April 2021 moodle

Question 1

3. Engine 100, Engine 200, Engine 300, Ladder 222, Ladder 333, and Battalion 24 are assigned to a reported fire in a Private Dwelling. With the exception of Engine 100, which is staffed with 4 FFs, and Battalion 24, the other units are staffed with 5 FFs. Which choice is incorrect concerning the Safety Team prior to the arrival of the FAST Unit?

Select one:

a. If Engine 200 arrives alone, the Safety Team will consist of the Control FF and Door FF.
b. If the only units on scene are Engine 300 and Ladder 222, the Safety Team will consist of the Control FF from E-300 and the LCC from L-222.
c. If Ladder 333 arrives alone, the Safety Team will consist of the LCC and OV FF.
d. If Engine 100 arrives alone, no members may enter the building unless there is a known life hazard.
e. When Engine 200 arrives as the 2nd arriving Engine Company, the Safety Team will consist of the Backup and Control FFs from E-200.

Answer 1

(Ch. 1 Sec. 2.1.1)

The correct answer is: If Engine 100 arrives alone, no members may enter the building unless there is a known life hazard.

Question 2

5. The purpose of the FAST Unit is to be immediately available to assist a member who becomes trapped, distressed or involved in other serious life threatening situation. Which choice is correct concerning the FAST Unit?

Select one:

a. A Ladder Company staffed with 4 FFs shall not be assigned or deployed as a FAST Unit.
b. The FAST Unit shall report to and stage near the Incident Command Post (ICP), within verbal contact, at a position from which they can be readily deployed.
c. At a High Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwelling where the fire is above the 6th floor, the FAST Unit should report directly to the Fire Sector.
d. At a High Rise Office Building, the FAST Unit should report directly to the Fire Sector.

Answer 2

(Ch. 2 Sec. 2.2, 3.1, 3.2,)

The correct answer is: The FAST Unit shall report to and stage near the Incident Command Post (ICP), within verbal contact, at a position from which they can be readily deployed.

Question 3

3. Improper decontamination methods due to exposure to synthetic opioids can be found in which choice?

Select one:

a. Areas of direct skin contact should be immediately washed with copious amounts of water.
b. If exposure to synthetic opioids occurs during firefighting operations, the PPE should be washed with copious amounts of water, allowing the chemical to drip off.
c. Use of alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions must be avoided.
d. Shower immediately after a potentially exposure.

Answer 3

(HM 18 Sec. 5.1, 5.2)

The correct answer is: If exposure to synthetic opioids occurs during firefighting operations, the PPE should be washed with copious amounts of water, allowing the chemical to drip off.

Question 4

Storage System Container or Cabinet, they shall take several actions. Which one is incorrect?

Select one:

a. Establish an initial danger zone with a minimum radius of 50’ from cabinets and 100’ from the container exhaust opening.
b. Connect a supply line to the FDC and charge it.
c. Wait for Haz-Mat Units to exhaust the container and shut down the Energy Storage System.
d. Use a narrow fog stream to cool adjacent exposures.
e. Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 signal for a Haz-Mat Response.

Answer 4

HM 19 Sec. 5)

The correct answer is: Wait for Haz-Mat Units to exhaust the container and shut down the Energy Storage System.

Question 5

6. When a fire in a Lithium Ion Energy Storage System has been extinguished, members would be correct to take which action?

Select one:

a. Open the container/cabinet door after consultation with the Subject Matter Expert and the fire has been extinguished.
b. Enter the container to search for missing plant personnel.
c. Perform overhauling of the Energy Storage System to prevent a rekindle.
d. Consult with the NYCEM representative, who is usually the Subject Matter Expert.

Answer 5

(HM 19 Sec. 6)

The correct answer is: Open the container/cabinet door after consultation with the Subject Matter Expert and the fire has been extinguished.

Question 6

7. Some examples of Noteworthy Incidents include incidents with 2 or more 10-45 Code 1 patients, 3 or more 10-45 Code 2 patients or any fire/emergency involving possible child abuse. A Company Officer operating as a single unit at one of these events would be correct to take which action?

Select one:

a. Forward an email to the Battalion upon return to quarters.
b. Request the response of a Chief Officer.
c. Gather all details at the scene and notify the Department of Public Information upon return to quarters.
d. Forward an Unusual Occurrence Report upon return to quarters.

Answer 6

The correct answer is: Request the response of a Chief Officer.

Question 7

5. A CFR-D unit must transmit a signal 10-99 in all but which choice?

Select one:

a. A confirmed cardiac/respiratory arrest (Company performing CPR/defibrillation).
b. The Officer determines that the company will remain on the scene for 30 minutes or more.
c. After requesting an ETA for EMS, EMS reports no Units available.
d. Imminent child birth.

Answer 7

d. Imminent child birth.

Question 8

28. Both Lieutenants and Captains are responsible to ensure that the rules and regulations regarding the use of company quarters are enforced. A Captain explaining these rules to a newly promoted Lieutenant would be correct in which statement made?

Select one:

a. Designated female facilities (locker rooms and bathrooms) are for the exclusive use of female members. Other than for cleaning and maintenance, male members and all visitors shall not enter these facilities unless directed to do so by the Company Commander.
b. Visitors shall not be permitted to remain in quarters after 2100 hours.
c. When an officer is unsure as to whether any posted material violates the Department’s EEO or Anti-Hazing/ Bullying policies, the officer should promptly consult with the next level of command.
d. Doors, guards, and lights at pole hole openings shall be inspected daily and defects promptly reported.

Answer 8

(Regs 19 19.1.15, 19.2.1, 19.2.2,)

The correct answer is: Doors, guards, and lights at pole hole openings shall be inspected daily and defects promptly reported.

Question 9

23. Upper Manhattan units arrive on the scene of a fire on the top floor of a 4-story Brownstone. The 1st and 2nd arriving ladder companies would be correct to take all but which one action listed?

Select one:

a. The 1st LCC raised the aerial to the roof of the fire building for use by the Roof and OV firefighters.
b. The 1st OV proceeded to the roof with a Halligan, Flashlight, HT and saw.
c. The 1st Roof FF opened the returns while awaiting the arrival of the saw to the roof and vented the top floor windows from the roof level as directed by the ladder officer operating on the top floor.
d. The 2nd Roof FF proceeded to the roof with a saw and 6’ Halligan hook.

Answer 9

(FFP Brownstone 2.6)

The correct answer is: The 1st LCC raised the aerial to the roof of the fire building for use by the Roof and OV firefighters.

Question 10

4. A company officer should make an immediate telephone notification to BITS in which one of the following circumstances?

Select one:

a. Preference of charges against a member
b. Any instance of incompetence, such as repeated negligent of unsatisfactory performance of duties, so serious that the officer believes disciplinary charges are warranted.
c. The officer believes a firefighter filed a false claim that an off-duty injury occurred while on-duty.
d. An off-duty firefighter has been arrested for DWI.

Answer 10

The correct answer is: An off-duty firefighter has been arrested for DWI.

