Applied Head & Neck Flashcards

0
Q

What nerve supplies muscles of facial expression?

A

Facial nerve CNVII

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1
Q

Which pharyngeal arch do muscles of facial expression originate from?

A

2nd pharyngeal arch

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2
Q

What nerve is the second pharyngeal arch associated with?

A

Facial nerve CN VII

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3
Q

What are the muscles of facial expression?

A

Orbital group- orbicularis oculi, corrugator supercilii, depressor supercilii
Nasal group- nasalis, procerus, depressor septi nasi
Oral group- orbicularis oris, buccinator

Others
Lower group- depressor annuli oris, depressor labii inferioris, mentalis, Upper group- risorius, zygomatticus major and minor, levator labii superioris, levator labii superioris alaeque nasi, levator anguli oris

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4
Q

What is the action of the orbicularis oculi?

A

Orbital part- closes eye lid more forcefully

Palpebral part- closes eye lid

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5
Q

What is the action of corrugator supercilii?

A

Draws eyebrows together forming the vertical wrinkles at the bridge of the nose

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6
Q

What is the action of the depressor supercilii?

A

Depresses the eyebrow

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7
Q

What is the action of the nasalis?

A

Transverse- compresses the nares

Alar- opens nares

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8
Q

What is the action of procerus?

A

Pulls eyebrows down to produce transverse wrinkles over the nose

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9
Q

What is the action of depressor septor nasi?

A

Opens nares

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10
Q

What is the action of orbicularis oris?

A

Purses lips

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11
Q

What is the action of the buccinator?

A

Pulls cheek inwards against teeth preventing the accumulation of food in that area
Blows up cheeks

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12
Q

How may an individual with facial nerve palsy present as a result of the muscles of facial expression not functioning?

A

Cannot close eyelids - cornea dry out - exposure keratitis
Lower eyelid drops - ectropion - accumulation of lacrimal fluid in lower eyelid; it does not spread across the surface of the eye - failure to remove debris and ulceration of corneal surface
Difficulty eating - food collecting in space between cheeks and teeth
Tissue around cheeks and mouth sags - drawn across to opposite side while smiling

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13
Q

Which pharyngeal arch are the muscles of mastication derived from?

A

First pharyngeal arch

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14
Q

Which nerve supplies the muscles of mastication?

A

Mandibular nerve (branch of Trigeminal nerve CNV)

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15
Q

What nerve is the first pharyngeal arch associated with?

A

Mandibular nerve (branch of Trigeminal nerve CNV)

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16
Q

What are the muscles of mastication?

A

Masseter
Temporalis
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid

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17
Q

What is the action of the masseter muscles?

A

Elevates the mandible closing the jaw

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18
Q

What are the action of the Temporalis muscle?

A

Elevates the mandible closing the mouth

Retracting the mandible pulling jaw posteriorly

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19
Q

What is the action of the medial pterygoid muscle?

A

Elevates the mandible closing the mouth

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20
Q

What is the action of the lateral pterygoid?

A

Protracts the mandible, pushing the jaw forwards

Side to side movement of jaw

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21
Q

What are the extraocular muscles?

A

Levator palpebrae superioris
Recti muscles - superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus and lateral rectus
Oblique muscles - superior oblique and inferior oblique

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22
Q

What innervates levator palpebrae superioris?

A

Oculomotor nerve CNIII

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23
Q

What is the action of levator palpebrae superioris?

