Application, Design, and Integration of Physical Security Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two foundational design principles?

A

The four Ds (deter, detect, delay, deny),
Layered security (defense in depth).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The point where the delay time remaining exceeds the response force time is known as what?

A

Critical Detection Point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the term for the type of security where there is significant perimeter protection and entry is tightly controlled at a single portal?

A

Area security.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the term for the type of security where the outer perimeter is loosely controlled and the primary security focus is at an individual building or restricted area within?

A

Point security.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some conflicts that might arise in the design process for physical security measures?

A

Surveillance systems, sensors, door systems, and other access control measures may conflict with one another;
Safety and security objectives may not be the same;
Security goals may not align within organization’s mission or culture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What concept is used in the security design process to describe all aspects – electronic, structural, human, and procedural - of a security system complementing and working with each other?

A

Balanced protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a key factor in the nature of the physical security design and strategy employed to meet protection objectives?

A

The type or use of the facility or asset being protected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two types of design criteria?

A

Performance criteria (elements chosen for their contribution to performance),
Feature criteria (elements chosen because certain features are required).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of design process selects elements and procedures according to the contribution they make to overall system performance?

A

Performance criteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of design process selects elements or procedures to satisfy requirements that certain items be present?

A

Feature criteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the five different aspects that need to be taken into account when developing security system procedures?

A

People,
Operations,
Maintenance,
Training and awareness,
Incident-based and exploratory investigations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the nine basic factors to know from the onset in security design?

A

Governing codes and regulations,
Protection requirements,
Company, standards and guidelines
Type of construction,
Site layout,
Material selection,
Utilities,
Life safety,
Infrastructure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What equation is used for calculating risk when developing a design?

A

Risk = Vulnerability X Threat X Asset Value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

According to the US federal emergency management agency (FEMA) model, what are the two basic classifications of threats or hazards?

A

Natural and human-caused.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the design bases threat (DBT)?

A

A profile of the type, composition, capabilities, and methods (tactics, techniques, and procedures), as well as the goals, intent, and motivation of an adversary, upon which the security engineering and operations of a facility are-based.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a requirements document?

A

A requirements document identifies the primary reasons for implementing new measures or upgrading an old system. It is closely tied to the risk assessment by identifying the specific security measures to mitigate threats and reduce vulnerabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The collection, review, and analysis of data relative to the facility where the system will be implemented is an integral part of which process?

A

Planning process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two important criteria in developing the objectives for implementing or upgrading the physical protection system (PPS)?

A

The objective must be clearly stated and it must be SMART.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does SMART stand for?

A

Specific, Measurable, Aggressive but achievable, Realistic, Time-bounded (Source: IPPS)

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Repeatable, Time-dependent (Source: PSP)

Other variations on these initials maintain the essential idea: that objectives, be clear, focused, and appropriate to the task.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some influencing characteristic factors to consider in physical security design?

A

Assets, under protection,
Building or facility type,
Surroundings,
Location,
Additional concerns, such as management support and resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

According to CPTED security layering, where is the first layer of security?

A

The first layer should be at the perimeter of the property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

According to CPTED security layering, where is the second layer of security?

A

The second layer should be at the building exterior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

According to capital CPTED security layering, which layers are inside the building?

A

The third, fourth, and fifth layers.
The third layer should segregate authorized an unauthorized visitors.
The fourth layer should segregate generally accessible client areas from staff-only areas.
The fifth layer should further restrict staff access to highly sensitive areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is crime prevention through environmental design (CPTED)?

A

An approach to reducing crime or security incidents through the strategic design of the built environment, typically employing organizational, mechanical, and natural methods to control access, enhance natural surveillance and territoriality, and support legitimate activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the three approaches of CPTED strategies?

A

Natural or architectural measures
Mechanical measures,
Organizational measures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is natural surveillance?

A

Natural surveillance is a capital CPTED strategy to increase visibilty, both interior–to-exterior and exterior-to-interior, to increase witness potential, foster a sense of exposure to the criminal element, and give advance visibilty to areas people are entering.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the “broken windows” theory?

A

This theory suggests that leaving broken windows or other decay markers unattended or unrepaired can lead to the impression of abandonment and increase crime opportunity because no capable guardian is observed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is compartmentalization?