Question 11

13. At this fire, which engine company performed an incorrect action?

Select one:

a. The 1st engine stretched a 2 ½” line into the fire building
b. The 2nd line was stretched into the most severe exposure depending on life hazard and the location and severity of the fire
c. The 2nd engine immediately assisted the 1st engine with the initial line
d. The 3rd engine ensured the sprinkler system was supplied

Answer 11

The 1st two lines are stretched into the fire building for taxpayer STORE fires

The correct answer is: The 2nd line was stretched into the most severe exposure depending on life hazard and the location and severity of the fire

Question 12

20. On a cold windy night units in Coney Island are battling an upper floor fire in a fireproof multiple dwelling when the IC orders the deployment of a Window Blanket. With regards to the Window Blanket which statement is correct?

Select one:

a. Due to the length of the supporting straps, the blanket can be lowered from one, two or three floors above.
b. The officer of the blanket deploying unit will assign members to the floor below to secure the Fire Window Blanket.
c. The blanket is large enough to cover only one window. Two blankets may be deployed simultaneously if more than one window are affected.
d. The Squad Company will deliver their Window Blanket to the Incident Command Post upon arrival. Any unit may be used to deploy the blanket.

Answer 12

correct answer is: The officer of the blanket deploying unit will assign members to the floor below to secure the Fire Window Blanket.

Question 13

45. After operating at a small fire in a one story detached garage in the rear of a private dwelling, the home owner states to you that he was in the garage when he saw someone throw what appeared to be a Molotov Cocktail into the garage. The owner suffered a minor burn to his ankle and refused transport to the hospital after EMS bandaged the ankle and labeled him a Orange Tag patient. In this situation what signals should be transmitted to the dispatcher?

Select one:

a. 10-45 Code 2 and 10-41 Code 1
b. 10-45 Code 2 and 10-41 Code 4
c. 10-45 Code 3 and 10-41 Code 1
d. 10-45 Code 3 and 10-41 Code 4

Answer 13

The correct answer is: 10-45 Code 3 and 10-41 Code 1

Question 14

51. A 2nd Alarm has been transmitted for a confirmed leak from the Buckeye Pipeline alongside the Bay Ridge line of the Long Island Railroad, where Con Rail diesel trains transport freight. Which action taken at this incident would be correct?

Select one:

a. “Flag-Persons” must be positioned at least 500 feet on each side of the incident.
b. Ensure power removal to the tracks is requested through the Brooklyn Borough Dispatcher.
c. Shut the leaking valve by turning the valve 48 half turns clockwise.
d. Instruct the “Flag-Persons” to use their light, held chest high and moved in a horizontal motion of 5 feet to halt train traffic.

Answer 14

ct the “Flag-Persons” to use their light, held chest high and moved in a horizontal motion of 5 feet to halt train traffic.

Question 15

3. On a Tuesday 9x6 tour at 1100 hours you find a member of your company behaving in an unusual manner and you believe the member may be a danger to himself. In this situation you should make immediate telephone notifications to whom?

Select one:

a. The administrative Battalion and the Counseling Services Unit (CSU)
b. The administrative Battalion and the Bureau of Health Services (BHS)
c. BHS and CSU
d. FDOC and BHS

Answer 15

The correct answer is: The administrative Battalion and the Bureau of Health Services (BHS)

Question 16

61. Your engine company arrives at the scene of a 25-year-old female who is unconscious from a fall. After completing your initial assessment EMS is still not on scene. You should now contact the Fire Dispatcher to relay to EMS a report including all but which one of the following?

Select one:

a. The mechanism of injury
b. The patient’s CUPS Status
c. The patient’s age
d. The patient’s pulse and respiratory rate

Answer 16

a

Question 17

. Regarding the FDNY’s policy on Bereavement Leave, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Select one:

a. Bereavement Leave will be granted to a member in case of death to their spouse, parent, child, sibling, or the death of the spouse’s parent, child or sibling. Also, for the death of a relative residing in the member’s household.
b. Bereavement Leave may not be less than four calendar days.
c. Bereavement Leave will begin at 0900 hours following time of death.
d. Bereavement Leave shall consist of not more than two 15-hour tours or two 9-hour tours and one 15-hour tour. a

Answer 17

a

Question 18

The GasAlert Extreme is a pocket sized warning device issued to all units for monitoring CO gas in ambient air. Choose the correct statement about this tool.

Select one:

a. A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 10 PPM.
b. A visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration is given if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 35 PPM.
c. The low battery alarm consists of 1 beep (every 5 seconds), 1 flash (every 5 seconds) and a quick vibration (every 1 minute).
d. If marking the meter with the company ID, do not etch. Use a marker or sticker/tape.

Answer 18

low bat vibrates every min

Question 19

10. The ability to investigate reports and enforce this policy depends on the accuracy and specificity of the information provided. Which hazing/bullying reporting procedure below is described incorrectly?

Select one:

a. Employees have the option to submit a report anonymously to BITs or EEO.
b. Any incidents or allegations of hazing or bullying shall be reported by supervisory personnel, in writing, up the chain of command to the Chief of Operations.
c. Any report of hazing/bullying incident that would be considered a crime will be reported by the FDNY to the Department of Investigation.
d. Every officer and employee has the affirmative obligation to report directly and without delay to the Inspector General any and all information concerning conduct involving criminal activity.

Answer 19

(PAID 1-2013: 4.2, 4.4, 4.6)

The correct answer is: Any incidents or allegations of hazing or bullying shall be reported by supervisory personnel, in writing, up the chain of command to the Chief of Operations.

Question 20

4. A new concept introduced in the new ventilation bulletin is the “Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve” which differs from the “Modern Fire Behavior Curve” in the following ways. Which difference is described incorrectly?

Select one:

a. The fire will behave in the same way up until the Early Decay stage.
b. If there is no additional oxygen admitted to the heated atmosphere, the fire will stay in an Elongated Decay stage where firefighters can effectively extinguish the fire by denying the fire additional oxygen, thereby limiting fire growth and smoke production.
c. This Elongated Decay stage is maintained by firefighters by coordinating ventilation with the charging of the attack line.
d. By controlling, communicating and coordinating the fire attack, ventilation will occur, increasing the fire growth momentarily, which will be followed by suppression and extinguishment.

Answer 20

(Ventilation 2.4.7)

The correct answer is: This Elongated Decay stage is maintained by firefighters by coordinating ventilation with the charging of the attack line.

Question 21

10. Ventilation for extinguishment is the controlled and coordinated ventilation tactic which facilitates the engine company’s application of water on the seat of the fire. Which statement below describing this ventilation tactic is correct?

Select one:

a. This horizontal ventilation for extinguishment tactic only applies to the window(s) in the immediate fire area (fire compartment) and only for the member venting the immediate fire area.
b. This ventilation tactic requires venting the window(s) of the immediate fire area while the engine company is advancing the hose line into the fire building.
c. Before venting the windows, the member must communicate and coordinate with the ladder company officer inside the fire area to be vented unless they hear the engine officer transmit “we have water on the main body of fire.”
d. Once a member is in position on the exterior, perform a size-up, communicate the ventilation profile and await permission to vent from the IC.

Answer 21

(Ventilation 11.2, 11.4)

The correct answer is: This horizontal ventilation for extinguishment tactic only applies to the window(s) in the immediate fire area (fire compartment) and only for the member venting the immediate fire area.