A

Elevates upper eyelid

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24
What innervates superior rectus, inferior rectus and medial rectus muscles?
Oculomotor nerve CNIII
25
What is the action of superior rectus?
Elevation of eyeball
26
What is the action of inferior rectus?
Depression of eyeball
27
What is the action of medial rectus?
Adducts eyeball
28
What is the innervation of the lateral rectus?
Abducens nerve CNVI
29
What is the action of the lateral rectus?
Abducts the eyeball
30
What is the innervation of superior oblique?
Trochlear nerve CNIV
31
What is the action of the superior oblique?
Depresses, abducts and medially rotates eyeball
32
What is the innervation of the inferior oblique?
Oculomotor nerve CNIII
33
What is the action of the inferior oblique?
Elevates, abducts and laterally rotates eyeball
34
Where is the Temporalis muscle found? What is it covered by and how is this clinically significant?
Temporal fossa in lateral skull Covered by a tough fascia Can be harvested surgically and used to repair a perforated tympanic membrane (myringoplasty)
35
What is the most common non traumatic cause of facial paralysis?
Inflammation of the facial nerve near its exit from the cranium at the stylomastoid foramen Inflammation causes oedema and compression of the nerve (Bells palsy) in the intracranial facial canal
36
What are three common causes of facial nerve palsy?
Inflammation of facial nerve near its exit from the cranium at the stylomastoid foramen (Bells palsy) due to infection Damage to superficial branches of facial nerve in wounds, cuts and in child birth Damage to parotid gland/ parotitis as facial nerve passes through the parotid gland
37
How may parotid gland disease present besides facial nerve palsy?
Pain in auricle of ear, external acoustic meatus, temporal region and TMJ
38
Where can the pulse of the facial artery be palpated?
As the artery winds around the inferior border of the mandible
39
Why must we compress more than one artery when the facial artery is lacerated?
As the facial artery has many anastamoses with other arteries of the face
40
What are the two main muscle groups found in the neck and what are they found in relation to?
Suprahyoid and infrahyoids | In relation to the hyoid bone
41
What is the main action of all the suprahyoid muscles?
Elevates the hyoid bone - initiating swallowing
42
What are the four suprahyoid muscles?
Stylohyoid Digastric Mylohyoid Geniohyoid
43
What nerve supplies Stylohyoid?
Facial nerve CNVII
44
What nerve supplies digastric?
Anterior belly- Trigeminal nerve CNV | Posterior belly- Facial nerve CNVII
45
What nerve supplies mylohyoid?
Trigeminal nerve CNV
46
What nerve supplies geniohyoid?
C1 roots that run with the hypoglossal nerve
47
What is the main action of the infrahyoids?
Depresses the hyoid bone (or thyroid cartilage- sternothyroid)
48
What are the four infrahyoids?
Sternohyoid Sternothyroid Omohyoid Thyrohyoid
49
What innervates sternohyoid?
Anterior rami of C1-C3 (ansa cervicalis branch)
50
What innervates sternothyroid?
Anterior rami of C1-C3 (ansa cervicalis branch)
51
What innervates omohyoid?
Anterior rami of C1-C3 (ansa cervicalis branch)
52
What innervates thyrohyoid?
Anterior ramis of C1 (with hypoglossal nerve)
53
What are the two main fascial layers of the neck?
Superficial cervical fascia | Deep cervical fascia
54
What does the superficial cervical fascia comprise of?
Skin and subcutaneous fat | Containing: cutaneous nerves, blood/lymphatic vessels, superficial lymph nodes, fat, platysma
55
What are the 3/4 layers of the deep cervical fascia?
Investing layer of fascia Prevertebral fascia Pretracheal fascia Carotid sheath (comprised of all three fascia above)
56
What is found contained within the investing layer of fascia?
Trapezius SCM Submandibular and parotid salivary glands
57
What is found contained within the prevertebral fascia?
Vertebra (base of skull to T2/3) | Muscles surrounding the vertebra
58
What is found contained within the pretracheal fascia?
Visceral part- Thyroid, oesophagus and trachea | Muscular part- muscles surrounding the visceral part
59
What is found contained within the carotid sheath fascia?
Common carotid artery Internal jugular vein Vagus nerve Deep cervical lymph nodes
60
What is the retropharyngeal space? And it's clinical significance?
Potential space between the pretracheal fascia and alar fascia Manifests in presence of retropharyngeal abscesses Extends down into mediastinum but not as low as prevertebral/ danger space- potential route of spread of infection to mediastinum
61
What is the prevertebral/ danger space? And it's clinical significance?
Potential space between the alar fascia and the prevertebral fascia Extends down into mediastinum lower than retropharyngeal space- potential route of spread of infection to mediastinum
62
What are the borders of the anterior triangle of the neck?
Medial - imaginary Sagittal line down the midline of the body Lateral - medial/ anterior border of SCM Superior - inferior border of mandible
63
What are the borders of the posterior triangle of the neck?
Medial/ anterior- lateral/ posterior border of SCM Lateral/posterior- anterior border of trapezius Inferior- middle 1/3 of clavicle
64
What four smaller triangles is the anterior triangle of the neck composed of?
Submandibular Su mental Carotid Muscular (omotracheal)
65
What are the boundaries of the submandibular triangle?
Superior- Inferior mandible Medial- Omohyoid Lateral- Posterior belly of digastric muscle
66
What is the contents of the submandibular triangle?
Submandibular gland Submandibular lymph nodes Hypoglossal and mylohyoid nerves Parts of facial artery and vein
67
What are the borders of the submental triangle?
Medial- midline of neck Lateral- omohyoid Inferior- Posterior belly of digastric muscle
68
What is the contents of the submental triangle?
Submental lymph nodes | Small veins which unite to form anterior jugular vein
69
What are the boundaries of the carotid triangle?
Superior- posterior belly of digastric muscle Medial- omohyoid Lateral- SCM
70
What is the contents of the carotid triangle?
``` Carotid sheath (CCA- bifurcation, IJV, deep cervical lymph nodes and vagus nerve) Thyroid Larynx Pharynx Hypoglossal nerve Spinal accessory nerve ```
71
What are the boundaries of the muscular triangle?
Medial- posterior belly of digastric muscle Lateral- omohyoid Inferior- SCM
72
What is the contents of the muscular triangle?
Sternohyoid Sternothyroid Thyroid Parathyroid
73
What two triangles is the posterior triangle of the neck made up of?
Occipital | Subclavian/ omoclavicular
74
What is the contents of the occipital triangle?
``` Spinal accessory nerve Trunks of brachial plexus Parts of EJV Posterior branches of cervical plexus Cervicodorsal trunk Cervical lymph nodes ```
75
What is the contents it the subclavian triangle?
Third part of subclavian artery Part if subclavian vein Suprascapular artery Supraclavicular lymph nodes
76
What type of bone is the skull?
Flat bone
77
Describe the composition of the skull bone?
Made from 22 discrete bones Bones joined by fibrous joints- sutures Trilaminar - inner and outer compact bone, with middle layer of spongy bone - diploe
78
What is the diploe? What is its function?
Spongy bone layer found in the middle of the trilaminar skull bone helps reduce the weight of the cranium- contains lots of bone marrow
79
What is the function of the skull?
Encloses and protects - brain and special sense organs (eyes, ears, vestibular, taste, olfaction) Creates a specialised environment - in which the brain thrives- cranial cavity Acts as a site of attachment of muscles and meninges (periosteal layer of dura mater)
80
What is the viscerocranium?
Facial bones - supports the soft tissues of the face and determine facial appearance
81
What is the neurocranium?
Superior aspect of the skull- encloses and protects the brain, meninges and cerebral Vasculature
82
What is fascia? What are its functions?
Connective tissue of the body- undifferentiated tissues of mesenchymal origin It has many functions - enveloping all organs - provides lining to organs - separates tissues of organs - provides slipperiness between tissues allowing them to move over one another
83
What bones are the neurocranium comprised of?
``` Frontal Occipital 2 Parietal 2 Sphenoid 2 Ethmoid 2 Temporal ```
84
What bones is the viscera cranium comprised of?
``` 2 Zygomatic 2 Lacrimal 2 Nasal Inferior nasal conchae Palatine 2 Maxilla Vomer Mandible ```
85
Where is the temporal bone found?
Lower lateral walls of the skull Contains middle and inner portions of ear and is crossed by majority of the cranial nerves Lower part articulates with mandible at TMJ Comprised of 5 parts
86
What are the 5 parts of the temporal bone?
``` Squamous Zygomatic process Tympanic Petromastoid Styloid process ```
87
Describe the squamous part of the temporal bone
Largest part, flat plate like superiorly located Outer facing surface is convex --> temporal fossa Lower part is the site of origin of the Temporalis muscle Articulates with sphenoid bone anteriorly and parietal bone laterally
88
Describe the zygomatic process of the temporal bone
Lower part of the squamous part of the temporal bone Projects anteriorly - articulating w/ temporal process of zygomatic bone -forms the zygomatic arch which is palpable as cheekbones One of the processes attachments to the temporal bone forms the articular tubercle - anterior boundary of mandibular fossa, part of TMJ Masseter muscles attaches some fibres to its lateral surface
89
Describe the tympanic part of the temporal bone
Inferior to the squamous part Anterior to Petromastoid part Surrounds external auditory opening - leads to external auditory meatus of the external ear
90
Describe the Petromastoid part of the temporal bone
Posterior most part Can be split into mastoid and petrous parts On lateral view- only mastoid part is visible MASTOID Mastoid process - inferior projection of bone palpable behind the ear/ SCM attachment Mastoid air cells- hollowed out area within the temporal bone; act as a reservoir of air - equalising pressure within the middle ear in case of auditory tube dysfunction PETROUS Pyramidal shape, base of temporal bone, contains inner ear
91
Describe the styloid process of the temporal bone
Located underneath opening to the auditory meatus | Attachment point for muscles and ligaments - e.g. Stylomandibular ligament of TMJ
92
What can happen in mastoiditis?
Mastoid air cells can become damaged and full of pus as middle ear infections can spread to the mastoid air cells and replicate This can thus spread to the mastoid process, middle cranial fossa and meninges causing meningitis Pus must be drained from the air cells - be careful not to damage the facial nerve
93
What are the main adult sutures found in the skull?
Coronal suture Sagittal suture Lambdoid suture
94
In neonates what are the names of the incompletely fused sutures joints?
Frontal / Bregma fontanelle | Occipital / Lambda fontanelle
95
What are the two main causes of cranial fractures?
Blunt force | Penetrating trauma
96
What are some obvious features of cranial fractures?
Visible injuries and bleeding
97
What are some subtle features of cranial fractures?
Clear fluid draining from ears and nose (CSF), poor balance, confusion, slurred speech, stiff neck
98
What areas of the skull are common to be fractured?
Pterion Anterior cranial fossa Middle cranial fossa Posterior cranial fossa
99
What is the Pterion?
H shaped junction between the temporal, parietal, frontal and sphenoid bones which forms the thinnest part of the skull
100
What is the anterior cranial fossa?
Depression of the skull formed by frontal, ethmoid and sphenoid bones
101
What is the ethmoid cranial fossa?
Depression formed by sphenoid, temporal and parietal bones
102
What is the posterior fossa?
Depression formed by squamous and mastoid temporal bone and occipital bone
103
What is an example of a facial fracture? How would an individual present?
Maxillofacial fracture/ Le Forts fracture - due to trauma with large amounts of force, affects maxilla bones Profuse bleeding, swelling, deformity, anaesthesia of skin, fracture of nasal bones
104
Describe a temporal bone fracture
Caused by a very strong blunt trauma Varied presentation - ear related disorders - vertigo or hearing loss Damage to facial nerve (as it travels throughout he temporal bone) - paralysis of muscles of facial expression Bruising around mastoid process Bleeding from ear