A

Compartmentalization is a capital CPTED strategy to design multiple or concentric layers of security measures so that highly protected assets are behind multiple barriers. This is also known as protection-in-depth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the four levels of integration?

A

Integrated electronic security systems,
Integrated physical security elements,
Integrated security programs,
Integration in enterprise risk management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A successful security design integrates what three primary elements?

A

Architectural aspects,
Security systems,
Operational factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does PSIM stand for?

A

Physical security information management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What involves planning, organizing, and controlling resources on a project?

A

Project management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are four constraints on a project?

A

Project scope,
Schedule,
Budget,
Quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are typical elements in the project management process for a physical protection system(PPS)?

A

Project concept,
Designing the project,
Managing the bid process,
Managing the implementation process,
Acceptance of work,
Initializing and managing the warranty process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the two phases of system design principles?

A

Planning and assessment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Technical security projects typically progress through which six tasks?

A

Risk analysis,
Conceptual (schematic),
Design development,
Construction documents,
Bidding,
Construction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the term used to describe the outcome of the overall planning phase through a set of security requirements or objectives that is used as a basis of the eventual design?

A

Design basis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The ground rules and guidelines for the design are referred to as what?

A

Design criteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the two phases in design and documentation?

A

Design development stage,
Construction documents phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the three sections of the procurement documents that are also known as contract (or bid) documents?

A

Contractual details,
Construction specifications,
Construction drawings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The construction document (CD) phase package includes what five items?

A

CD drawings,
Specifications,
Bill of quantities,
Refined system budgets,
Contract terms and conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the results of detailed specifications?

A

Final implementation reflects what was intended,
All bidders get the same complete understanding of requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does CADD stand for?

A

Computer-aided design drafting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The table of related security devices is commonly known as what?

A

Hardware schedules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the three types of cost estimates?

A

Budgetary estimates,
Preliminary design estimates,
Final design estimates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the two possibilities for who will designed the system?

A

Customer or end-user,
Contractor or integrator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

An approximation of the cost of each alternative security solution prepared for budgeting and planning purposes is known as what?

A

Budgetary estimates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the three different types of project estimates?

A

Budgetary,
Preliminary design,
Life cycle cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the seven procedures to be covered when creating a detailed estimate?

A

Identify PPS subsystems,
Identify other installation activities,
Develop list of components,
Establish components prices,
Formulate installation crews and establish productivity,
Identify required, special equipment and rates,
Use spreadsheet format.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Project scope document should have what 10 sections?

A

Executive summary,
Project benefits,
Project objectives,
Project scope,
Estimated project hours,
Estimated cost,
Estimated duration,
Assumptions,
Major risks,
Objectives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the four stages of a project?

A

Project feasibility,
Project development,
Project execution,
Project closeout.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In which stage of the project should any changes to the project scope, deliverables, or activities be subject to a more systematic change process and submitted to a change review board (CRB)?

A

Stage three: Project execution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the seven deliverables of the planning stage?

A

Risk assessment report,
Procurement method,
Budgetary estimate,
Selection of project manager,
Selection of project team,
Design criteria,
Contracting and legal requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are two types of physical barriers?

A

Natural barriers and structural barriers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Examples of this type of barrier include fields, rivers, cliffs, marshes, and deserts.

A

Natural barriers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Examples of this type of barrier include berms, ditches, planted trees and shrubs, fences, doors, and glazing materials.

A

Structural barriers.

57
Q

What are the most common means for securing grounds against trespassing?

A

Walls, chain-link fences, moats, and other barriers.

58
Q

What should be considered when installing chain-link fence?

A

Posts,
Bracing,
Fabric,
Fence top treatment,
Gates,
Turnstiles.

59
Q

When should barbed wire be installed atop a fence?

A

If fences are intended to discourage human trespassing.

60
Q

What is the purpose of installing a cement apron under the fence?

A

To prevent individuals or objects from going under the fence.

61
Q

What should be considered when implementing physical barriers and site hardening?

A

Target attractiveness,
Overall risks to the site,
Neighboring perimeters and adjacencies,
Effectiveness of multiple options of perimeter and outer and inner security structures,
Cost-effectiveness,
Response directives, and operational procedures.