Question 22

1. When a company officer completes an immediate CIDS entry for an imminently hazardous condition, which one of the following steps is correct?

Select one:

a. Fax a copy of the CD-201 through the chain of command to the Division.
b. An immediate entry of an imminently hazardous condition can be accomplished with the approval of the administrative Battalion Chief.
c. After submitting the CIDS entry, the company officer must phone and email the administrative BC to inform the chief of the pending immediate CIDS.
d. An immediate CIDS entry will always appear at the top of a units pending list and be in bold print.

Answer 22

(Communication Ch 4: 4.3.3)

The correct answer is: An immediate CIDS entry will always appear at the top of a units pending list and be in bold print.

Question 23

4. All units must maintain the proper equipment in the event it is needed at a fire operation. Which choice below is correct regarding hose issued to fire companies?

Select one:

a. Do not place a length of hose in service which is of doubtful strength because of cuts, chafed areas or other noticeable defects. If the serviceability of a length of hose is in doubt, immediately place it out of service.
b. Engine Companies shall carry not less than four lengths of 2 1/2-inch hose rolled or folded.
c. Engine Companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 1 3/4-inch hose (rolled or folded) and the necessary fittings to place a line into operation including (i.e. hydrant wrenches, reducers, nozzles, etc.). Additionally, each Engine Company shall ensure that an extra length of 1 3/4-inch hose with nozzle, rolled or folded, is stored on the apparatus.
d. No more than ten lengths of 1 3/4-inch hose shall be used as lead lengths in any hose stretch.

Answer 23

Eng 7 7.11.2, 7.12.3, 7.13.1)

The correct answer is: Engine Companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 1 3/4-inch hose (rolled or folded) and the necessary fittings to place a line into operation including (i.e. hydrant wrenches, reducers, nozzles, etc.). Additionally, each Engine Company shall ensure that an extra length of 1 3/4-inch hose with nozzle, rolled or folded, is stored on the apparatus.

Question 24

10. Alternate methods of stretching hoselines may prove beneficial at an operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

Select one:

a. For a fire escape stretch, the line must be secured with hose straps on alternate floors, beginning with the floor below the fire.
b. When considering hoisting a line via stair shaft windows using the utility rope, if fire is below the fourth floor, the line is stretched up the stairs.
c. At the lower floor window, lower the top sash, grab the rope and tie it to the nozzle. Hinged windows which open outward can prove difficult and similar windows on intermediate floors may have to be closed to prevent the line from getting hung up.
d. When hoisting a line via stair shaft windows using the utility rope, the officer proceeds to the floor below the fire with the rope, selects the window to be used, and communicates this information to the control firefighter. Remove the child guard if present, raise the lower sash and ensure that it stays open.

Answer 24

(Eng 8 8.15.3, 8.17.1, 8.17.3 8.18.2, 8.18.3, 8.18.5, 8.18.6)

The correct answer is: When considering hoisting a line via stair shaft windows using the utility rope, if fire is below the fourth floor, the line is stretched up the stairs.

Question 25

7. The first arriving Roof Firefighter has many responsibilities at an Old Law Tenement fire. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

Select one:

a. If difficulty is encountered opening the bulkhead door, vent the bulkhead skylight first. Pause after breaking the first pane, then warn units operating below by HT prior to breaking the remaining glass.
b. If the first arriving Ladder Company is a Tower Ladder, when necessary, the officer may request the Roof Firefighter to perform outside ventilation of the fire apartment from the fire escape after completion of preliminary roof ventilation (bulkhead, scuttle, and skylight). If VEIS is to be performed, he/she shall be teamed up with the second Roof Firefighter or another available member.
c. The Roof Firefighter’s priority access to the roof is the adjoining building, aerial ladder and rear fire escape.
d. The first arriving Roof Firefighter’s assigned tools include a Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan tool, 6‘Halligan Hook and Life Saving Rope.

Answer 25

(Lads 3 3.2.6, 3.3.5)

The correct answer is: If difficulty is encountered opening the bulkhead door, vent the bulkhead skylight first. Pause after breaking the first pane, then warn units operating below by HT prior to breaking the remaining glass.

Question 26

7. The first arriving Roof Firefighter has many responsibilities at an Old Law Tenement fire. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

Select one:

a. If difficulty is encountered opening the bulkhead door, vent the bulkhead skylight first. Pause after breaking the first pane, then warn units operating below by HT prior to breaking the remaining glass.
b. If the first arriving Ladder Company is a Tower Ladder, when necessary, the officer may request the Roof Firefighter to perform outside ventilation of the fire apartment from the fire escape after completion of preliminary roof ventilation (bulkhead, scuttle, and skylight). If VEIS is to be performed, he/she shall be teamed up with the second Roof Firefighter or another available member.
c. The Roof Firefighter’s priority access to the roof is the adjoining building, aerial ladder and rear fire escape.
d. The first arriving Roof Firefighter’s assigned tools include a Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan tool, 6‘Halligan Hook and Life Saving Rope.

Answer 26

The correct answer is: If difficulty is encountered opening the bulkhead door, vent the bulkhead skylight first. Pause after breaking the first pane, then warn units operating below by HT prior to breaking the remaining glass.

Question 27

9. The second arriving Ladder Company has an important role at an Old Law Tenement fire. Of the following choices, which is not entirely correct?

Select one:

a. When operating on the floors above the fire, members should force one or more doors on each floor to provide an area of refuge.
b. The second arriving Roof Firefighter is responsible for bringing a Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan and 6’ Hook. For top floor fires the saw and the Halligan are taken.
c. At a top floor/cockloft fire, depending on the severity of the fire condition, if difficulty is experienced when venting windows from the roof level, it may be necessary to cut a ventilation hole in the roof before completion of horizontal ventilation.
d. Prior to proceeding above the fire, the second arriving officer must ensure that the officers on the fire floor are made aware of this team’s intention, so that members operating above can be warned of any situation necessitating withdrawal.

Answer 27

(Lads 3 3.4.2, 3.4.7, 3.5.2 Notes)

The correct answer is: The second arriving Roof Firefighter is responsible for bringing a Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan and 6’ Hook. For top floor fires the saw and the Halligan are taken.

Question 28

3. Proper documentation is essential when reporting a collision/incident to the Department. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

Select one:

a. The original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104) is required when there is a collision resulting in death, personal injury, damage to over $10,000 to the property of all persons on scene, or if a dollar amount cannot be estimated. This is the express responsibility of the vehicle operator involved in the collision.
b. When required, the original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104) must be completed and sent to the NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 10 days, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision Recording Unit within 96 hours.
c. The CD-19 report shall be forwarded by the apparatus operator/officer within 96 hours of the apparatus collision/incident. If the officer or operator of the apparatus at the time of the collision/incident is injured, or there is no officer with the apparatus, another member at the scene shall gather the information required to fill out the CD-19. The CD-19 shall then be prepared by an officer assigned to the unit involved in the apparatus collision/incident.
d. The officer or operator of the apparatus at the time of the collision/incident shall prepare and forward, through the chain of command, a “Collision Packet” which should include: two copies of the completed CD-19; two copies of the MV-104, when required; and two copies of the Police accident report, when required.

