Application of reproduction and genetics Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

The human genome project:
when was the project proposed?
when did the project begin?
when was the first working draft published?
When was the more complete draft published?

A
  • the project was proposed in 1985
  • the project began in 1990
  • the first working draft as published in 2000
  • a more complete draft was published in 2003
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What were the aims of the human genome project?

A
  • Identify all the genes in the human genomes and identify which chromosome each is on
  • Determine the sequence of the 3 billion base pairs in human DNA and store this information in databases
  • Improve tools for data analysis
  • Transfer related technologies to the private sector, to develop medical innovation
  • Address the ethical, legal and social issues that may arise from the project
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What were the main findings of the human genome project?

A
  • Humans have about 20,500 genes, far fewer than anticipated
  • There are more repeated segments of DNA than had previously been suspected
  • Fewer than 7% of the families of proteins were specific to vertebrates, emphasising the close relationships between all living organisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain the process of Sanger sequencing (Chain termination)

  • How do you make dideoxynucleotides
A
  1. DNA was broken into single-stranded fragments of different lengths, up to 800 bases long
  2. Complementary strands were synthesised but these were incomplete because the 4 nucleotide triphosphates (NTP) were altered. For each NTP, the 3’OH of the deoxyribose was removed, to make dideoxynucleotide i.e. lacking both the 2’OH and the 3’OH
  3. When it was incorporated into newly synthesised strand, DNA polymerase would not be able to bind the next nucleotide and the chain could not lengthen i.e. the chain was terminated
  4. This last nucleotide was marked with a radioactive isotope, an antigen or fluorescent marker, with a different one for each of the 4 nucleotides
  5. From each original DNA fragment, a large number of complementary DNA strands of increasing length were produced. They were separated by gel electrophoresis, according to their size, and the terminal, marked nucleotide was identified
  6. As all of the terminal nucleotides were known, in fragments of increasing size, the base sequence of the DNA fragment was known
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The 100K Genome Project:
When was the project launched?
Whose genomes were sequenced ?
Who was the project run by?

A
  • The project was launched in 2012
  • The project uses NGS to sequence 100,00 genomes from NHS patients with cancer or rare disease, and from members of their families
  • It was run by genomics England, under the department of health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aims of the 100K Project:

A
  • Create an ethical, transparent programme based on consent
  • Set up a genomic service for the NHS to benefit patients
  • Enable medical and scientific discovery
  • Develop a UK genomics industry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Moral and ethical concerns: Ownership of genetic information

A

Once base sequences are known, it must be clear who owns the information. If It is the property of the individual, then safeguards must be put in place that it is not misused e.g:

  • If a person is identified as having a DNA sequence that might predispose them to heart disease, this information should not be used to set their insurance premiums or to deny them health and life insurance
  • If a DNA sequence suggests a particular ancestry, this should not be a pretext for social discrimination
  • No company should make financial profit from using a DNA sequence without permission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Moral and ethical concerns: The identification of allele sequences

A
  • A patients DNA can be scanned for mutated sequences that may be correlated with future health problems.
  • Some people do not wish to have this knowledge about themselves. Some of the information may affect close relatives, it must be clear whether relatives have a right the information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Moral and ethical concerns: Genetic screening and counselling

A
  • If a family has a history of a genetic defect, family members can consult a genetic counsellor for advice on the risk for themselves or potentially for their children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Moral and ethical concerns: Embryo screening

A
  • Embryos made during IVF can be screened for the presence of alleles leading to conditions including cystic fibrosis
  • A choice can then be made to implant the healthy embryo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Moral and ethical concerns: Embryo screening for the purpose of ‘desirable’ characteristics

A
  • potential for choosing alleles to ensure specific characteristics e.g appearance or sporting ability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Moral and ethical concerns: parents may wish to have their children screened

A
  • to know if they carry sequences that predispose them to adult diseases so a decision must be made to whether or when to tell the child the results of the tests
  • Suggests that the childs DNA is the property of the parent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Moral and ethical concerns: storage and security

A

a concern because of the potential for computer storage to be hacked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why examine genomes?

A
  • allows inferences to be drawn concerning evolutionary relationships
  • these provide a true phylogenetic classification
  • comparisons indicate to conservation scientists which species need particular conservation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Killing the vector: Anopheles gambiae

-resistance

A
  • Insecticides are used in indoor sprays to kill mosquitos in buildings
  • Pyrethroid resistance is a particular problem, as that is the only insecticide recommended for use with the nets under which people sleep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DNA sequencing of Anopheles Gambiae

A
  • performed in 2002, the sequence is used to try to develop chemicals that can prevent the mosquito from transmitting malaria, by making it susceptible to insecticides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How was a genetically modified mosquito produced in 2015?