62
Q

Planters can be an effective vehicle barrier under what conditions?

A

When properly anchored to the ground.

63
Q

A sturdy and short cylindrical post intended to divert traffic or absorb vehicular impact are known as what?

A

Bollards.

64
Q

What is the purpose of a turnstile?

A

To control pedestrian traffic and minimize tailgating (piggybacking).

65
Q

What measures can be taken to strengthen doors?

A

Adding steel plates for reinforcement,
Anchoring frames,
Adding kick plates,
Using set screws in hinges,
Spotwelding hinges.

66
Q

What are five types of window glass?

A

Annealed or plate glass,
Tempered glass,
Wired glass,
Laminated glass,
Bullet-resistant or burglar-resistant glass.

67
Q

What are four window-related security materials?

A

Window bars,
Window film,
Blast curtains,
Security shutters.

68
Q

At what dimension should openings be fortified?

A

96 sq. in. (619 sq. cm)

69
Q

What are four key factors in hardening a facility?

A

Stand-off distance,
Structural integrity of the premises,
Prevention of progressive collapse,
Redundancy of operating systems.

70
Q

What are four typical objectives of an access control system?

A

Permit authorized assets access to controlled areas,
Detect, minimize, and prevent the access attempts or exit of unauthorized assets from controlled areas,
Provide information to security personnel for the assessment and response to unauthorized entry,
Provide a record of who, what, when, where, and how access to controlled areas was granted.

71
Q

What are three types of credentials that can be validated in an electronic access control system?

A

Identifying a valid key or credential – something an asset has,
Validating an identification number or code – something a person knows,
Processing the unique characteristic for biometric identification – what is inherent to a person.

72
Q

What are the six types of locks?

A

Mechanical,
Electrified,
Electromagnetic,
Credential-operated,
Combination,
Biometric.

73
Q

The time required to defeat a lock should approximate what?

A

The penetration delay time of the rest of the secured barrier.

74
Q

What are four methods of contraband detection?

A

Metal detectors,
Package search,
Explosive detection,
Chemical and biological agent detection.

75
Q

What is stand-off distance?

A

The distance between a critical asset and the nearest point of attack.

76
Q

What are some advantages of security lighting?

A

Possible deterrence of adversaries and suspicious activities,
Improved surveillance by users and security response,
Reduced liability from trips and falls and premises security negligence cases,
Witness potential of suspicious and criminal acts,
Enhanced observation of spaces,
Proper lighting fosters a sense of security to the legitimate users of the space.

77
Q

What are six application types of security lighting?

A

Continuous,
Glare protection,
Standby,
Controlled,
Portable (movable),
Emergency.

78
Q

How is light intensity measured?

A

Lux and foot-candles.

79
Q

What lamps are the least efficient, the most expensive, and have a short lifespan?

A

Incandescent.

80
Q

What lamps are more efficient than incandescent lamps, but are not used extensively outdoors, except for underpasses, tunnels, and signs?

A

Fluorescent.

81
Q

What lamps provide about 25% better efficiency and life than ordinary incandescent bulbs?

A

Halogen and quartz halogen.

82
Q

What lamps take several minutes to produce full light output, and have a poor color rendition for video surveillance, but have a long life?

A

Mercury vapor.

83
Q

What lamps best imitate daylight and work well with video surveillance systems by providing accurate color rendition?

A

Metal halide.

84
Q

What lamps are energy efficient and have a long lifespan, but poor color rendition for video surveillance?

A

High-pressure sodium. Their particular quality of light enables people to see more detail at greater distances in fog, so they are often used on streets or in parking lots.

85
Q

What lamps are more efficient than high pressure sodium, but are expensive to maintain and provide poor color rendition?

A

Low-pressure sodium.

86
Q

What lamps provide a cost-effective alternative that lasts longer, without sacrificing illumination?

A

LED (light-emitting diodes).

87
Q

What lamps have a long life and are utilized mainly indoors?

A

Induction.

88
Q

What are 10 types of devices used to detect intrusions?

A

Position detection devices,
Motion, detectors,
Sound detectors,
Vibration sensors,
Heat sensors,
Temperature sensors,
Capacitance devices,
Impact sensors,
Glass break sensors,
Duress/panic alarms.