Answer 28

B 56 10.1, 10.2, 12.1, Add 6 1.1)

The correct answer is: The original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104) is required when there is a collision resulting in death, personal injury, damage to over $10,000 to the property of all persons on scene, or if a dollar amount cannot be estimated. This is the express responsibility of the vehicle operator involved in the collision.

Question 29

4. Certain accidents are designated as “preventable” and officers will be held accountable when involved in a preventable accident. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy regarding this program?

Select one:

a. An officer involved in a third preventable collision in a 24-month period will result in a Supervisory Conference between the officer and a Chief Officer from the officer’s assigned Battalion.
b. An officer involved in a first preventable collision will be interviewed and counseled by a Chief Officer from the officer’s assigned Battalion.
c. Any collision involving double parked cars while the unit is in a non-response mode will result in a Supervisory Conference.
d. An officer involved in a second preventable collision in a 12-month period will result in a Supervisory Conference with a Chief Officer from the officer’s assigned Battalion.

Answer 29

The correct answer is: Engine Companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 1 3/4-inch hose (rolled or folded) and the necessary fittings to place a line into operation including (i.e. hydrant wrenches, reducers, nozzles, etc.). Additionally, each Engine Company shall ensure that an extra length of 1 3/4-inch hose with nozzle, rolled or folded, is stored on the apparatus.

Question 30

5. All collision/incident forms must be filled out properly. Of the following choices, which is not indicative of a properly submitted form?

Select one:

a. An additional CD-19 form will be required if a collision/incident involves more than one apparatus, more than one civilian vehicle or if more room is needed to list all vehicle occupants.
b. On the MV-104, if there are more than two drivers, vehicles, bicyclists, pedestrians or other pedestrians are involved in an accident, use additional forms.
c. For the purpose of the CD-19, a motorcycle is considered a bicycle; not a motor vehicle.
d. An additional CD-19 form will be required if a collision/incident involves more than two civilian pedestrians or bicyclists.

Answer 30

The correct answer is: For the purpose of the CD-19, a motorcycle is considered a bicycle; not a motor vehicle.

Question 31

4. Certain accidents are designated as “preventable” and officers will be held accountable when involved in a preventable accident. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy regarding this program?

Select one:

a. An officer involved in a third preventable collision in a 24-month period will result in a Supervisory Conference between the officer and a Chief Officer from the officer’s assigned Battalion.
b. An officer involved in a first preventable collision will be interviewed and counseled by a Chief Officer from the officer’s assigned Battalion.
c. Any collision involving double parked cars while the unit is in a non-response mode will result in a Supervisory Conference.
d. An officer involved in a second preventable collision in a 12-month period will result in a Supervisory Conference with a Chief Officer from the officer’s assigned Battalion.

Answer 31

(SB 56 Add 4 3)

The correct answer is: An officer involved in a third preventable collision in a 24-month period will result in a Supervis

Question 32

3. Proper documentation is essential when reporting a collision/incident to the Department. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

Select one:

a. The original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104) is required when there is a collision resulting in death, personal injury, damage to over $10,000 to the property of all persons on scene, or if a dollar amount cannot be estimated. This is the express responsibility of the vehicle operator involved in the collision.
b. When required, the original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104) must be completed and sent to the NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 10 days, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision Recording Unit within 96 hours.
c. The CD-19 report shall be forwarded by the apparatus operator/officer within 96 hours of the apparatus collision/incident. If the officer or operator of the apparatus at the time of the collision/incident is injured, or there is no officer with the apparatus, another member at the scene shall gather the information required to fill out the CD-19. The CD-19 shall then be prepared by an officer assigned to the unit involved in the apparatus collision/incident.
d. The officer or operator of the apparatus at the time of the collision/incident shall prepare and forward, through the chain of command, a “Collision Packet” which should include: two copies of the completed CD-19; two copies of the MV-104, when required; and two copies of the Police accident report, when required.

Answer 32

(SB 56 10.1, 10.2, 12.1, Add 6 1.1)

The correct answer is: The original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104) is required when there is a collision resulting in death, personal injury, damage to over $10,000 to the property of all persons on scene, or if a dollar amount cannot be estimated. This is the express responsibility of the vehicle operator involved in the collision.

Question 33

9. The second arriving Ladder Company has an important role at an Old Law Tenement fire. Of the following choices, which is not entirely correct?

Select one:

a. When operating on the floors above the fire, members should force one or more doors on each floor to provide an area of refuge.
b. The second arriving Roof Firefighter is responsible for bringing a Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan and 6’ Hook. For top floor fires the saw and the Halligan are taken.
c. At a top floor/cockloft fire, depending on the severity of the fire condition, if difficulty is experienced when venting windows from the roof level, it may be necessary to cut a ventilation hole in the roof before completion of horizontal ventilation.
d. Prior to proceeding above the fire, the second arriving officer must ensure that the officers on the fire floor are made aware of this team’s intention, so that members operating above can be warned of any situation necessitating withdrawal.

Answer 33

(Lads 3 3.4.2, 3.4.7, 3.5.2 Notes)

The correct answer is: The second arriving Roof Firefighter is responsible for bringing a Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan and 6’ Hook. For top floor fires the saw and the Halligan are taken.

Question 34

7. The first arriving Roof Firefighter has many responsibilities at an Old Law Tenement fire. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

Select one:

a. If difficulty is encountered opening the bulkhead door, vent the bulkhead skylight first. Pause after breaking the first pane, then warn units operating below by HT prior to breaking the remaining glass.
b. If the first arriving Ladder Company is a Tower Ladder, when necessary, the officer may request the Roof Firefighter to perform outside ventilation of the fire apartment from the fire escape after completion of preliminary roof ventilation (bulkhead, scuttle, and skylight). If VEIS is to be performed, he/she shall be teamed up with the second Roof Firefighter or another available member.
c. The Roof Firefighter’s priority access to the roof is the adjoining building, aerial ladder and rear fire escape.
d. The first arriving Roof Firefighter’s assigned tools include a Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan tool, 6‘Halligan Hook and Life Saving Rope.

Answer 34

(Lads 3 3.2.6, 3.3.5)

The correct answer is: If difficulty is encountered opening the bulkhead door, vent the bulkhead skylight first. Pause after breaking the first pane, then warn units operating below by HT prior to breaking the remaining glass.

Question 35

6. Which one of the following patients would be considered unstable?

Select one:

a. Severe pain in any area of the body
b. Inability to move any part of the body
c. Uncontrolled bleeding
d. Difficulty breathing

Answer 35

The correct answer is: Difficulty breathing

Question 36

8. Engine 21 responds to an EMS run for a “Major Injury” on the 5th floor. As you are arriving on scene you see an FDNY ambulance on scene. Once in the lobby the EMS members tell you they got it and don’t need help from Engine 21. Which signal should you transmit?

Select one:

a. 10-19, 10-37 Code 3
b. 10-31
c. 10-19, 10-37 Code 4
d. 10-91

Answer 36

The correct answer is: 10-19, 10-37 Code 4

Question 37

14. As an officer of a CFR-D engine you would know you must transmit a 10-99 in which of the following situations?

Select one:

a. Any situation where the unit will remain on the scene for 30 minutes or more.
b. Any CFR-D response where, in response to a request for an ETA for EMS from the Company at the scene, EMS reports the unit is delayed.
c. Any patient that is unstable or potentially unstable
d. Company performing CFR-D.