A
  • Produced using gene-editing technology
  • Mosquito eggs modified with the addition of a gene that would allow them to synthesise an antibody against Plasmodium
  • Then if the mosquito acquired Plasmodium when taking blood from an infected person, the plasmodium would not survive in the mosquito
  • The mosquito would not then spread the infection when biting people in the future
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Killing the parasite: Plasmodium falciparum

A

Drugs to kill P.F have been used since the early 17the century when extracts from Cinchona bark were first used

  • QUININE: Disrupts P.F’s the digestion of haemoglobin in the red blood cells. A toxic derivative of haemoglobin accumulates and kills the Plasmodium
  • CHLOROQUINE: disrupts the digestion of haemoglobin in P.F’s food vacuole. Expels the drug from its food vacuole 50 x faster than normal- not enough time for drug to have an effect (resistance)
  • ATOVAQUONE: kills P.F by acting on the electron transport chain in its mitochondria. Resistance to develops rapidly caused by single point mutation in the gene for cytochrome b
  • ARTIMESININ: acts on P.F’s red blood cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is a persons DNA profile?

How much difference is there between individuals?

A

their genetic fingerprint

0.1% difference that makes an individuals genetic fingerprint unique

20
Q

Why is a genetic fingerprint not the same as a DNA sequence

A

it only represents non-coding portions of DNA

21
Q

DNA fingerprinting relies on two techniques

A
  1. The polymerase chain reaction to make large numbers of copies of DNA fragments
  2. Gel electrophoresis, to separate the DNA fragments based on their size
22
Q

how much human DNA codes for proteins?

A

less than 2% of human DNA codes for proteins

23
Q

what is the difference between introns and exons

A

introns do not code for proteins and they have sequences of nucleotides in which up to 13 bases repeat up to several hundred times exons do code for proteins

24
Q

what makes genetic fingerprints unique?

A

the number of repeats within a particular STR is different individuals

25
Q

What is the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A

PCR is semi-conservative replication of DNA in a test tube. It greatly amplifies the DNA i.e. makes millions of copies and it works rapidly

26
Q

The DNA sample is dissolved in a buffer and mixed with:

A
  • Taq polymerase. This is DNA polymerase from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus which lives in hot springs and hydrothermal vents. Taq polymerase has an optimum temperature of about 80 degrees
  • Active for 9 minutes before denaturing
  • Nucleotides containing the four DNA bases
  • short single stranded pieces of DNA between 6 and 25 bases long, called primers. They are complementary to the start of the DNA strand and bind to it, signalling taq polymerase to start replication
27
Q

what does PCR depend on?

A

rapid temperature change, which happens in a device called a ‘thermocycler’

28
Q

Explain the stages of PCR

A
  1. The original ‘target’ DNA is heated to 95 degrees, separating it into two strands
  2. The solution is cooled to 55 degrees, which is cool enough for the primers to anneal to the complementary strand by adding complementary nucleotides and catalysing the formation of phophodiester bonds in the sugar-phosphate backbone.
  3. This is the elongation or extension phase. For each initial fragment of double-stranded DNA, two identical double strands are produced
  4. The sequence is repeated many times
29
Q

How were copies of genes made before PCR was invented?

A

by inserting them into replicating microorganisms

30
Q

Limitations of PCR: Contamination

A

Any DNA that enters the system by accident can be amplified. The contaminating DNA may be air-borne, come from the experiment or from contaminated reagents. But most contamination comes from previous PCR reactions using the same apparatus

31
Q

Limitations of PCR: Error rate

A

All DNA polymerases sometimes insert a nucleotide containing the wrong base. They usually proofread and correct their errors, but taq polymerase cannot do this. It makes an error about 1 in every 9000 nucleotides. After 30 cycles of PCR, the error rate becomes 1 per 300 nucleotides, because each cycle copies and multiplies the previous errors, so they accumulates

32
Q

Limitations of PCR: DNA fragment size

A

PCR is most efficient for making DNA about 1000-3000 base pairs long because taq polymerase cannot correct its errors. If a lower temperature, higher pH and proofreading polymerase in addition to taq polymerase are used, a length of 40,000 base pairs can be generated. But many genes, including human genes, are much longer than this

33
Q

Limitations of PCR: Sensitivity to inhibitors

A

molecules in the sample may act as inhibitors and PCR is very sensitive to them e.g.:

  • Phenolics, especically in plant material
  • Humic acids in in archaeological specimens
  • Haem breakdown products, which bind with Mg2+ needed for the polymerase to function
34
Q

Limitations of PCR: Limits to amplification

A

At the start of PCR, the number of DNA molecules made increases exponentially. After about 20 cycles, it slows down: the increase becomes linear and then plateaus because:

  • reagent concentrations become limiting
  • the enzyme denatures after repeated heating
  • DNA in high concentrations causes the single-stranded molecules to base pair with each other with the primers
35
Q

Explain the process of gel electrophoresis

A
  1. DNA is extracted from biological material and cut into thousands of fragments of varying lengths, using restriction endonucleases
  2. The DNA fragments are separated by length with gel electrophoresis, on an agarose gel. Agarose is a polysaccharide extracted from seaweed and makes a gel with pores, through which small molecules can move:
    - DNA samples are loaded into wells of the gel
    - A voltage is applied across the gel. The phosphate groups of the DNA backbone have a negative charge so the fragments are attracted to the anode. Smaller fragments move more easily through the pores and so they migrate through the gel faster than the larger fragments
    - If fragments of known length are separated on the same gel at the same time, making a ‘DNA ladder’ the lengths of the fragments under test can be estimated
  3. The electrophoresis trough is covered with a nylon membrane, which touches the gel and picks up the DNA fragments. This process is called Southern blotting
  4. Radioactive or, more commonly luminescent DNA probes that contain sequence complementary to the STRs attach by base pairing to specific of the fragments. Any unbound probes are washed off
  5. A film that is sensitive to X-rays or the wavelengths emitted by the luminescent probe is placed over the Southern blot overnight
  6. The film is exposed and the autograph reveals a banding pattern in which the dark bands show the position of the probe, and therefore the repeated sequences. This pattern is the genetic fingerprint
36
Q

DNA profiling has been used in many situations, including testing for: Paternity

A
  • The DNA from white blood cells is used to construct DNA profiles.
  • The bands in a child’s profile are compared with the mothers
  • Any bands that they share were inherited from her
  • The remaining bands in the child’s profile must have been inherited from the father
  • If they do not match, there is a high probability that he is the father, but this technique cannot provide absolute proof
37
Q

DNA profiling has been used in many situations, including testing for: Twins

A
  • Monozygotic (identical) have identical banding patterns in their DNA profile whereas dizygotic (fraternal) twins or not
  • At birth, twins may look very similar so this is a useful tool for distinguishing which type of twin they are
38
Q

DNA profiling has been used in many situations, including testing for: Siblings

A
  • People who have been adopted may wish to confirm that alleged biological siblings are in fact their blood relatives
  • If they are, their DNA profiles will show many similarities, as, on average, half their genes will be identical
39
Q

DNA profiling has been used in many situations, including testing for: Immigration

A
  • Some visa applications depend on proof of relatedness
40
Q

DNA profiling has been used in many situations, including testing for: Forensics

A
  • Use to identify and rule out suspects in criminal cases
41
Q

DNA profiling has been used in many situations, including testing for: Phylogenetic studies

A
  • Profiles of members of different taxa can be compared to determine whether they have been classified suitably and to determine how closely they are genetically related
42
Q

What are the pros of DNA profiling?

A
  • It does not require an invasive method to obtain a biological sample, as mouth swabs, urine or hair can be used to obtain DNA, rather than blood samples
  • The technique can be used on samples that would be too small for blood testing
  • It has reversed wrongful convictions when used with other forensic tools and evidence
  • DNA profiling can rule out non-matches of DNA samples to exonerate people who have been falsely accused
  • Efforts are being made to store genetic material from people around the world, before isolated groups are intermixed and lost
43
Q

What are the cons of DNA profiling?

A
  • Some people consider that any request for a DNA sample is a violation of an individuals right to privacy and their civil liberties
  • DNA profiles are held in computer databases, which are vulnerable to misuse and hacking. Individuals may suffer loss of privacy; information taken ostensibly of an apparent match being correct may rise to one in one hundred million
  • Access to and use of data must be carefully regulated, as with DNA sequencing, Health insurers could conceivably use it to deny coverage or claims; prospective employers could avoid hiring those who have certain genetic traits or risks for certain diseases, private information, such as gender reassignment, could be made public without consent
44
Q

DNA profiling may produce wrongful convictions if:

A
  • It is used inappropriately to influence juries and judges, especially if they lack an understanding of the significance of the results
  • Errors may occur in the procedure
  • People conducting the tests may not be trustworthy
  • DNA evidence is planted at a crime scene
45
Q

What is genetic engineering?

A

Genetic engineering allows genes to manipulated, altered and transferred from one organism or species to another, making a genetically modified (GM) organism.

46
Q

Applications of genetic engineering include the transfer of genes or gene fragments into:

A
  • Bacteria so that they can make useful products, such as insulin
  • Plants and animals, so that they acquire new characteristics, for example resistance to disease
  • Humans, to reduce the effects of genetic diseases, such as Duchenne muscular dystrophy