105
What are the main broad types of cranial fractures?
Simple- break in bone / no break in skin Linear- thin line with out splintering, depression or distortion of bone Depressed- bone pushed towards brain Compound- break in/ loss of skin, splintering of bone --> brain injury and bleeding
106
What is a basal skull fracture?
Affects the base of the skull Presents with bruising behind the ears - Battle's sign (mastoid ecchymosis) Presents with bruising around eyes - Raccoons eyes
107
What is a diastatic fracture?
Fracture along the suture line - widening of the suture | Most often in children
108
Describe three features of the typical vertebra of the cervical spine
C3- C6 Triangular vertebral foramen Bifid spinous processes Transverse foramina - give passage to vertebral artery, vein and sympathetic nerves
109
Which of the cervical spine vertebra are atypical?
C1, C2 and C7
110
Describe C1
Atlas No vertebral body No spinous process Articular facet anteriorly articulates with dens of the axis Lateral masses on either side of vertebral arch- attachment for transverse ligament of atlas Posterior arch- groove for vertebral artery and C1 spinal nerve
111
Describe C2
Axis Dens/ Odontoid process- extends superiorly from anterior portion of vertebra Articulates with articular facet of atlas Medial atlanto-axial joint- rotation of head independent of torso
112
Which joints are unique to the cervical spine?
Lateral atlanto-axial joint Medial atlanto-axial joint Atlanto-occipital joint
113
Which joints are present throughout the spine that are not unique to the cervical spine?
Joint of vertebral bodies | Vertebral arch joints
114
What ligaments are unique to the cervical spine?
Nuchae ligament - C7 upwards, continuation of supraspinous ligaments, attaches tips of spinous processes Transverse ligament of the atlas - attaches lateral masses of atlas- anchors dens in place
115
What ligaments are present throughout the spine, that are not unique to the cervical spine?
``` Interspinous ligament (adjacent spinous processes) Anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments (anterior and posterior vertebral bodies) Ligamentum flavum (adjacent laminae) ```
116
Where do the spinal nerves exit the cervical spine from?
Extend from above respective vertebrae through intervertebral foramen created by joints at articular processes C7 is an exception- has spinal nerves extending above (C7) and below (C8) So there are 8 cervical nerves with 7 cervical vertebra
117
Describe C7
Prominent spinous process, not bifid (easily palpable) Large transverse process Vertebral artery runs around vertebra instead of passing through transverse foramen
118
Describe a Jefferson fracture of the atlas bone
Vertical fall on extended neck (diving into shallow water) Compresses lateral masses of atlas between occipital condyles and atlas - fractures half of anterior or posterior arches Transverse ligament of atlas may also be damaged Unlikely C1 damage- as the vertebral foramen is large - but damage down the column is likely
119
Describe the hyperextension (whiplash) injury
Anterior longitudinal ligament damaged in minor injury Any cervical vertebrae can be fractures in severe injury Unlikely spinal nerve damage as vertebral foramen is large Worst case- subluxation/ dislocation of C2/C3 or C6/C7 Causes quadriplegia and death- affects phrenic nerve which supplies diaphragm- important in breathing
120
Describe hangmans fracture
Sudden deceleration Fracture of pars interarticularis (bony column between superior and inferior articular facets of axis (C2)) Lethal injury - fracture fragments/ force --> rupture spinal cord - deep unconsciousness, resp and cardiac failure and death
121
Describe fracture to the dens
In traffic collisions or falls High risk of avascular necrosis (isolation of distal fragment from any blood supply) Long healing time- may have spinal cord involvement (low risk)
122
What does potential space (as applied to fascial planes of the neck) indicate?
Adjacent fascial compartments of the neck are normally so close to one another as to be adherent And normally there are no anatomical spaces between tissues Blood from perforated vessels or pus from infections can collect in these potential spaces making them into actual spaces
123
Why is it important to know about the fascia in the neck?
Allows us to understand how infections or metastases may spread in the neck from one site to another
124
In new born babies how and why may the SCM become damaged?
In forceps delivery- compression damage of SCM or being pulled in a difficult birth
125
How may a baby with SCM damage present? What is this called?
Head will be slanted and rotated towards side of affected muscle - due to SCM being in a spasm This is called true torticollis
126
How may a baby with damage to the spinal accessory nerve present ?
Head rotated and tilted to normal side, due to unopposed action of functioning SCM muscle
127
What actions does the SCM do?
Rotation of the neck and tilting to the side
128
What nerve innervates the SCM?
Spinal accessory nerve CNXI
129
What action does the platysma do?
Grimace
130
What nerve innervates platysma?
Facial nerve CNVII
131
What action does the trapezius do?
Shrug
132
What innervates the trapezius?
Spinal accessory nerve CNVII
133
What consequence during may result from a relatively small mastoid process?
Mastoid air cells don't develop until the 2nd/3rd years- small mastoid process leaves facial nerve exposed as it leaves for the stylomastoid foramen- superficially placed nerve can be damaged in forceps delivery Children with significantly smaller mastoid cells are more often susceptible to complications of glue ear
134
What is the Antrum of the facial skeleton?
Maxillary sinus
135
What is Paget's disease and it's affect on the skull?
Rapid irregular and exaggerated reabsorption and replacement of bone, causing thickening, swelling and increased vascularity often with severe pain When skull is involved, it slowly enlarges Mandible and maxilla enlarge, maxilla at a faster rate so that adjustment of dentures occurs Teeth may become displaced and become fused with bone; oral surgery may become complicated by sever haemorrhage
136
Why may a fracture of the lower mandible cause numbness of the lower lip?
Fracture may easily involve the inferior alveolar nerve that lies within the bone. It's terminal branches exit the mandible via the mental foramen where they supply the mucous membrane of the lower lip and chin. The numbness is reminiscent of what happens following an inferior alveolar nerve block while undergoing dental treatment.
137
What's the difference between the retropharyngeal space and the prevertebral/ danger space?
Retropharyngeal space is anterior to the alar fascia and ends more superiorly than the prevertebral space The prevertebral space is posterior to the alar fascia and extends right the way down to the mediastinum
138
In what three ways can you treat a supra ventricular tachycardia? (SVT)
Carotid sinus massage- stimulates the spinal accessory nerve which has a reflex arc to the vagus nerve stimulating that- only on one side otherwise person may faint Cold water- dunk kids head in an ice bucket stimulating the vagus nerve Valsalver manoeuvre reflex-expirate against a closed glottis- blow into a syringe; increases intrathoracic pressure- increases blood flow to the area- stretches walls and baroreceptors and stimulates vagus nerve
139
What may cause facial nerve palsy?
Trauma and difficult birth Tumour Parotitis Infection in general- Bell's palsy
140
What are the three main types of haemorrhage in the head?
Extradural haematoma Subdural haematoma Subarachnoid haematoma
141
On which side of the body is the brachiocephalic trunk found?
Right
142
What are the divisions of the brachiocephalic trunk?
Right common carotid artery | Subclavian artery
143
What are the three main branches of the subclavian artery?
Thyrocervical trunk Vertebral arteries Internal thoracic artery
144
What does the subclavian artery continue as?
Axillary artery
145
What are the four main branches of the the thyrocervical trunk?
Suprascapular artery Ascending cervical artery Transverse cervical artery Inferior thyroid artery
146
At what level does the bifurcation of the brachiocephalic trunk occur?
At level of the sternoclavicular joint
147
How does the common carotid artery ascend up the neck? Does it give any branches?
Ascends laterally to the oesophagus and trachea and gives off NO branches in the neck
148
At what level does the bifurcation of the common carotid artery occur and in what region?
Superior margin of thyroid cartilage (C4) | Carotid triangle
149
What is the significance of the arteries in the carotid triangle?
Bifurcation of the CCA into ICA and ECA CCA and ICA are slightly dilated in this region- carotid sinus, has baroreceptors which detect changes in blood pressure here- carotid sinus massage Outside the arteries in the region, there are peripheral chemoreceptors which detect changes in pO2 of the blood
150
Which of ICA and ECA sits more anteriorly?
ECA
151
How do the vertebral arteries ascend through the neck into the head and what do they supply?
Arise from the subclavian arteries - medial to anterior scalene muscles Ascend up posterior neck through transverse foramina in cervical vertebra Enter the cranial cavity via foramen magnum / carotid canal Give rise to basilar arteries which supply the brain Give off no branches to the neck or extracranial structures)
152
What are the 6 branches of the external carotid artery?
``` Posterior auricular artery Lingual artery Occipital artery Ascending pharyngeal artery Facial artery Superior thyroid artery ```
153
What are the two terminal branches of ECA?
Superficial temporal artery | Maxillary artery
154
How does the ECA travel up the neck?
Travels up the neck posterior to the mandible and anterior to the lobule of the ear
155
Where does the ECA terminate and divide into its terminal branches?
Parotid gland
156
What does the ICA broadly supply?
Brain, eyes and forehead within the cranial cavity | Does not supply any structures in the neck
157
Where does the ICA enter the cranial cavity?
Via carotid canal in the petrous part of the temporal bone
158
What artery supplies the deep and superficial muscles/ structures of the face?
ECA via PLOAFS
159
What artery supplies the brain, eyes and forehead region (within the cranial cavity)?
Internal carotid artery
160
What are the two terminal branches of the ICA?
Superorbital artery | Supertrochlear artery
161
What artery supplies the neck?
Subclavian artery via thyrocervical trunk and 3 of its branches
162
What arteries supply the scalp?
Branches of ECA - posterior auricular, occipital, superficial temporal) Branches of ICA - superorbital and supertrochlear
163
What are the 5 layers of the scalp?
``` Skin Connective tissue Aponeurosis Loos connective tissue Periosteum ```
164
What arteries supply the thyroid gland?
Inferior thyroid artery from TCT | Superior thyroid from ECA
165
What supplies the posterior prevertebral muscles?
Inferior thyroid artery gives rise to the ascending cervical artery which supplies them
166
What supplies the trapezius and rhomboid muscles?
Transverse cervical artery from TCT
167
What supplies the posterior shoulder area?
Suprascapular artery
168
What is the consequence of having hypersensitive baroreceptors in the carotid triangle region?
In some people baroreceptors are hypersensitive to touch and stretch So when an external pressure is applied on the carotid sinus--> slowing HR and lowering BP occurs Brain therefore becomes under perfused And syncope can result Therefore it is not advised to check pulses at the carotid triangle
169
What artery supplies the skull and the dura mater?
ECA - maxillary artery - middle meningeal artery
170
In what injury can the middle meningeal artery be damaged? And what are the sequelae?
Fracture at the Pterion (weakest point)- completely lacerated MMA Blood collects between the dura mater and the skull Dangerous increase in intracranial pressure - extradural haematoma Symptoms of nausea, vomiting, seizures, bradycardia, limb weakness Treated by diuretics (minor) and draining burr holes (major)
171
When an artery supplying the scalp is damage why is there excessive bleeding?