Answer 37

(CRF-D Chapter 2 3.19)

The correct answer is: Any situation where the unit will remain on the scene for 30 minutes or more.

Question 38

2. On a windy day in October members of Ladder 2 were discussing emergency operations at an unoccupied swinging scaffold incident. Which choice is the most correct?

Select one:

a. Locate windows nearest to the scaffold and have a member go on the scaffold to secure it.
b. Secure scaffold with utility ropes or other equipment to prevent movement.
c. Inspect interior of the building for damaged or loose building/scaffold material that may fall.
d. If it is determined that the scaffold needs to be dismantled it must be done from the exterior of the building.

Answer 38

The correct answer is: Secure scaffold with utility ropes or other equipment to prevent movement.

Question 39

5. Ladder 48 arrives second due for a fire on the top floor of a 6 story H-Type non-fireproof building. As Ladder 48’s inside team headed to their position they heard the first due Roof Firefighter give a report “There are PV arrays over the fire area, and we have heavy fire in the cockloft”. The IC transmits a 2nd alarm. Which actions taken were most correct?

Select one:

a. After the fire was extinguished Ladder 48 officer called for ventilation fans to facilitate the removal of smoke and heat from the top floor.
b. The prime focus of ladder company operation should be the removal of skylights and scuttles as well as vertical ventilation.
c. Members of Ladder 48 know the Incident Commander should delay overhaul until there is confirmation that the PV system has been physically removed.
d. Ladder company efforts inside the building should be directed toward opening walls and floors to define the boundaries of the fire.

Answer 39

The correct answer is: After the fire was extinguished Ladder 48 officer called for ventilation fans to facilitate the removal of smoke and heat from the top floor.

Question 40

12. After fire extinguishment, sequential ventilation can be initiated. This is accomplished by placing a fan at the base of the evacuation stairwell and pressurizing that stairwell. Which of the following tactics would be considered the most correct when using sequential ventilation?

Select one:

a. All stairwell doors should be closed except, the evacuation stairwell where the fan is blowing in, both the fire floor attack and evacuation stairwells doors and the attack stairwell bulkhead door.
b. Placement of the fan shall be on the interior of the building with exhaust hoses in place.
c. Electric fans can’t be used in this situation.
d. This ventilation can be carried out floor by floor if smoke or CO contamination occurs on multiple floors. Start at the highest point of contamination and work towards the top of the building.

Answer 40

(AUC 8.1, 8.2)

The correct answer is: All stairwell doors should be closed except, the evacuation stairwell where the fan is blowing in, both the fire floor attack and evacuation stairwells doors and the attack stairwell bulkhead door.

Question 41

13. Mechanical ventilation of structures can be accomplished in a relatively short time as compared to natural ventilation. The concept of creating a higher pressure that is inclined to move to a lower pressure, will allow for the controlled movement of air. Which statement below is incorrect when it comes to mechanical ventilation? (AUC 9.2, 9.3)

Select one:

a. The exhaust opening should be double the size of the opening where the PPF is placed.
b. After the fire is controlled, the exhaust opening should be as close to and as high up as possible to the seat of the fire.
c. The fan will be set back then the 6 to 8 feet. The angle of the fan will be at 30 degrees.
d. Fans blowing fresh exterior air into the structure have shown to be 75% more efficient then negative pressure ventilation.

Answer 41

The correct answer is: The fan will be set back then the 6 to 8 feet. The angle of the fan will be at 30 degrees.

Question 42

14. Which choice below is correct when using negative pressurization?

Select one:

a. Negative pressurization won’t be beneficial in below grade areas.
b. Alternate method, is to position the fan inside the contaminated area facing the exhaust opening 6 to 8 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 30 degree.
c. The box fan should be hung in a window or doorway as low as possible. Salvage tarps should be used to create a seal around the operating fan.
d. Negative pressurization is the process of creating a lower pressure within the structure utilizing the positive pressure fan

Answer 42

(AUC 349 10.1,10.2)

The correct answer is: Alternate method, is to position the fan inside the contaminated area facing the exhaust opening 6 to 8 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 30 degree.

Question 43

8. If either the nose cup assembly or voicemitter is found to be damaged or missing during inspection or at any other time, the facepiece shall be placed out of service and forwarded to the Mask Service Unit for repair. The officer on duty shall forward a letterhead report to the _____________ via the chain of command stating full particulars.

Select one:

a. Chief of Safety
b. Chief of Department
c. Chief of Operations
d. Chief of Mask Service Unit

Answer 43

The correct answer is: Chief of Operations

Question 44

12. The FAST PAK 20 ft. low pressure hose can be used where space is restricted or when access to the UAC is obstructed. The 20 ft. hose gives the member responsible for monitoring the air supply, a buffer zone, so they do not crowd the extrication area of the distressed member. The Low pressure line may be used in all of the following examples except?

Select one:

a. Replace member’s regulator with Fast Pak’s regulator
b. Replace low pressure Hansen Fitting of member’s SCBA with the high pressure UAC Fitting of the Fast Pak.
c. Replace member’s facepiece with Fast Pak facepiece with regulator attached.
d. Schrader Connection

Answer 44

The correct answer is: Replace low pressure Hansen Fitting of member’s SCBA with the high pressure UAC Fitting of the Fast Pak.

Question 45

13. Air Purifying Respirator (APR) provide a lower level of protection as compared to an SCBA respirator. Which choice is an incorrect use of the APR.

Select one:

a. Decontamination operations of a long duration where the filter will remove the known contaminants and atmospheric conditions are monitored.
b. Radiological incidents, non-fire related, where the isotope does not pose a chemical hazard or the chemical hazard can be filtered by the canister.
c. Long duration Carbon Monoxide incidents.
d. Confirmed or suspected biological incidents where continuous atmospheric monitoring is necessary.

Answer 45

The correct answer is: Long duration Carbon Monoxide incidents.

Question 46

4. Which of the below represent the most dangerous acute exposure faced by firefighters?

Select one:

a. Carbon monoxide
b. Nitrogen dioxide
c. Hydrogen Chloride
d. Sulfur dioxide

Answer 46

The correct answer is: Carbon monoxide

Question 47

6. You are responding as the FAST unit for a fire in the cellar of two story private dwelling. Once 10-84 you would know all to be correct about the Pak-Tracker except?

Select one:

a. FAST unit shall report in to the ICP with their assigned Pak-Tracker and bring it to their assigned position.
b. If the PASS activation is for a life threatening emergency the FAST unit officer shall immediately notify the IC with a “mayday” transmission”.
c. The FAST units Pak-Tracker must remain in the tracking mode near the FAST unit’s assigned position.
d. A member of the FAST unit other than the member monitoring EFAS shall monitor the Pak-Tracker.

Answer 47

.2, 4.3)

The correct answer is: The FAST units Pak-Tracker must remain in the tracking mode near the FAST unit’s assigned position.