89
Q

Video surveillance cameras are selected to provide what four things?

A

Scene identification and general observation,
Recognition and action identification,
Automation through analytics,
Personal identification.

90
Q

How do thermal cameras work?

A

They monitor the temperatures of objects in their field of view, and use a grayscale to represent temperatures in black-and-white. Color may be artificially assigned.

91
Q

A specially constructed room or area intended to limit access and provide protection to the assets in the space is known as what?

A

A vault.

92
Q

A safe weighing less than what is required to be anchored?

A

750 pounds (340 kg).

93
Q

What organization has a well-established protocol for testing and rating safes and protective containers?

A

Underwriters Laboratories (UL).

94
Q

Underwriters Laboratories (UL) designates what three classes of records protection equipment?

A

Class 350, specified for paper records and products.
Class 150, specified for magnetic media, tapes, disks, and photographic material.
Class 125, specified for floppy disks and similar flexible computer media.

95
Q

What differentiates high-security locks from other mechanical locks?

A

The keys are cut at precise angles and depths, so that the key will both raise the individual tumbler array of drivers, and pins to a sheer line and, at the same time, turn each pin, so that the interlocking mechanism is positioned to pass through a groove at the base of the plug, permitting it to rotate enough to move the bolt.

96
Q

What is the purpose of master keying?

A

Master Keying is used to provide a hierarchy of access to groups of locks, from access to only one lock, to increasingly larger groups of locks, and to all locks in the population.

97
Q

What are the primary attack avenues of mechanical locks?

A

Attack by force,
Surreptitious attack,
Attack by impression-making and try keys.

98
Q

What are the four major components of lighting systems?

A

Lamp (lightbulb),
Luminaire (fixture),
Mounting hardware,
Electrical power.

99
Q

What constitutes lighting operating costs?

A

Capital items (8%),
Maintenance (4%),
Energy (88%).

100
Q

What additional lighting considerations must be made for electronic surveillance systems and/or cameras?

A

Color rendering index (CRI) for accurate reproduction, and identification of colors,
Reflectance of materials,
Directionality of the reflected lighting.

101
Q

What discipline addresses the design of facilities and building complexes such that security features are built in from the start rather than as an afterthought?

A

Security, architecture and design.

102
Q

What may be included as perimeter protection?

A

Fence line,
Security officers,
Cameras,
Vehicle barriers,
Intrusion detection systems,
Signs,
Natural barriers.

103
Q

What are the three types of security zones?

A

Perimeter,
Nonexclusive zone,
Exclusive zone.

104
Q

Which security zone typically features entry control and vehicle barriers?

A

Perimeter.

105
Q

Which security zone typically features controlled entry with less restrictive access and public right-of-way?

A

Nonexclusive zone.

106
Q

Which security zone typically features controlled entry with highly restrictive access and access control with proximity cards, keypads, passwords, or facial recognition CCTV?

A

Exclusive zone.

107
Q

What spacing is typically used for signage on boundary fences?

A

50 feet (15 m).

108
Q

What are two categories of barriers?

A

Passive (fixed) and active (operable).

109
Q

Where are active barriers most often used?

A

Active barriers are used at vehicle access control points within a perimeter barrier system or at the entry to specific buildings within a site to provide a barrier for vehicle screening or inspection.

110
Q

How is a barrier rated?

A

ASTM and the US Department of State both rate barriers according to vehicle weight and speed. ASTM ratings are M30, M40, and M50, while Department of State ratings are K4, K8, and K12.

111
Q

What barrier rating stops a 15,000 pound (6800 kg) vehicle traveling at 30 mph (48 km/h)?

A

K4 or M30.

112
Q

During a fire emergency, how does a fail-safe locking mechanism respond?

A

A fail-safe locking mechanism will unlock under any failure condition, such as loss of power.

113
Q

During a fire emergency, how does a fail-secure locking mechanism respond?

A

A fail-secure locking mechanism remains locked when power is lost or another failure occurs.

114
Q

What is second generation CPTED?

A

Second generation CPTED refocuses attention to encompass not only reducing physical opportunities for crime but also creating a sense of neighborliness to help reduce motives that cause crime in the first place.