Walls of arteries are tightly and closely bound to the undying connective tissue of the scalp- preventing them from constricting to limit blood loss following injury or laceration Numerous anastamoses formed by arteries produce a very densely vascularised area Deep lacerations can involve epicranial aponeurosis - worsened by opposing pulls of occipital and frontalis muscle
172
Describe atherosclerosis of the carotid arteries
Swelling and bifurcation of CCA produces turbulent blood flow in this region Increases the risk of atheroma (ICA more susceptible than others) Mild- headache, dizziness, muscular weakness Severe- stroke/ cerebral Ischaemia Doppler study- can assess the severity of the thickening Severe cases- artery opened and atheroma removed - CAROTID ENDATERECTOMY
173
What is a craniotomy?
Gain access to the cranial cavity - bone and scalp flax reflected inferiorly to preserve blood supply
174
Describe the venous drainage of the scalp and face
Face drained by superficial temporal and maxillary veins which drain into posterior auricular vein and retromandibular vein Posterior auricular vein and retromandibular veins unite to form EJV Receives tributary veins- posterior external jugular, transverse cervical and suprascapular veins Sigmoid sinus continues as IJV Receives tributary veins- facial, lingual, occipital, superior, middle thyroid veins draining blood from face, trachea, thyroid, oesophagus, larynx and neck muscles
175
Describe the course of EJV
EJV is a continuation to posterior auricular vein and retromandibular vein EJV descends down the neck within the superficial fascia Runs anterior to SCM crossing it in an oblique, posterior and inferior direction At the root of the neck the vein passes under clavicle Vein terminates by draining into the subclavian vein
176
Describe the course of the IJV
Begins in cranial cavity as a continuation of sigmoid sinus The initial part is dilated (superior bulb) Vein exits the skull via the jugular foramen and descends within the carotid sheath, deep to SCM and lateral to CCA At the bottom of the neck, posterior to sternal end of the clavicle - IJV combines with SCV to form the brachiocephalic vein End part is dilated (inferior bulb) - has a valve that stops the back flow of blood
177
Describe the venous drainage of the neck
Anterior jugular vein- drains anterior neck, communicates with jugular venous arch and descends down the midline of the neck into the subclavian artery
178
Describe venous drainage of the brain and meninges
Via dural venous sinuses which drain into the IJV
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What are dural venous sinuses?
Spaces between periosteal and meningeal layers of the dura mater - lined by endothelial cells They collect blood from veins that drain the brain and bony skull And drain into IJV
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How can the EJV be damaged?
Severance of the EJV EJV has a superficial course down the neck which makes it vulnerable to damage In a knife slash- lumen is opened and held open - due to a thick layer of investing fascia Air can be drawn into the veins producing cyanosis and stopping blood flow through the right atrium It can be a medical emergency managed by application of pressure to the wound, stopping bleeding and entry of air Air embolism
181
What is jugular venous pressure?
IJV can be observed for pulsations - estimates RA pressure When the heart contracts pressure wave passes upwards which can be observed No valves in the brachiocephalic trunk or subclavian vein and so pulsations are fairly accurate indication of RA pressure
182
What are the cavernous sinuses and where are they located?
Clinically important pair of dural sinuses, located next to the lateral aspect of the body of the sphenoid bone
183
Where does the cavernous sinuses originate from?
Sinus receives blood from the superior and inferior opthalmic veins, middle superficial cerebral veins and from the sphenoparietal sinus
184
What structures are found within the cavernous sinus?
ICA Abducens nerve (VI) In wall of sinus- oculomotor nerve (III), trochlear nerve (IV), opthalmic nerve (Vi) and maxillary nerve (Vii)
185
What is the problem if the cavernous sinus becomes infected?
Nerves are at risk of damage Facial vein is connected to the cavernous sinus via the superior opthalmic vein Facial vein is valveless so blood can reverse direction and flow from facial vein to cavernous sinus - providing a potential route of infection spread
186
What are the 6 extracranial branches of the facial nerve?
``` Temporal nerve Zygomatic nerve Buccal nerve Mandibular nerve Cervical nerve Posterior auricular nerve ```
187
Describe the venous drainage of the scalp
Superficial temporal, occipital, posterior auricular, superorbital and supertrochlear veins 1) Drain into angular vein at medial angle of the eye and then into the facial vein OR 2) Drain via the emissary veins into diploid veins of skull into dural venous sinuses (between periosteal and meningeal layers of dura)
188
Describe the venous drainage of the face
Facial and superior opthalmic vein Drain into the cavernous sinus at the medial angle of the eye Deep facial veins which drain into the pterygoid plexus
189
What are the 8 main lymph nodes of the head?
``` Occipital nodes Posterior auricular nodes Anterior auricular nodes Parotid nodes Facial nodes Deep facial nodes Lingual nodes Retropharyngeal nodes ```
190
What are the main 6 lymph nodes of the neck?
``` Submaxillary nodes Submental nodes Anterior cervical nodes Deep cervical nodes (superior and inferior) Superficial cervical ```
191
Where do 6 of the lymph nodes of the head drain to?
Occipital, posterior auricular, anterior auricular, parotid, deep facial and retropharyngeal nodes drain to the superior deep cervical nodes Then to inferior deep cervical nodes Jugular trunk
192
Where do the facial nodes of the head drain to in the neck?
Into the submaxillary nodes Then to superior deep cervical nodes Then to inferior deep cervical nodes Jugular trunk
193
Where do the submental nodes of the neck drain to?
To the Submaxillary nodes Then to the superior deep cervical nodes Then to inferior deep cervical nodes Jugular trunk
194
Where do the superficial cervical nodes in the neck drain to?
Superficial cervical nodes drain to the superior deep cervical nodes Then to inferior deep cervical nodes Jugular trunk
195
Where do all lymph nodes from the head and neck eventually drain to?
Jugular trunk
196
What two ducts does the jugular trunk drain to?
Right lymphatic duct And Thoracic duct
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What is an example of a superior deep cervical node
Jugulodigastric node or tomsillar node | - found in the angle between the lower body of the mandible and anterior border of SCM
198
What is an example of an inferior deep cervical node?
Juguloomohyoid node or lingual node | - found in angle between SCM and clavicle
199
What is the lymphatic tree hierarchy?
``` Lymphatic capillary --> Lymphatic vessel --> Lymph node --> Lymphatic vessel --> Lymphatic trunk --> Collecting duct --> Subclavian vein ```
200
Where do the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct drain into?
Subclavian vein
201
Which part of body does the right lymphatic duct drain?
Right half of the head, the neck, the trunk of the body and the right upper limb
202
Which part of body does the thoracic duct drain?
Left half of the head, the neck, the trunk of the body, the left upper limb and both left and right lower limbs
203
What are two broad categories of nerves?
Spinal nerves & Cranial nerves
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Briefly describe spinal nerves (have been covered previously)
Issued from the spinal cord There are 31 pairs Supply: - general motor function to rest of the body - general sensation to rest of the body - autonomic functions to the rest of the body -* NONE HAVE SPECIAL SENSE FUNCTIONS
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What are dermomyotomes?
Embryonic precursors of skin and muscle units Each one eventually differentiates into skin and muscle in the adult Develop in relation to a specific neural level of the embryonic neural tube tissue that will become the adult spinal cord Differentiated skin and muscle units of a dermomyotome will always have a common source of neural supply
206
What are cranial nerves?
Issued from the brain 12 pairs - largely bilaterally symmetrical All axons apart from 2 lie in the PNS - 2 are atypical - they are the brain tracts and not nerves Supply largely the head and neck region - muscles (efferent), viscera (afferent and efferent), general sensation (afferent) and special sense organs (afferent) Exit brain from its inferior surface apart from one Short sections attaching the nerve to the brain are found within the cranium
207
Describe the foramina of the cranium
They are holes in the base of the cranium though which nerves and blood vessels pass Due to them being large- reduce the mass of the cranium, making it lighter; make the skull base physically weak Trauma to the skull often leads to fractures at the base Nerves can be compressed as they pass through the foramina Peripheral nerve diseases and metastases can pass to the brain via the foramina
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Cranial nerve I
Olfactory nerve (not a true nerve- it's a brain tract) Sensory Subserves sense of smell Derived from prosencephalon
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How is the CNI tested for?
Using smelling salts (coffee, peppermint, vanilla) can be used to reboot the brain after loss of consciousness Some hallucinations involve sensation of smell without sensory source Smell tested from each nostril separately
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What is anosmia?
Loss of sense of smell
211
Cranial nerve II
Optic nerve Sensory Subserves sense of vision Derived from diencephalon
212
How is CNII tested for?
Examination - apparatus of eye itself- fundoscopy, visual acuity, colour vision - reflexes of pupils - connection of retina (eye) to visual cortex Assessing visual field defects, early signs of meningitis, tumour of hypothalamus (disturbance of vision)
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Cranial nerve III
Oculomotor nerve Mixed nerve- somatic MOTOR (levator palpebrae superioris muscle of upper eyelid and all extra ocular muscles except superior oblique and lateral rectus); autonomic PS (constrictor pupillae of eye); autonomic S (dilator pupillae of eye) Subserves movement of eye Derived from mid brain
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How is CNIII tested for?
Patient asked to look upwards- test elevation of eyelid Patient asked to look at finger as it moves in Gearbox shape (test for adduction, abduction, elevation and depression) Shining light in patients eye- should constrict Shielding light from patients eye- should dilate
215
What is ptosis?
Droopy eyelid- seen in patients with damage to CNIII
216
How would a patient with CNIII damage present?
Eye would be down and out at rest Eye would be drooping Pupil would be dilated
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Cranial nerve IV
Trochlear nerve Motor Subserves superior oblique muscle only Derived from dorsal aspect of midbrain- pons
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How is CNIV tested for?
Ask patient to look downwards and inwards
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How would patient with CNIV damage present?
Patient would look medially and upwards as they would get double vision upon looking downwards and inwards - diplopia In particular patient would get double vision when going down stairs
220
Cranial nerve V
Trigeminal nerve Largest cranial nerve in the body Mixed - 3 divisions: - Vi- Opthalmic- Sensory- supplies scalp forehead, dorsum of nose and upper eyelid and sensations of the eye (cornea and conjunctiva) - Vii- Maxillary- Sensory- supplies lower eyelid, cheek, upper lip, mucosa of nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses and lining of palate and toots of upper teeth - Viii- Mandibular- Mixed- Sensory and Motor- skin of temples, cheek, chin, mucosa of inner cheek, anterior 2/3s of tongue and roots of lower teeth muscles of mastication - opening (medial pterygoids and anterior digastric) and closing (Temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids) Derived from pons