Question 48

9. The 2008 NYC Building Code requires communication systems for all new R-2 buildings greater than 125 ft in height. From the choices below choose the correct point about new R-2 communication systems.

Select one:

a. There is one-way voice communication from the fire command center to all stairways and hallways.
b. There is one-way voice communication from the fire command center to all stairways and dwellings.
c. There is two-way voice communication from the fire command center to all stairways and hallways.
d. There is two-way voice communication from the fire command center to all stairways and dwellings.

Answer 48

er is: There is one-way voice communication from the fire command center to all stairways and dwellings.

Question 49

18. At a wind impacted fire when the door to the fire apartment is found closed on arrival and window failure has not occurred but size-up indicates there is a wind condition, Company Officers must prepare for wind to affect fire conditions. Prior to entry into the fire apartment all the following actions shall be implemented except.

Select one:

a. High Rise Nozzle ordered to point of operation upon arrival.
b. A Wind Control Device was in position above the fire apartment ready for immediate deployment.
c. The Ladder Officer and both members of the forcible entry team shall enter the fire apartment to perform a search. While the Engine officer stays at the fire apartment door inside the apartment making sure the door remains controlled in the closed position.
d. The hoseline was advanced to the fire apartment door and charged.

Answer 49

swer is: The Ladder Officer and both members of the forcible entry team shall enter the fire apartment to perform a search. While the Engine officer stays at the fire apartment door inside the apartment making sure the door remains controlled in the closed position.

Question 50

2. FF Bongino is a new Tower Ladder LCC and is driving on a 9x6 tour. After arriving at a small fire in a vacant rowframe he and the proby, who has the OV for the first time, are in the process of setting up the Tower Ladder. FF Bongino would be correct to tell the proby? (More than one correct)

Select one or more:

a. The preferred placement of manual pins for outriggers shall be at the highest hole available once extended. The preferred placement of manual pins for jacks shall be the lowest slot available once extended.
b. The joystick controls in the basket will allow for smoother positioning than the controls at the pedestal. For this reason, the basket firefighter should, in most cases, perform delicate movements.
c. The controls at the pedestal will allow for smoother positioning than the joystick controls in the bucket. For this reason, the pedestal firefighter should, in most cases, perform delicate movements.
d. The preferred placement of manual pins for outriggers shall be at the lowest hole available once extended. The preferred placement of manual pins for jacks shall be the highest slot available once extended.

Answer 50

(1.1, 1.2) The only exception to this is when the pedestal firefighters view is obstructed by smoke, the fire building, or cord reels.

The correct answers are: The preferred placement of manual pins for outriggers shall be at the lowest hole available once extended. The preferred placement of manual pins for jacks shall be the highest slot available once extended., The controls at the pedestal will allow for smoother positioning than the joystick controls in the bucket. For this reason, the pedestal firefighter should, in most cases, perform delicate movements.

Question 51

2. When operations with the tower ladder have concluded there are certain steps that must be taken by the members of the unit to ensure that the tower ladder is safe and ready for the next operation. Which point listed below is not correct?

Select one:

a. After fully retracting the jacks and outriggers the boom shall be re-bedded. The boom has a tendency to rise from the bedded position after the jacks and outriggers have been retracted.
b. When the apparatus is moving in reverse members can either walk alongside the tower ladder or adopt a flanking position to the rear where eye contact with the chauffeur can be maintained.
c. Outriggers should not be raised before verifying that the turntable platform arrow markings meet, thus ensuring that the tower ladder boom is parallel with the apparatus.
d. At the conclusion of operations, prior to raising the jacks and outriggers, chauffeurs shall personally verify that all manual pins have been removed. Members shall remain alert and stay clear of the immediate area surrounding the TL.

Answer 51

.9) Never walk alongside an apparatus moving in reverse. Instead adopt a flanking position to the rear where eye contact with the LCC can be maintained. Utilization of the apparatus buzzer located in the crew cab along with flashlights at night can be of great assistance.

The correct answer is: When the apparatus is moving in reverse members can either walk alongside the tower ladder or adopt a flanking position to the rear where eye contact with the chauffeur can be maintained.

Question 52

19. Large caliber outside streams generally should not be directed into occupied buildings; members must be warned and occupants should be removed before starting water. In some circumstances, however, fire conditions or a life hazard may demand such use. Which point below is not entirely correct?

Select one:

a. The application of a LCS downward into roof openings from an elevated position can be counterproductive. Operating the Tower Ladder stream into roof vent holes is generally ineffective and may result in a prolonged operation.
b. At H-Types with fire showing out windows in the front, courtyard and throat, the TL stream should be directed at the windows in the front first, then advanced toward the courtyard of the building, and finally operated into the throat.
c. Openings made in exterior walls or cornices will often permit stream penetration to the seat of the fire. Power tools should be utilized as necessary. Be aware that time lost breaching walls to reach the cockloft may lead to extension in exposures.
d. A street level attack at taxpayer fires using a LCS to penetrate the ceiling and collapse it, thereby exposing fire in the cockloft, enables the extinguishment of fire therein.
e. When the fire building is heavily involved or there are multiple floors of fire, LCS delivery should generally start at the lowest level and work upward.

Answer 52

At H-Types with fire showing out windows in the front, courtyard and throat, the TL stream should be directed at the windows in the throat first, then advanced toward the front of the building, and finally operated into the front windows.

The correct answer is: At H-Types with fire showing out windows in the front, courtyard and throat, the TL stream should be directed at the windows in the front first, then advanced toward the courtyard of the building, and finally operated into the throat.

Question 53

1. The advantage of an extension ladder is that its height can be adjusted for safe and accurate positioning. Choosing the precise ladder length is not as critical when using an extension ladder as it is when using a straight ladder which has a fixed length. From the following points listed below which are incorrect? (More than 1 incorrect).

Select one or more:

a. A simple formula used to obtain a 75 degree angle is to place the base of the ladder at a distance from the vertical plane equal to 1/3 the total working length of the ladder. The working length is the distance from the base of the ladder to the top of the ladder.
b. When placing a portable ladder alongside a fire escape on a building wall the tip shall be 1’ to 3’ above the fire escape railing. When placing a portable ladder against a fire escape the tip shall be slightly above the fire escape railing.
c. When positioning a portable ladder, a 65-75 degree angle allows the ladder to provide its maximum strength and best service.
d. When placing a portable ladder at a window the tip shall be level with window sill. When placing a portable ladder to the roof the tip shall be at least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.
e. Apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency should not be positioned closer than 35’ to the rear of another Ladder Co. This is to ensure that the 35’ portable ladder can be removed.

Answer 53

Section 7 20’ straight and/or 35’ extension ladders are carried in the internal slide-in racks on ladder company apparatus. If another apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency is positioned closer than 20’ to the rear of the ladder apparatus, the 20’ straight or the 35’ extension ladder cannot be removed from these racks due to insufficient clearance., To obtain a 75 degree angle, place the base of the ladder at a distance from the vertical plane equal to 1/4 the total working length of the ladder. The working length is the distance from the base to the top of its support.

