q

When is a destination alternate required?

A

If weather reports indicate:

  • 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA
  • Ceiling will be at least 2,000 AGL
  • Visibility must be at least 3 statute miles
98
Q

How many RVR reporting systems are required for a 500 RVR takeoff?

A

Minimum of 2 reporting systems

99
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind?

A

32 knots

100
Q

Is demonstrated crosswind a limitation?

A

No

101
Q

Maximum tailwind for takeoff?

A

10 knots

AQP (1 decks)

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