221
How is CNVi tested for? | Presentation if damaged?
Responsiveness of skin and forehead- soft and sharp touch | Defective corneal reflex - neither eyelid blinks
222
How is CNVii tested for? | Presentation if damaged?
Responsiveness of cheek skin to soft and sharp touch (rest of sensory supply not routinely tested)
223
How is CNViii tested for? | Presentation if damaged?
Responsiveness to skin of cheek side and over the chin General sensation in front of the tongue - lingual nerve Strength of masseter and pterygoids
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Cranial nerve VI
Abducent nerve Motor Supplies lateral rectus muscle only Derived from medulla pontine junction
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How is CNVI tested for? | Presentation if damaged?
Tested with CNIII by asking patient to follow finger making a gearbox shape in the air Patient unable to look outward - squint on looking outward Therefore liable to damage in cases of raised intracranial pressure
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Cranial nerve VII
Facial nerve Mixed nerve: - Facial nerve - Motor (muscles of facial expression) - Nervus intermedius - Sensory (general sensation of concha of auricle and behind ear and taste in anterior 2/3 via chorda tympanii) - Part of Nervus intermedius and Greater Petrosal Nerve- Autonomic (glands- lacrimal, submandibular, sublingual) (mucous membranes- nasopharynx, paranasal sinuses, hard and soft palate) Derived from medulla pontine junction
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``` How CNVII (facial nerve) tested for? Presentation if damaged? ```
Raise eyebrows Shut your eyes as tight as possible I'm going to try and open them, don't let me Puff out cheeks; Don't let me squeeze them Big smile Loss of facial expression Loss of sphincter function Loss of nasolabial fold Loss of taste in anterior 2/3 of tongue on salivation and lacrimation
228
Bell's palsy vs facial nerve palsy
Bell's palsy- strangulation of nerve in petrous part of temporal bone - loss of muscles of facial expression and altered sensation Facial nerve palsy- strangulation outside cranial cavity - only loss of muscles of facial expression
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Cranial nerve VIII
Vestibulocochlear nerve - vestibular nerve (balance) and cochlear nerve (hearing) Sensory Derived from medulla pontine junction
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How is CNVIII tested for? | Presentation if damaged?
Simple tests of hearing- whisper something in ear and ask them to repeat it Rinne's test and Weber's test- used to differentiate type of deafness (below) (Cannot isolate cochlear in terms of balance tests as many other parts of the brain contribute to balance such as cerebellum) Loss of balance, vertigo, nausea, nystagmus, impairment of caloric response (don't compare with cerebellar damage- stroke) Deafness: sensorineural (nerve) conductive (blockage)
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Cranial nerve IX?
Glossopharyngeal nerve Mixed: - motor - branchiomotor- stylopharyngeus - visceromotor/ autonomic/ PSNS- (parotid gland) - sensory- visceral sensory (carotid body and sinus), pharynx and middle ear - special sensory- posterior 1/3 of tongue
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How is CNIX tested for? | Presentation if damaged?
Swallowing reflex- ask patient to drink some water Gag reflex/ pharyngeal reflex - consists of reflex pharyngeal constriction when back wall of oropharynx is touched by non food substances Loss if taste in posterior 1/3 tongue Lack of salivation (parotid gland)
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Cranial nerve X
Vagus nerve Mixed nerve: - motor - intrinsic muscles of larynx and pharynx, muscles of palate, smooth muscle of bronchi and digestive tract, secretomotor- thoracic and abdominal viscera - sensory - external ear, auditory canal and ear drum, pharynx and larynx, visceral sensation- thorax and abdomen Derived from medulla
234
How is CNX tested for? | Presentation if damaged?
``` Check phonation, cough Ask them to drink a drink Sing in high pitched voice Inspect soft palate and uvula (any deviation) Gag reflex ``` Right recurrent laryngeal nerve damage - vocal cord on that side slightly adducted - hoarse voice, weak cough and risk of aspiration of fluids Left recurrent laryngeal nerve damage - in bronchial or oesophageal carcinoma/ enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes or aortic arch
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Cranial nerve XI
Accessory nerve (anatomically has 2 divisions) Combined divisions exit brain via jugular foramen Motor Subserves sternocleidomastoid and trapezius Derived from spinal cord
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How is CNXI tested for? | Presentation if damaged?
Shrug shoulders I'm going to push them down resist it Rotate your head and I'm going to push it, resist it Inspect for wasting SCM and trapezius Compare 2 sides Patient will find it difficult to rotate head and shrug shoulder on affected side
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Cranial nerve XII
Hypoglossal nerve Motor Supplies muscles of tongue Derived from Medulla
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How is CNXII tested for?
Stick tongue out, wiggle it from side to side, inspect tongue for wasting and fasisculation Any deviation? Able to wiggle it? Damage- dysarthria Lower motor neurone lesions - tongue deviates to side of weakness
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What are the 4 general classes of spinal nerves?
General somatic afferents (general sensation) General visceral afferents (visceral sensation) General somatic efferents (supply skeletal muscle) General autonomic efferents (autonomic fibres innervating visceral structures)
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What are the classes of cranial nerves?
Those of spinal nerves: General somatic afferents (general sensation) General visceral afferents (visceral sensation) General somatic efferents (supply skeletal muscle) General autonomic efferents (autonomic fibres innervating visceral structures) And Special visceral efferents (muscles derived from branchial arches CNV, VII, IX, X) Special somatic afferents- equilibration, sight and hearing Special visceral afferents- taste
241
What is the parasympathetic outflow from the brain and spinal cord?
Craniosacral outflow | CNIII,VII, IX, X (only CNS with autonomic supply) and S2,S3 and S4
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What are the 4 cranial nerves involved in the parasympathetic nervous system?
CNIII - oculomotor CNVII - facial CNIX glossopharyngeal CNX - vagus
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What is the nucleus of the oculomotor nerve (CNIII) in PSNS outflow?
Edinger Westphal nucleus
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What is the preganglionic arrangement of the PSNS outflow from oculomotor nerve (CNIII)?
Travels within the motor root of the oculomotor nerve
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What is the ganglion of the oculomotor nerve (CNIII) in PSNS outflow?
Ciliary ganglion
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What is the postganglionic arrangement of the PSNS outflow from oculomotor nerve (CNIII)? And the target organ?
Travels via short ciliary nerves to target: | - Spinchter pupillae and ciliary muscles
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What is the nucleus of the facial nerve (CNVII) in PSNS outflow?
Superior salivatory nucleus
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What is the preganglionic arrangement of the PSNS outflow from facial nerve (CNVII)?
Travels within the greater petrosal nerve and nerve to pterygoid canal Or Travels within chorda tympanii a branch of facial nerve
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What is the ganglion of the facial nerve (CNVII) in PSNS outflow?
Ptergyopalantine ganglion Or Submandibular ganglion
250
What is the postganglionic arrangement of the PSNS outflow from facial nerve (CNVII)? And the target organ?
Hitchhikes on branches of the maxillary nerve to lacrimal glands, nasopharynx, palate and nasal cavity Or Fibres travel directly to target organs - submandibular and sublingual glands
251
What is the nucleus of the Glossopharyngeal nerve (CNIX) in PSNS outflow?
Inferior salivatory nucleus
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What is the preganglionic arrangement of the PSNS outflow from glossopharyngeal nerve (CNIX)?
Travels within the lesser petrosal nerve
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What is the ganglion of the Glossopharyngeal nerve (CNIX) in PSNS outflow?
Otic ganglion
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What is the postganglionic arrangement of the PSNS outflow from Glossopharyngeal nerve (CNIX)? And the target organ?
Hitchhikes on the auriculotemporal nerve to the parotid gland
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What is the nucleus of the vagus nerve (CNX) in PSNS outflow?
Dorsal Vagal motor nucleus
256
What is the preganglionic arrangement of the PSNS outflow from vagus nerve (CNX)?
Travels within the vagus nerve
257
What is the ganglion of the vagus nerve (CNX) in PSNS outflow?
Many- located within the target organs
258
What is the postganglionic arrangement of the PSNS outflow from vagus nerve (CNX)? And the target organ?
Ganglion is located on target organs (there are no postganglionic nerve fibres) Smooth muscles of trachea, bronchi and digestive tract
259
Which ganglia are associated with sensory and sympathetic nerves which don't actually synapse in the PSNS outflow?
Ciliary ganglion- sympathetic nerves for internal carotid plexus and sensory fibres from nasociliary nerve Pterygopalantine ganglion- sympathetic nerves for internal carotid plexus and sensory fibres from maxillary nerve Submandibular ganglion- sympathetic branches from facial artery plexus Otic ganglion- sympathetic branches from superior cervical chain
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What are the four main ganglia of the PSNS important to the H&N region?
Ciliary Pterygopalantine Submandibular Otic
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What are the three main ganglia of the SNS important to the H&N region?
Superior cervical Middle cervical Inferior cervical
262
Describe the arrangement of the SNS
As a general simplification axons of most preganglionic neurones terminate immediately in the para/prevertebral chain of ganglia (sympathetic trunk) Chain of ganglia extends from base of the skull to coccyx Fusion of ganglia reduces their number: - 2/3 cervical (8 cervical neural levels) - 11 thoracic (12 thoracic neural levels) - 4 lumbar (5 lumbar neural levels) - 4 sacral (5 sacral neural levels) Sympathetic ganglia give rise to 2 sets of branches with 2 destinations - somatic: travel alongside segmental nerves - visceral: ganglionated trunks
263
What is the difference between the paravertebral and prevertebral chain of ganglia?
Paravertebral- lie alongside the vertebral column bilaterally Prevertebral- lie anteriorly to vertebral bodies in relation to carotids and anterior to AA (SMA and IMA)
264
At what level is the superior cervical ganglion found?
Anterior to C1-C4
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What arteries does the postganglionic branches of the superior cervical ganglion ascend with into the head?
Common, external and internal carotid arteries
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What are the effector organs of the superior cervical ganglion?
``` Eyeballs Face Nasal gland Pharynx Glands in the palate and nasal cavity Salivatory gland Lacrimal gland Sweat glands Pineal gland Dilator pupillae Superior tarsal muscle Carotid body Heart Artery smooth muscle ```
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At what level is the middle cervical ganglion found?
C6
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What arteries does the postganglionic branches of the middle cervical ganglion ascend with into the head?
Inferior thyroid artery
269
What are the effector organs of the middle cervical ganglion?
``` Larynx Trachea Pharynx Upper oesophagus Heart Artery smooth muscle ```
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At what level is the inferior cervical ganglion found?