The correct answers are: Apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency should not be positioned closer than 35’ to the rear of another Ladder Co. This is to ensure that the 35’ portable ladder can be removed., A simple formula used to obtain a 75 degree angle is to place the base of the ladder at a distance from the vertical plane equal to 1/3 the total working length of the ladder. The working length is the distance from the base of the ladder to the top of the ladder.

Question 54

8. Operating on portable ladders can be dangerous and must be done as safely as possible. Listed below are numerous points about safety when using portable ladders. Which point(s) are not correct?

Select one or more:

a. Both metal and, under certain conditions, wooden portable ladders can conduct electricity. Whenever a portable ladder is to be raised and transported in a vertical position, special care must be exercised near overhead electrical wires.
b. Depending upon the voltage in overhead wires, the proximity of a metal ladder to them, and the quality of the grounds (ladder and electrical circuit), it may not be necessary to actually touch the wires to suffer an electrical shock. Electrical current can arc and jump the distance between the ladder and the wires and cause death to an unsuspecting member.
c. Do not climb higher than the second rung from the top on either straight or extension ladders and resist the temptation to overreach.
d. When using a ladder for access to high places, it shall be securely lashed or otherwise fastened at the bottom lower section, to prevent slippage.
e. Ladders should never be placed against window panes, window sashes, or loose boxes, barrels, or other surfaces that may break or collapse. Always face the ladder when ascending or descending.

Answer 54

Do not climb higher than the third rung from the top on either straight or extension ladders., When using a ladder for access to high places, it shall be securely lashed or otherwise fastened at the top to prevent slippage.

The correct answers are: Do not climb higher than the second rung from the top on either straight or extension ladders and resist the temptation to overreach., When using a ladder for access to high places, it shall be securely lashed or otherwise fastened at the bottom lower section, to prevent slippage.

Question 55

11. Listed below are numerous points in regard to placing the aerial ladder in different situations that may be encountered at operations. Which points are correct? 1. - The recommended distance of the tip of the aerial ladder from the objective is 2” to 6”. 2. - In case of a rescue use the 2” positioning so that the ladder will rest against the window sill after weight is put on it. 3. - At a very extreme angle, such as placing the ladder to the roof of a seven story building, allow the ladder to barely touch the building. 4. - When positioning a ladder at a window the ladder tip should be less than 6” over the window sill. 5. - When people are on a fire escape place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2” away from face of building and about 1’ to 3’ above the balcony railing. 6. - For a narrow frontage building (30’ or less in width) with no people showing on arrival, position the turntable in the center of the building.

Select one:

a. Choices 2, 4, 6 are correct.
b. All incorrect.
c. Choices 2, 5, 6 are correct
d. All correct.
e. Choices 1, 3, 4 are correct.
f. Choices 1, 2, 3, 5 are Correct

Answer 55

The correct answer is: All correct.

Question 56

13. Members were discussing removal operations when using an aerial ladder for rescue purposes. Each member made the following points listed below. Please select the incorrect point?

Select one:

a. When descending at steeper angles, have the victim grasp the rungs. This will facilitate your control. Try to talk them into looking straight ahead or up and not down, as they might freeze on you.
b. If required, render first aid until relieved. Assist them to an ambulance if necessary. These actions shall not be taken if you are needed to assist in additional rescue operations.
c. Always carry small children down ladders. In any rescue effort, where the fire may endanger victims, members or the ladder, serious consideration should be given to protecting them by directing water between the fire and the ladder.
d. Removal is not considered complete until the victim has been assisted all the way to the ground. A victim can be left on the turntable if you are needed to assist in additional rescue operations.
e. To descend with an ambulatory victim, place yourself one rung below the rung the victim is standing on. Descend in unison, keep the victim between you and the ladder at all times, and maintain physical contact with them.

Answer 56

Removal is not considered complete until the victim has been assisted all the way to the ground. Do not leave them on the turntable.

The correct answer is: Removal is not considered complete until the victim has been assisted all the way to the ground. A victim can be left on the turntable if you are needed to assist in additional rescue operations.

Question 57

14. At vacant building fires, officers of aerial ladder companies shall consider the need for access and positioning of tower ladders in order to utilize their extinguishing capabilities. However, there are vacant building fires where the officer gives precedence to the positioning of their aerial apparatus. In which situation listed below would the Officer of an aerial ladder company give precedence to a tower ladder?

Select one:

a. In all of the above situations, the officer selects a position that permits achieving the intended objective while allowing for the placement and use of a tower ladder.
b. The Officer has prior knowledge that part of the building is used by vagrants or squatters.
c. The Officer receives information that part of the building is used by vagrants or squatters.
d. The reach of the 100’ aerial is required to expedite or execute certain tasks or assignments.
e. A building is completely vacant.

Answer 57

The correct answer is: A building is completely vacant.

Question 58

1. Lt. Smith is working a day tour in E99 when four of his members come into the office and tell him that they all have been injured while checking the rig just after the start of the tour. From the list below please choose the only correct answer regarding these members, their injuries, and medical leave status.

Select one:

a. The following shall not be classified as Minor Injuries: Burns, other than first degree. Chest pains. Sprains or strains, with swelling or discoloration. Any injury resulting in fainting, blackout, or loss of memory. Shortness of breath.
b. FF Jones has a small abrasion on his left arm and is required to be granted medical leave.
c. FF Smith has a very small first degree burn on his hand. He is required to be granted medical leave.
d. FF Jackson has a very small burn with a blister on his leg. He has been granted medical leave.
e. FF Baker had a foreign body in his eye and has already removed it. He is required to granted medical leave.

Answer 58

(SB7) A minor injury does not require the member to be granted the remainder of the tour or be granted a medical leave. Examples of some minor injuries include: Small abrasions, first degree burns, mild conjunctivitis, minor contusions, foreign body in eye, already removed, lacerations, not requiring sutures, and minor sprains and strains with no swelling or discoloration

The correct answer is: FF Jackson has a very small burn with a blister on his leg. He has been granted medical leave.

Question 59

2. The next day Lt. Smith was again working in E99 and during his tour his members had both biological and non-biological exposures on the four runs they had. Lt Smith would be correct to take which action listed below?

Select one:

a. FF Gooden was exposed to a possibly hazardous substance at a gas leak and a few minutes later he started to feel nauseous. Lt. Smith completed a biological exposure report and notified the medical officer.
b. FF Hernandez was exposed when a patient with a possible case of tuberculosis coughed on him at an EMS run. Lt. Smith completed a biological exposure report and did not notify the medical officer.
c. FF Wright was exposed to a patient’s blood after operating at a car accident. Lt. Smith completed a biological exposure report and notified the medical officer.
d. FF Strawberry was exposed to a non-biological hazardous substance at a haz mat incident and did not have any symptoms. Lt. Smith notified the medical officer and completed a biological exposure report.

Answer 59

7) Biological Exposures - A member exposed to blood borne, airborne, or other infectious pathogens (e.g., bodily fluids). Medical officer notification is required with or without symptoms. Non-Biological Exposures - A member exposed to a non-biological hazardous substance, or possible hazardous substance. Medical officer notification is required only for symptoms. Note: If a member exhibits symptoms from a biological or non-biological exposure, both an Injury and an Exposure Report must be completed.