115
Q

What are the four main strategies of second generation CPTED?

A

Cohesion,
Capacity threshold,
Community culture,
Connectivity.

116
Q

What are the five most common types of badges?

A

Magnetic stripe,
Wiegand wire,
Bar codes,
Proximity,
Smart cards.

117
Q

How does magnetic stripe encoding work?

A

A strip of magnetic material located along one edge of the badge is encoded with data. The data are read as the magnetic strip is moved through or inserted into a magnetic reader.

118
Q

How are proximity badges classified?

A

By the method of powering the badge,
By the operating frequency range of the badge,
Whether the badge is read-only or has read/write capability.

119
Q

What are six types of electrified locking mechanisms?

A

Electric deadbolt,
Electric latch,
Electric strike,
Electric lockset,
Exit device,
Electromagnetic lock.

120
Q

How does a biometric lock function?

A

Biometric locks function by verifying a person’s specific physical characteristic; if that characteristic is verified, the locking device is activated to permit access.

121
Q

What are the two error types in biometric technologies?

A

False reject (type I error): the improper rejection of an authorized user,
False accept (type II error): the improper acceptance of an unauthorized person.

122
Q

What are two methods that can be used to detect metal?

A

Continuous-wave detectors and pulsed-field detectors.

123
Q

What are the x-ray approaches for package search?

A

Single energy transmission x-ray,
Multiple-energy x-ray,
Computed tomography (CT) scan,
Backscatter x-ray.

124
Q

Which type of x-ray can be safely used on people?

A

Low-dose backscatter x-ray.

125
Q

What methods are used for trace explosives detection?

A

Ion mobility spectrometry,
Colorimetric,
Chemiluminescence,
Mass spectrometry,
Fluorescence,
Canine olfaction.

126
Q

What are two ways biological agent detection differs from chemical detection?

A

Most biological agents are not immediately lethal, so response time may not be as critical as for chemical attacks.
Biological detection methods usually involve filtering air for several hours then analyzing the filter, while chemical detectors sample air at various perimeter locations and work more quickly.

127
Q

What is a nuisance alarm?

A

Any alarm not caused by an intrusion.

128
Q

What are three main characteristics of intrusion sensor performance?

A

Probability of detection (PD),
Nuisance alarm rate,
Vulnerability to defeat.

129
Q

The probability of detection depends on what factors?

A

Target to be detected,
Sensor hardware design,
Installation conditions,
Sensitivity adjustment,
Weather conditions,
Condition of the equipment.

130
Q

What are three general ways to defeat a sensor?

A

Bypass,
Adversary path, exploitation,
Spoof.

131
Q

What are classifications of intrusion sensors?

A

Passive or active,
Covert or visible,
Line-of-sight or terrain-following (exterior only),
Volumetric or line detection,
Application.

132
Q

What are the main elements of video surveillance?

A

Field of view,
Scene,
Lens,
Camera,
Transmission medium,
Monitor,
Recording equipment.

133
Q

What are four uses for video surveillance?

A

To obtain visual information about something that is happening,
To obtain visual information about something that has happened,
To deter or discourage undesirable activities,
To use video analytics tools.

134
Q

What are the three theoretical identification views of a video surveillance system?

A

Subject identification,
Action identification,
Scene identification.

135
Q

What are the typical parts of a video surveillance system (VSS)?

A

Camera,
Transmission medium,
Power over Ethernet (PoE) network switch,
Recording equipment.

136
Q

What are the five main types of camera lenses?

A

Wide-angle,
Standard,
Telephoto,
Zoom,
Varifocal.

137
Q

When should the object occupy at least 10% of the scene’s width?

A

For subject identification.

138
Q

What are the five basic tasks of physical protection system (PPS) implementation?

A

Conducting planning and assessment to determine security requirements;
Developing conceptual solutions for resolving vulnerabilities;
Preparing PPS design and construction documents;
Soliciting bids and conducting pricing and vendor negotiations;
Installing, testing, and commissioning the PPS.

139
Q

A typical integrated physical protection system (PPS) project would include what six elements?

A

Project concept,
Designing the project,
Managing the bid process,
Managing the implementation process,
Acceptance of work,
Initializing and managing the warranty process.