C7
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What arteries does the postganglionic branches of the inferior cervical ganglion ascend with into the head?
Vertebral and subclavian arteries
272
What are the effector organs of the inferior cervical ganglion?
Heart | Artery smooth muscle
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Is there sympathetic outflow from the cervical segments of the spinal cord?
No- they (superior middle and inferior cervical ganglia) are displaced upper 3 thoracic ganglia from the thoracic sympathetic trunk
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What two bones articulate at the temporomandibular joint?
Mandible and temporal bone
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At what level is the TMJ found?
Anterior and roughly at level of tragus of the ear
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What type of joint is the TMJ?
Synovial
277
What are the articular surfaces of the TMJ?
Superior (cranial) articular surface (on under surface of squamous part of temporal bone) - -> has 2 articular sites - mandibular fossa of temporal bone (medial and concave) - articular tubercle of temporal bone (anterior and convex) (aka. eminentia articularis) Inferior (mandible) - condyle of the mandible has a rounded superior edge and ellipsoid circumference with its major axis posteromedial
278
What type of cartilage is the TMJ lined with?
Fibrocartilage (not hyaline)
279
Describe the articular disc of the TMJ
Aka meniscus Dense fibrous connective tissue Has same position as fibrocartilage lining the articular surfaces Intervenes between superior and inferior articular surfaces of bones of TMJ - upper surface: concave-convex to fit both the mandibular fossa and articular tubercle - under surface: concave for reception of condyle of the mandible Thicker at its periphery where it attaches to its articular capsule Can recoil or stretch a little with movement Thinner centrally- sometimes almost perforated Function is to make the articular surfaces congruent (as superior and inferior articular surfaces are morphologically incongruent) and to create 2 cavities within the TMJ- allow for particular movements
280
Describe the capsule of the TMJ
Fibrous capsule- very strong but thin to permit movements of the joint Capsular attachments- superior- circumference of mandibular fossa and articular tubercle // inferior- neck of condyle of mandible Strengthened by extracapsular ligaments
281
Describe the extracapsular ligaments of the TMJ
Temporomandibular ligament - laterally placed - strongest ligament of TMJ - deep fibres blend with capsule - lower border of zygoma to posterior border of neck and ramus of mandible - it tightens the head in retrusion (closing and pulling the jaw backwards) 2 medial ligaments / accessory ligaments that strengthen the joint capsule but a re relatively less significant - sphenomandibular ligament (remains constant in length and tension for all positions of mandible) - stylomandibular ligament (extends from near apex of styloid process to posterior border of ramus of mandible nears it's angle; thickening of deep parotid fascia, separates parotid gland from submandibular gland)
282
Describe movements of the TMJ
It's always the mandible that moves in relation to the cranium in order for movements to occur Movements occur by displacement in the: - superior joint cavity - gliding, translation, protusion, retrusion - inferior joint cavity - hinge, rotation Opening movements- simple movement - 1. Condyles pulled forward - protrusion / gliding - lateral pterygoids (x3), upper joint cavity 2. Chin pulled down and back - hinge - digastric muscles- not a prime mover in jaw opening, lower joint cavity Closing movements- 1. Mandible moves backwards - posterior fibres of Temporalis muscle pull the mandible backwards, superior joint cavity 2. Mandible elevates - remainder of Temporalis muscle, masseter muscles (all it's layers), medial pterygoid muscles, inferior joint cavity
283
What are some disorders of the TMJ?
Bruxism- grinding teeth when asleep Temporomandibular pain dysfunction disorders: muscular pain Malocclusion syndromes: muscular pain
284
What is the infratemporal fossa?
Irregularly shaped cavity of anatomical and clinical importance - lies below the middle cranial fossa, medial and deep to the zygomatic arch and behind the maxilla - communicates with the Temporal fossa through the interval between the zygomatic arch and cranial bones
285
What are the boundaries of the infratemporal fossa ?
Anterior border- infra temporal surface of maxilla and descending ridge of its zygomatic process Posterior border- articular tubercle of temporal bone and spina angularis of sphenoid Superior border- infratemporal surface of greater wing of sphenoid Inferior border- alveolar border of maxilla Medial border- lateral pterygoid muscle
286
Generally what is found in the infratemporal fossa?
``` Muscles Nerves Arteries Veins Foramina Canals Fissures ```
287
What muscles are found in the infratemporal fossa?
Lower part of medial pterygoid muscle Lower part of lateral pterygoid muscle Lower part of Temporalis muscle
288
What nerves are found in the infratemporal fossa?
Mandibular nerve and most of its branches (auriculotemporal, inferior alveolar, lingual, buccal, chorda tympanii) and otic ganglion
289
What arteries are found in the infratemporal fossa?
Main deep artery - maxillary artery - middle meningeal artery- anterior branch is clinically significant (Pterion fracture) Main superficial artery - superficial temporal artery
290
What veins are found in the infratemporal fossa?
Maxillary veins, middle meningeal vein, pterygoid venous plexus
291
What foramina are found in the infratemporal fossa?
``` Foramen ovale (mandibular division of 5th nerve) Foramen spinosum (middle meningeal artery) ```
292
What canal is found in the infratemporal fossa?
Alveolar canal
293
What fissure is found in the infratemporal fossa?
Inferior orbital fissure and pterygomaxillary fissure
294
What is the clinical significance of the infratemporal fossa?
Pathologies within this region can evolve without detection up until it is too late - tumour growth- likely to be advanced when symptomatic Mandibular nerve block- anaesthetic injected adjacent to nerve as it enters infratemporal fossa- nerves affected are inferior alveolar, lingual, buccal and auriculotemporal nerves Inferior alveolar nerve block- during dental treatment, anaesthetic is injected around the mandibular foramen on medial side of mandible; all mandibular teeth anaethetised to medial side and skin and MM of lower lip also anaesthetised (supplied by mental branch)
295
What is the orbital axis?
Angle of the eyeball along the optic nerve
296
What is the clinical relevance of the optic chiasm?
Cross over point for some nerves - above which L-->L and R-->R - below which L-->R and R-->L Therefore a stroke/ high motor nerve lesion on one side will result in sensation in the forehead on the expected side, but rest of the body will be affected on the other side
297
What is the general shape of the orbit?
Pyramidal
298
What makes up the roof of the orbit?
Frontal and sphenoid bone
299
What makes up the floor of the orbit?
Maxilla, zygomatic (and palatine) bones
300
What makes up the medial wall of the orbit?
Ethmoid, maxilla and lacrimal bones
301
What makes up the lateral wall of the orbit?
Zygomatic and sphenoid bone
302
Which two walls of the orbit are the most prone to fracture and why?
Medial and inferior (floor) walls because they are the ethmoid and maxilla bones which both contain air filled sinus spaces
303
What are 5 main features of the orbit?
``` Fossa for the lacrimal gland Fossa for lacrimal sac to nasolacrimal duct Superior orbital fissure Inferior orbital canal Optic canal ```
304
What is found in the fossa for the lacrimal gland?
Lacrimal gland - where tears are produced, then move across the eye in a downwards, medial direction
305
What is found in the fossa for lacrimal sac?
Lacrimal sac, where tears pool forming a lacrimal lake, before leaving the eye at the medial canthus
306
What structures are found in the superior orbital fissure? LFTSNIAOS
``` Large- Lacrimal nerve French- Frontal nerve Teenagers- Trochlear nerve Sit- Superior branch of oculomotor nerve Numb- Nasociliary nerve In- Inferior branch of oculomotor nerve Anticipation- Abducent nerve Of- Opthalmic veins Sweets- Sympathetic nerve ```
307
What structure is found in the inferior orbital fissure?
Infra orbital nerve
308
What structures are found in the optic canal?
``` Optic nerve (CNII) Opthalmic artery ```
309
How many axons does the optic nerve have?
1.2m axons from retinal cells
310
How can infections spread via the optic nerve?
Coverings of the brain- pia mater, arachnoid mater and dura mater are continuous with the brain Infection can spread in the back of the eye socket via the optic nerve Raise ICP, venous engorgement, Papilloedema (optic nerve and disk pushed forward- swelling on the optic disk)
311
Describe blow out fractures of the bony orbit
Usually at bony sutures - medial (ethmoid sinuses) and inferior (maxillary sinus) walls are weakest and most likely to fracture BLOW OUT FRACTURE- displaces the wall and contents of the orbit - muscle entrapment, double vision, infection, enopthalmos, infra orbital bleeding, pulsatile exopthalmos (eye beats with HR)
312
What are the 6 main muscles of eyeball movement?
Medial, lateral, superior and inferior recti | Superior and inferior oblique
313
What do the recti muscles attach to?
Attach to the eye socket - tendons go through the annular ring
314
What is the action of the superior recti muscle?
Elevation of eye- eye looks up | Intorsion- superomedially
315
What is the action of the inferior recti muscle?
Depression of eye- eye looks down | Extorsion- inferomedially
316
What is the action of the lateral recti muscle?
Abduction of eye- eye looks laterally
317
What is the action of the medial rectus muscle?
Adduction of eye- eye looks medially
318
What is the action of the superior oblique muscle?
1) Intorsion - inferolaterally 2) Depression 3) Abduction When the eye is turned toward the nose, the superior oblique muscle is responsible for depressing the eye When looking directly forward superior oblique assists other muscles (SR, IO, IR) in vertical movement
319
What is the action of the inferior oblique muscle?
1) Extorsion- superolaterally 2) Elevation 3) Abduction When the eye is turned toward the nose, the inferior oblique muscle is responsible for elevating the eye When looking directly forward inferior oblique assists other muscles (SR, SO, IR) in vertical movement
320
What muscles of the eye does the abducent nerve (CNVI) supply?
Lateral rectus
321
What muscles of the eye does the trochlear nerve (CN IV) supply?
Superior oblique
322
What muscles of the eye does the superior branch of the oculomotor nerve (CNIII) supply?
Superior rectus
323
What muscles of the eye does the inferior branch of the oculomotor nerve (CNIII) supply?
Inferior rectus Medial rectus Inferior oblique
324
What branches of the ICA and ECA supply the eye?
ICA- opthalmic arteries | ECA- infra orbital artery
325
What are the main opthalmic arteries? And what do they supply?
Central artery of the retina - terminal branches- supra trochlear and supraorbital artery Lacrimal artery Posterior ciliary artery Muscular branches to extraocular muscles Other separate branches to ethmoidal and frontal sinuses, eyelids, forehead and scalp etc.
326
What is the venous drainage of the eye?
Superior opthalmic vein- drains from inner angle of the orbit to the superior orbital fissure Inferior opthalmic vein- drains from the venous plexus on the floor and medial wall of the orbit to the superior or inferior orbital fissure Central vein of the retina either drains into the superior or inferior opthalmic veins or directly into the cavernous sinus Inferior and superior orbital fissure drain into the cavernous sinus
327
What can result from occlusion of the veins of the eyes?
Slow, painless loss of vision
328
How can infection spread via the veins of the eye to the brain?
Danger triangle around nose- communication between facial vein to the cavernous sinus via the opthalmic veins - cavernous sinus thrombosis, meningitis or abscess
329
What are the functions of the upper and lower eyelids?