The correct answer is: FF Wright was exposed to a patient’s blood after operating at a car accident. Lt. Smith completed a biological exposure report and notified the medical officer.

Question 60

6. During responses to routine assignments, members are constantly interacting with the public and may observe behavior or materials that indicate an attack in the planning stages. Listed below are “Indicators of Terroristic Surveillance”. Which one is not an indicator of terroristic surveillance?

Select one:

a. Multiple sightings of the same suspicious person, vehicle, or activity at different times or locations.
b. Prolonged or unusual interest in security measures.
c. A collection of maps, plans, or photographs of potential target locations.
d. Unattended bags, backpacks, or other parcels in unusual locations.
e. Questioning of security personnel.
f. Use of camera or video recorders beyond the interest of tourism.

Answer 60

UC 363) “Indicators of Terrorist Activity”.

The correct answer is: Unattended bags, backpacks, or other parcels in unusual locations.

Question 61

6. During responses to routine assignments, members are constantly interacting with the public and may observe behavior or materials that indicate an attack in the planning stages. Listed below are “Indicators of Terroristic Surveillance”. Which one is not an indicator of terroristic surveillance?

Select one:

a. Multiple sightings of the same suspicious person, vehicle, or activity at different times or locations.
b. Prolonged or unusual interest in security measures.
c. A collection of maps, plans, or photographs of potential target locations.
d. Unattended bags, backpacks, or other parcels in unusual locations.
e. Questioning of security personnel.
f. Use of camera or video recorders beyond the interest of tourism.

Answer 61

The correct answer is: Unattended bags, backpacks, or other parcels in unusual locations.

Question 62

9. Capt. Pence is working a 9x6 tour in E97 and is out on BI when one of his members tells him about possible terrorist activity in the bodega that they are in the process of inspecting. Capt. Pence enters the store and notices that there are unusual and out-of-place chemicals, surveillance equipment, and sees that there is a living quarters in the rear of the store. Capt. Pence should take all of the actions listed below except which one?

Select one:

a. Since the members suspected the owner of the bodega is engaging in terrorist activity; they did not confront that individual and they notified the NYPD in addition to the Bureau of Fire Investigation.
b. Capt. Pence used his cell phone to notify the borough dispatcher since this type of information should never be transmitted over the Department radio under any circumstances due to its sensitivity.
c. Capt. Pence sent the original SAR form through intra-departmental mail to the Bureau of Fire Investigation and the he made a phone notification to the Bureau of Fire Investigation.
d. Initially Capt. Pence was unsure of conditions encountered, so he requested a Battalion Chief to respond.

Answer 62

(AUC 363) Information regarding your suspicions should not be transmitted over the Department radio unless there is an immediate threat to member safety.

The correct answer is: Capt. Pence used his cell phone to notify the borough dispatcher since this type of information should never be transmitted over the Department radio under any circumstances due to its sensitivity.

Question 63

2. Members of Ladder 99 respond to a lot of elevator incidents since their response area has many high rise buildings. The senior man was giving the two probys working some tips to handle the different situations that may be encountered. In which piece of advice was the senior man mistaken?

Select one:

a. The first type of primary removal procedures checks whether simple electrical contacts might have been broken. However, if the passengers have activated the Emergency Stop Button, these methods will not work.
b. Summon an elevator mechanic if primary removal procedures fail. Telephone numbers of a mechanic are required to be posted in the machinery room near the elevator power switch. Secondary removal procedures may be initiated prior to the arrival of the mechanic.
c. The second type of primary removal procedure is activating fireman service if available. Fireman service will override the Emergency Stop Button.
d. Primary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the elevator power. The first type of primary removal procedure is the electrical contact check. This procedure should always be tried first.

Answer 63

rimary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the elevator power. There are two types of primary removal procedures. The order in which they are tried is not important. Try all if necessary.

The correct answer is: Primary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the elevator power. The first type of primary removal procedure is the electrical contact check. This procedure should always be tried first.

Question 64

5. Lt. Beck continued the discussion about elevators and stated that there are actually two times when members can restore power to an elevator car. Lt. Beck said: 1.-When there is a two speed system the power to the stuck car is shut off and then turned back on and if the car will restart it will do so within 10 seconds. If the elevator car does not restart the power should again be shut off. 2. - When attempting a side exit removal, members should bring the rescue car even with stuck elevator then remove power to rescue car. After passengers are removed and enter the rescue car restore power to the rescue car. The power in the stuck elevator car was previously removed. Do you __________ with Lt. Beck’s statements above?

Select one:

a. Disagree
b. Agree

Answer 64

The correct answer is: Agree

Question 65

Theft of property in connection with illegal entry of quarters must be reported immediately to the Police Department. If there is no illegal entry of quarters and a Department employee is suspected, immediately notify _________ and forward a report with full particulars to the Chief of Operations.

Select one:

a. The Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITS)
b. The Inspector General (IG)

Answer 65

The correct answer is: The Inspector General (IG)

Question 66

. When a unit’s Carbon Monoxide meter is defective (low battery, malfunction, etc.) whom should the officer on duty notify to arrange for an exchange?

Select one:

a. Tech Services
b. Haz-Mat Ops meter room
c. Their Battalion
d. Their Division

Answer 66

The correct answer is: Their Battalion

Question 67

211. Evacuating passengers via emergency exit stairs may be a viable choice in some Under River Rail operations, please choose the incorrect item to consider prior to using these stairs?

Select one:

a. Stairway configuration
b. 3rd Rail power
c. Depth of the stairway shaft
d. Smoke condition

Answer 67

The correct answer is: 3rd Rail power

Question 68

You are a Company Officer conducting drill on the 30-foot Vehicle Recovery Strap. You would be most correct to state that?

Select one:

a. A Safety Zone of at least 30 feet should be maintained while using the strap
b. Recovery from the rear is the preferred method of vehicle recovery
c. Vehicle recovery straps shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper
d. The maximum weight of the vehicle to be recovered shall not exceed 25,000 pounds

Answer 68

TB App C-2 Add 3 — 2.2, 3.1, 3.2, 5.7) Maximum weight of the vehicle to be recovered shall not exceed 20,000 lbs., Recovery from the Front is the preferred method for vehicle recovery, Maintain a 35’ safety zone due to the working length of the vehicle recovery strap.

The correct answer is: Vehicle recovery straps shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper

Question 69

8. The 200 foot tether rope is carried by?

Select one:

a. Only Water Safety Units
b. Only Water Rescue Units
c. Both Water Safety and Water Rescue Units

Answer 69

The correct answer is: Only Water Rescue Units

Question 70

12. As the initial IC on the scene of a water rescue incident, a Company Officer would be incorrect to think that?

Select one:

a. All members entering the water must have a Cold Water Suit or a Personal Flotation Device and shall be tethered
b. If there is a confirmed victim, the borough dispatcher must be notified
c. If there are multiple victims, additional Water Rescue Unit(s) shall be requested
d. Prior to entering the water, the rescuer and officer should gauge the direction and speed of the current and enter downstream

Answer 70

, 7.6) (Upstream)

The correct answer is: Prior to entering the water, the rescuer and officer should gauge the direction and speed of the current and enter downstream