Protecting from light and injury | Prevent corneal drying, through controlled spread of lacrimal fluid (tears)
330
What is the space between the eyelids called?
Opening = palpebral fissure - left and right not often equal in size
331
What is the palpebral conjunctiva?
Part of the conjunctiva which covers the outer surface of the eye and lines the eyelids
332
What is the bulbar conjunctiva?
Covers the eyeball over the anterior sclera
333
What is the fornix conjunctiva?
Forms junction between the palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva
334
What are the layers of the upper eyelid?
``` Skin Areolar tissue Fibres of orbicularis oculi Levator palpebrae superioris Superior tarsus- dense CT strengthening the skeleton (inferior lower lid) Tarsal (Meibomian) glands- secrete oil- dry eye Ciliary glands (sebaceous) - stye Palpebral conjunctiva ```
335
What is reflex bilateral blinking?
Involuntary blinking of eyelids stimulated by stimulation of cornea Triggers- corneal drying, corneal irritation/contact (perceived as pain), expectation of contact Controlled by CNVi - opthalmic division of Trigeminal nerve & CNVII - facial nerve
336
What muscles are involved in opening the eyelids?
Levator palpabrae superioris | Superior tarsal muscles (Muller's muscle)
337
What muscle is involved in closing the eyelid?
Orbicularis oculi
338
What happens when levator palpabrae superioris becomes paralysed?
Paralysis when oculomotor nerve CNIII becomes DAMAGED - drooping of upper eyelid- ptosis - vision compromised - residual opening of eye due to presence of superior tarsal muscle (smooth muscles)
339
What happens when the superior tarsal muscles become paralysed?
Paralysis (smooth muscle of upper eyelids) Minor drooping of upper eyelid - partial ptosis Vision usually okay Eye opening okay due to levator palpabrae superioris Horner's syndrome- paralysis of superior tarsal muscles with pupil constriction
340
What is Horner's syndrome?
Paralysis of superior tarsal muscles with pupil constriction
341
What happens when the orbicularis oculi muscles becomes paralysed?
``` Paralysis (facial nerve CNVII DAMAGE) Failure to close eyes- Bell's palsy Loss of blink and corneal reflex Dry eyes- need eye drops Infection likely ```
342
What is lacrimation?
Crying Lacrimal fluid/ tears are produced in the lacrimal gland in the fossa for the lacrimal gland under the influence of the PSNS fibres of the facial nerve CNVII Eyes close lateral to medial, pushing tears across the anterior surface of the eye, and towards the medial canthus, where the fluid collects in the lacrimal sac/ lake in the fossa for the lacrimal sac Sensory supply via lacrimal branch of the opthalmic division of the Trigeminal nerve (CNVi) to the eyelid and conjunctiva
343
What 3 different parts of the ear exist?
Outer/ external ear Middle ear Inner/ internal ear
344
What is the outer ear comprised of?
Auricle/ pinna | External acoustic meatus
345
What is the auricle/pinna of the ear?
External, lateral, paired structure | All cartilaginous except lobe
346
What are the main parts of the auricle of the ear?
``` Helix Anti helix- superoposterior and inferoanterior crus Triangular fossa Concha Tragus Antitragus Lobe ```
347
What is the innervation of the auricle of the ear?
Cutaneous innervation - greater auricular, lesser occipital and branches of the facial and vagus nerves
348
What is the vascular supply to the auricle of the ear?
Posterior auricular, superficial temporal and occipital arteries and veins
349
Why may a patient cough when clearing their ears out?
Auricular branch of the vagus nerve may be stimulated causing a cough too
350
What is an auricular haematoma?
Blood collects between cartilage and overlying perichondrium Usually due to trauma (contact sports) Accumulation of blood disrupts the vascular supply to the cartilage of the auricle - necrosis of the cartilage If not drained quickly - gross deformity results as cauliflower ear I
351
What is the external acoustic meatus of the ear?
Sigmoid shaped tube which connects the deep part of the concha of the auricle to the tympanic membrane Support given to walls from the auricle and the temporal bone
352
Describe the shape of the external acoustic meatus
Initially superoanterior in direction Turns slightly to move superoposteriorly Ends in an inferoanterior direction
353
What is the tympanic membrane?
Double layered- (skin and MM) membrane which marks the division between the outer and middle ear
354
How is the tympanic membrane connected to the temporal bone?
Connected to temporal bone by fibrocartilaginous ring
355
What does it mean that the tympanic membrane is translucent?
Translucent - so structures within the middle ear can be seen
356
What are the main features of the tympanic membrane?
Malleus - most superiorly- lateral process of malleus - extending down from lateral process- handle of malleus - most inferiorly- Umbo Parts of tympanic membrane moving away from the lateral processes are called the anterior and posterior malleolar folds Pars flaccida and pars tensor Cone of reflex
357
What is the nervous supply to the EAM and tympanic membrane?
Sensory innervation from branches of mandibular and vagus nerves
358
Describe perforation of the tympanic membrane
Caused by trauma or infection - infection of middle ear/ otitis media - causes pus and fluid build up - causes an increase in pressure and rupture of the eardrum - many cases it heals itself - large perforations - a surgical intervention might be necessary
359
What is the middle ear comprised of?
Tympanic cavity- malleus, incus and stapes Epitympanic recess- mastoid air cells Extends from tympanic membrane to oval and round window of inner ear
360
What two broad areas can the middle ear be divided into?
Tympanic cavity | Epitympanic recess
361
What are the borders of the middle ear cavity of the ear?
Roof- petrous part of temporal bone Floor- jugular wall (thin layer of bone) Lateral- tympanic membrane and lateral wall of epithelia of recess Medial- lateral wall of internal ear Anterior- thin bony wall with 2 openings- for auditory tube and tensor tympani muscle Posterior- mastoid wall- bony partition between tympanic cavity and mastoid air cells- superiorly has a hole (aditus to mastoid antrum) allowing communication with mastoid air cells
362
What is the malleus?
Largest most lateral auditory ossicle Attaches to tympanic membrane via handle of malleus Head of malleus lies in the epitympanic recess where it articulates with next auditory ossicle - incus
363
What is the incus?
Middle auditory ossicle Has a body and two limbs Body articulates with the malleus Short limb attaches to the posterior wall of the middle ear cavity Long limb joins the last ossicle - stapes
364
What is the stapes?
``` Smallest bone in the body Medial most auditory ossicle Head, base and two limbs in a stirrup shape Head articulates with long limb of incus Base joins with the oval window ```
365
Where do the three auditory ossicles extend from and to?
Malleus, incus and stapes are connected in a chain like manner linking the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the inner ear
366
What two muscles are found in the middle ear?
Tensor tympani | Stapedius
367
What are the main functions of the muscles of the middle ear?
Tensor tympani and Stapedius Both serve protective function of the middle ear Contract on response to a loud noise inhibiting vibrations of malleus incus and stapes to such a degree to cause damage- reduces the transmission of sound to the inner ear - acoustic reflex
368
Describe tensor tympani
Originates from the auditory tube and attaches to the handle of malleus, pulling it medially when contracting
369
What is the innervation of tensor tympani?
Mandibular nerve branch of Trigeminal nerve (CNViii)
370
Describe the stapes muscle
Attaches to the stapes
371
What is the innervation of the Stapedius muscle?
Facial nerve
372
What are the mastoid air cells?
Located posterior to the epitympanic recess Collection of air filled spaces in the mastoid process of the temporal bone Contained within the mastoid Antrum cavity - communicates with the middle ear via the aditus of the mastoid Antrum in posterior wall Acts as a buffer system of air - releasing air into the tympanic cavity when the pressure is too low
373
What is the auditory/ Eustachian tube?
Cartilage and bony tube that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx Acts to equalise the pressure of the middle ear to that of the EAM Extends from anterior wall of middle ear in an anterior, medioinferior direction opening onto the lateral wall of the nasopharynx
374
What is cholesteatoma?
Growth of stratified squamous epithelia of middle ear- congenital or acquired Destructive growth- causes damage to bones of middle ear by increased pressure or release of osteolytic enzymes Hearing loss/ facial nerve palsy
375
What is mastoiditis?
Otitis media spreads to mastoid air cells (porous nature) Infection of mastoid process --> middle cranial fossa --> brain: Meningitis Drainage of pus necessary- careful not to damage the facial nerve
376
What is glue ear?
Otitis media with effusion Dysfunction of Eustachian tube Inflammation, blockage or genetic mutation Fluid build up in middle ear causes a negative pressure Transudate from mucosa drawn out by NP- pathogens Upon inspection - tympanic membrane appears inverted and fluid can be seen in middle ear
377
What is the inner ear comprised of?
Vestibulocochlear organs Bony labyrinth- vestibule, cochlea, 3 semi circular canals Membranous labyrinth- cochlear duct, saccule, utricle, semicircular ducts
378
What are the two main functions of the inner ear?
Convert mechanical signals from the middle ear into electrical signals which can transfer information to the auditory pathway in the brain Maintains balance by detecting position and motion
379
What is the anatomical position of the inner ear?
Located within the petrous part of the temporal bone | Between the middle ear and internal acoustic meatus
380
Broadly describe the bony labyrinth
Consists of a series of bony cavities within the petrous part of the temporal bone; comprised of the cochlea, vestibule and 3 semicircular canals- all these structures lined internally with periosteum and contain a fluid- perilymph
381
What is the vestibule?
Central part of the bony labyrinth - separated from the middle ear by oval window Communicates anteriorly with cochlea and posteriorly with semicircular canals Saccule and utricle (parts of the membranous canal) are located I the vestibule
382
What is the cochlea?
Houses the cochlear duct of the membranous labyrinth - auditory part of ear Twists around itself around a central portion of bone called the modiolus, producing a cone shape that points in an anterolateral direction Branches of cochlear portion of the Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) are found at the base of the modiolus Extending outwards from the modiolus is a ledge of bone - spiral lamina- which attaches to the cochlear duct holding it in position
383
What two chambers does the presences of the cochlear duct in the cochlea create?
Above- scala vestibuli (continuous with vestibule) | Below- scala tympani (ends at round window)
384
What are the semicircular canals?
Anterior, lateral and posterior canals in the bony labyrinth Contain semicircular ducts (membranous labyrinth) responsible for balance (saccule and utricle) Canals are superoposterior to the vestibule and at right angles to one another Swelling at one end is known as the ampulla
385
Broadly describe the membranous labyrinth
Lies within the bony labyrinth, It consists of the cochlear duct, semicircular ducts, utricle and saccule- filled with the endo lymph
386
What is the cochlear duct?
Located within the bony scaffolding of the cochlea Held in place by spiral lamina Presence of duct creates two canals above (scala vestibuli) and below (scala tympani) Triangular in shape
387
What are the borders of the cochlear duct?
Triangular shape Lateral- thickened periosteum= spiral ligament Roof- membrane that separates cochlear duct from scala vestibuli- Reissners Floor- membrane that separates cochlear duct from scala tympani- Basillar
388
What are the saccule and utricle?
2 membranous sacs in the vestibule Utricle- larger of the two receiving 3 semicircular ducts Saccule- globular in shape and receives the cochlear duct Endolymph drains from the saccule and utricle into the endo lymphatic duct- travels through the aqueduct to posterior aspect of the petrous part of temporal bone- here it expands into a sac where endolymph can be secreted and absorbed
389
What are the semicircular ducts?
Located within the semicircular canals and share their orientation Upon movement of the head, flow of endo lymph within these ducts changes speed and/or direction Sensory receptors in the ampullae of the semicircular canals send signals to the brain allowing for processing of balance
390
What is the innervation of the middle ear?
Vestibulocochlear nerve (CNVIII) - enters inner ear via interal acoustic meatus where it divides into the vestibular nerve and the cochlear nerve - vestibular nerve enters to form the vestibular ganglion which then splits into superior and inferior parts to supply the utricle, saccule and 3 semi circular ducts - cochlear nerve enters at the base of the modiolus and it's branches pass through the lamina to supply receptors of organ of Corti Facial nerve (CNVII) - passes through inner ear but does not innervate any of the structures present
391
What is the arterial supply to the bony labyrinth?
3 arteries which supply the surrounding temporal bone - anterior tympani branch (maxillary artery) - petrosal branch (middle meningeal artery) - stylomastoid branch (posterior auricular artery)
392
What is the arterial supply to the membranous labyrinth?
Labyrinthine artery (inferior cerebellar artery/ basillar artery) Divides in pro 3 branches - cochlear branch --> cochlear duct - 2x vestibular branches --> vestibular apparatus
393
What is the venous drainage of the inner ear?
Labyrinthine vein- empties into the sigmoid sinus or inferior petrosal sinus
394
What is Ménière's disease?
Disorder of the inner ear characterised by episodes of vertigo, low pitched tinnitus and hearing loss Symptoms caused by excess accumulation of endo lymph within the membranous labyrinth, causing progressive distension of the ducts Resulting pressure fluctuations damage thin membranes of the ear that detect balance and sound.
395
What is the nerve supply to the tympanic membrane?
External - auriculotemporal branch of mandibular division of Trigeminal nerve (CNViii) and small branch of vagus nerve (CNX) Internal- Glossopharyngeal nerve (CNIX)
396
Briefly describe how we hear
Sound travels through EAM and is transmitted to movement via the 3 auditory ossicles which move upon receiving sound signals Stapes then presses on the oval window transmitting movement in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli and then tympani Hairs found in the scala vestibuli pick up movement of perilymph/ sounds at different frequencies - high pitched sounds are absorbed proximally to Oval window - low pitched sounds are absorbed more distally to Oval window Sound Is absorbed into the endo lymph of the cochlear duct and transferred to the brain Excessive sound leaves via the round window to relieve any pressure
397
Briefly describe how we maintain balance
Fluid in the semicircular ducts move when we become unbalanced and restore our balance
398
What are the 5 main functions of the nose?
``` Warms and humidifies air Filters air- removes and traps pathogens and particulate matter from the inspired air Olfaction- sense of smell Drains and clears paranasal sinuses Respiration ```
399
What three regions does the nasal cavity consist of?
Vestibule Olfactory region Respiratory region
400
Describe the location of the vestibule of the nose
Area surrounding external opening to nasal cavity
401
Describe the location of the olfactory region of the nose
Area located next to the apex of the nasal cavity- lined by olfactory cells with olfactory receptors
402
Describe the location of the respiratory region of the nose
Largest area - lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelia - within which the mucus secreting goblet cells are interspersed
403
What bones contribute to the skeleton of the nose?
``` Frontal Nasal Ethmoid Sphenoid Vomer Palatine process of maxilla Horizontal process of palatine bone Inferior concha ```
404
What are the conchae of the nose?
Curved shelves of bone that project out the lateral walls of the nasal cavity - inferior, middle and superior
405
What creates the 4 pathways of airflow in the nose?
Conchae
406
What are the 4 pathways of airflow in the nose?
Inferior meatus Middle meatus Superior meatus Sphenoethmoidal recess
407
Where is the inferior meatus?
Between inferior meatus and floor of nasal cavity
408
Where is the middle meatus?
Between middle and inferior conchae
409
Where is the superior meatus?
Between the middle and superior conchae
410
Where is the sphenoethmoidal recess?
Superior and posterior to superior concha
411
What are the two main functions of the nasal conchae?
Increases SA of the nasal cavity. - increasing the amount of inspired air that can come into contact withthecavity walls Disrupt fast, laminar flow of air- making it slow and turbulent so that air spends longer in the nasal cavity and can be humidified
412
What 8 structures drain into the nasal cavity?
``` Frontal sinus Maxillary sinus Anterior, posterior and middle ethmoidal sinuses Sphenoid sinus Nasolacrimal duct Eustachian tube ```
413
Where does the posterior ethmoidal sinus drain into?
Superior meatus
414
Where does the anterior ethmoidal sinus drain into?
Semilunar hiatus in middle meatus
415
Where does the middle ethmoidal sinus drain in to?
Ethmoid bulla of the middle meatus
416
Where does the maxillary sinus drain into?
Base of semilunar hiatus of middle meatus
417
Where does the frontal sinus drain into?
Middle meatus
418
Where does the sphenoid sinus drain into?
Sphenoethmoidal recess
419
Where does the nasolacrimal duct drain into?
Inferior meatus
420
Where does the Eustachian tube drain into?
Inferior meatus
421
What is the ethmoid bone made up of?
Crista galli Cribriform plate Perpendicular plate
422
Describe the Cribriform plate
Part of the ethmoid bone Forms portion of the roof of the nasal cavity Contains very small perforations allowing fibres of the olfactory nerve to enter and exit
423
What is the sphenopalatine foramen?
Opening that allows communication between nasal cavity and pterygopalatine fossa
424
What three structures pass through the sphenopalatine foramen?
Sphenopalatine artery, nasopalatine nerve and greater palatine artery pass through here
425
What is the incisive canal?
Pathway between the nasal cavity and incisive fossa of the oral cavity
426
What two structures pass through the incisive canal?
Nasopalatine nerve and greater palatine artery
427
Why is it important that the nose has such a rich vascular supply?
Allows it to effectively change the humidity and temperature of inspired air
428
Which 2 branches of the ICA does the nose receive blood supply from?
Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries (branches of the opthalmic artery)
429
Which 2 branches of the ECA does the nose receive blood supply from?
Sphenopalatine artery, greater palatine artery, superior labial artery, lateral nasal artery
430
What is the venous drainage of the nose?
Drain into pterygoid plexus, facial nerve of cavernous sinus In some individuals a few nasal veins join with the Sagittal sinus (a dural venous sinus - represents potential pathway via which infection can spread)
431
Describe the special sensory innervation of the nose
Ability of nose to smell Olfactory nerves Olfactory bulb (part if brain - lies on superior surface of Cribriform plate) --> olfactory nerve branches via the Cribriform plate perforations --> nose = SMELL
432
Describe the general sensory innervation of the nose
Sensation to septum and lateral walls - Nasopalatine nerve - branch of maxillary nerve - Nasociliary nerve - branch of opthalmic nerve Sensation to external skin of nose - Trigeminal nerve
433
What is the function of the paranasal sinuses
Unclear Contribute to humidifying of inspired Air Reduce weight of skull
434
When do the sinuses generally formed and how?
In childhood by nasal cavity eroding into the surrounding bone
435
Describe the frontal sinus
The Right and Left Frontal Sinuses are between the outer and inner tables of the frontal bone, posterior to the superciliary arches and the root of the nose. They are usually detectable in children by 7 years of age (not present at birth). They each drain through a Frontonasal Duct into the ethmoidal infundibulum, which opens into the semilunar hiatus of the Middle Nasal Recess.
436
Describe the ethmoidal sinuses
``` Ethmoidal Cells (Sinuses) The Ethmoidal cells (Sinuses) are small invaginations of the mucous membrane of the middle and superior nasal recesses into the Ethmoid bone. The Ethmoidal cells usually are not visible in plain radiographs before 2 years of age. The Anterior Ethmoidal Cells drain directly or indirectly into the middle nasal recess through the ethmoidal infundibulum. The Middle Ethmoidal Cells open directly into the middle nasal recess. The Posterior Ethmoidal Cells open directly into the superior nasal recess. ```
437
Describe the sphenoid sinus
The Sphenoidal Sinuses are located in the body of the sphenoid and may extend into the wings of the bone. The body of the sphenoid is fragile, and only thin plates of bone separate the sinuses from several important structures (Optic nerves and chiasm, the pituitary gland, internal carotid arteries). They are small at birth, enlarging after puberty. They drain directly into the Sphenoethmoidal Recess.
438
Describe the maxillary sinus
The Maxillary Sinuses are the largest of the paranasal sinuses. They occupy the bodies of the Maxillae. They drain by one or more openings, the Maxillary Ostium (ostia), into the middle nasal recess by way of the semilunar hiatus.
439
Briefly describe a nasal fracture
Most common fracture of face bones History of force to face May resulting a deformity Complications include septal haematoma, abscess formation, septal deviation, CSF leakage
440
Describe a fracture to the Cribriform plate
Can occur as a result of nose trauma Fractured directly by trauma or by fragments of the ethmoid bone Fracture can penetrate meningeal linings of the brain causing leakage of CSF - increases risks of meningitis, encephalitis and brain abscesses Olfactory bulb lies on the Cribriform plate and can be damages irreversibly in the fracture - in which case the patient presents with anosmia - loss of smell
441
What is Kiesselbach's plexus?
Lies in Kiesselbach's/ Little's area Region in the anterior ferero part of nasal septum where 4 arteries anastamose: - anterior ethmoidal artery (opthalmic) - sphenopalatine artery (maxillary artery terminal branch) - greater palatine artery - septal branch of superior labial artery (facial artery) * 90% nose bleeds (epistaxis) occur in this area as it is exposed to drying- the effect of the inspiratory current
442
What is epistaxis?
Bleeding from the nose - very common Cause can be local (trauma) or systemic (hypertension) Anterior - 90% in Kiesselbach's area Posterior- sphenopalatine artery
443
Briefly describe nasal septum deviation
Can be congenital or acquired | Narrowing / obstruction
444
Briefly describe nasal septum necrosis
Injury to nasal septum | Saddle nose deformity
445
Describe 4 pathways of infection spread from the nose
Anterior cranial fossa --> sinuses Middle ear --> Eustachian tube Paranasal sinuses Lacrimal apparatus and conjunctiva --> nasolacrimal duct
446
Describe rhinitis
Inflammation of nasal mucosa Leads to swelling and increased volume of secretion Causes include: infective (viral), allergic and nasal polyps
447
Describe nasal polyps
Prevalence - ~2-4% Linked to chronic rhinosinusitis Grows close to ostiomeatal complex of the nasopharynx Nasal obstruction - snoring/ obstructive sleep apnoea
448
Describe sinusitis
Inflammation of mucosal lining of sinuses Acute 7-30 days Subacute 4-12 weeks Chronic >90 days Infection-viral with secondary bacterial infection, S.Pneumoniae and H.Influenzae
449
What are some risks of epistaxis?
Trauma, tumours, EToH, coagulation defects, vascular abnormalities mucosal drying, infections, NSAID's, granulomas
450
What are 7 methods of management of epistaxis?
1) Pinch nose and lean forward 2) Cautery (silver nitrate of electro) 3) Nasal tampons 4) Bolster- support 5) Posterior packing 6) Surgical intervention with ligation of branches - SPA ligation, maxillary ligation, ECA ligation 7) Radiological embolisation