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RETENTION ENHANCEMENT EXAM > APK EHANCEMENT > Flashcards

APK EHANCEMENT Flashcards

1
Q

Chiasmal lesions could result in the following visual field defects:

I. Transection of the optic nerve results in ipsilateral monocular blindness

II. Lesion to the right optic tract results to left homonymous hemianopsia

III. Chiasmal lesion produces bitemporal hemianopsia

IV. Lesion involving both the optic nerve and the optic chiasm produces ipsilateral blindness and a temporal field defect in the other eye

a. All are correct
b. I, II, III are correct
c. All are incorrect
d. II and IV are correct
e. I and III

A. All are correct

A

a. All are correct

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2
Q

The ankle is the most commonly injured joint during sports activities usually due to inversion sprain. The following are valid reasons, except:

I. Tibial malleolus is more proximal than the fibular malleolus

II. Greater eversion range of motion of the talocrural joint

III. Lateral collateral ligaments are separated from each other

IV. Lateral collateral ligaments are greater than the medial collateral ligaments

a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. None of these

a. All of these

A

d. II and IV

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3
Q

The following are true of the terminal rotation of the knee:

I. Allows humans with an energy-efficient mechanism a mechanical stability to stand erect with quadriceps muscle contraction

II. Terminal rotation is seen as internal rotation of the femur on the fixed tibia in an open-chain motion

III. In the last 20 degrees of knee extension, the femur externally rotates about 20 degrees on the fixed tibia

IV. It is a mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented

a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. None of these

a. All of these

A

e. None of these

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4
Q

In thrombosis of the anterior spinal artery, the following happens, except:

I. Sudden onset of symptom with severe pain

II. Produces bilateral atrophy and flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion

III. Damage to the spinothalamic tract results in loss of pain and temperature sense

IV. Involvement of bilateral corticospinal tract results in spastic paraplegia

a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

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5
Q

These are found in the parietal lobe:

I. Precentral gyrus
II. Postcentral gyrus
III. Angular gyrus
IV. Cingulate gyrus
V. Supramarginal gyrus

a. All of these
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III, IV, and V
d. II, III, and V
e. I, III, and V

A

d. II, III, and V

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6
Q

Which of the following muscles will be affected in a tunnel of guyon compression neuropathy?

I. Adductor pollicis
II. 4th and 5th lumbricals
III. Flexor digiti minimi
IV. Interossei
V. 4th and 5th FDP

a. All of these
b. I, II, III, and IV
c. I, II, and III
d. I, III, and V
e. II, IV, and V

A

a. All of these

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is/are true in motions of the knee?

I. Axial rotation occurs best when
the knee is extended

II. Accessory motions are normally
produced when the knee is in
full extension

III. The axis for flexion and
extension is clinically
approximated as directed
through the center of the
lateral and medial condyles of
the femur

IV. Terminal rotation of the knee
is an unlocking mechanism
observed during the last 20
degrees of knee extension

a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I, and III
d. Only IV
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

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8
Q

The following statements characterize the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, EXCEPT:

I. Sensory function is mediated by
this nerve
II. There is no atrophy and no
motor or reflex change
III. More apt to occur with
metabolic disorders
IV. Some sensory loss to pain and
touch is typical

a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

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9
Q

The following are treatment principles of neuropathic atrophy or charcot’s joint, EXCEPT:

I. Treatment is mainly palliative

II. Immobilization and joint
protection are two important
principles of treatment

III. Where conservative management
fails, joint replacement is
performed

IV. Where conservative management
fails, surgical fusion is
recommended

V. Whenever possible, the underlying
neurologic disorder should be
treated

a. I and III
b. I, II, and V
c. II, IV, and V
d. I, III, and V
e. I, II, and IV

A

a. I and III

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10
Q

In central cord syndrome, the following are correct:

I. Occurs with flexion injuries of
the neck

II. Sensory deficits are more
severe than motor impairments

III. Motor function of the lower
extremity is more affected than
that of the UE

IV. Associated with congenital
narrowing of the spinal canal

a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. None of these
e. Only IV

A

e. Only IV

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11
Q

The following are included under perception, EXCEPT:

I. Right/left discrimination disorder and vertical orientation

II. Stereognosis and 2-pt discrimination

III. Tactile localization and vibration

IV. Hemianopsia and neglect

a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. Only IV
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

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12
Q

Manifestation of radial nerve injury, EXCEPT:

I. Weakness of the extensor digitorum communis

II. Weakness of the extensor carpi ulnaris

III. Wrist drop deformity

IV. Clawing of the digits

a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. Only IV
e. None of these

A

d. Only IV

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12
Q

What is the position of the wrist to palpate for the lunate?

a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Radial deviation
d. Ulnar deviation

A

a. Flexion

Distal to Lister’s tubercle; MC dislocated, 2nd MC fractured carpal bone; (+) Murphy’s sign (equal height of MCPs)

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12
Q

This type of contraction occurs when muscular tension equals the opposing force

a. Relaxed
b. Isometric
c. Isotonic
d. Concentric
e. Centric

A

b. Isometric

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12
Q

Lesion to the neocerebellum will result to the following manifestations, EXCEPT:

I. Intention tremor
II. Dysdiadochokinesia
III. Dysmetria
IV. Dyssynergia

a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

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12
Q

The components of flexor synergy for shoulder includes:

a. Scapular adduction, depression, shoulder Adduction and IR

b. Scapular adduction, elevation, shoulder Abduction and ER

c. Scapular abduction, protraction, shoulder Adduction and IR

d. Scapular abduction, retraction and shoulder Abduction

A

b. Scapular adduction, elevation, shoulder Abduction and ER

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13
Q

Happiness hormones include the following:

I. Dopamine
II. Serotonin
III. Endorphins
IV. Oxytocin

a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. I and IV
e. None of these

A

a. All of these

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14
Q

In lowering yourself to a chair from standing to sitting, the quadriceps are doing:

a. Isometric contraction
b. positive work
c. Eccentric contraction
d. concentric contraction

A

c. Eccentric contraction

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15
Q

Rotator cuff muscles include, EXCEPT:

a. Suprapinatus
b. Teres major
c. Teres minor
d. Subscapularis

A

b. Teres major

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16
Q

Which type of contraction generates the greatest force output

a. Slow concentric
b. Fast concentric
c. Slow eccentric
d. Fast eccentric

A

d. Fast eccentric

Fast eccentric > Slow eccentric > Isometric > Slow concentric > Fast concentric

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17
Q

Normal end feel of radial deviation

a. Soft
b. Hard
c. Tissue stretch
d. Empty

A

c. Tissue stretch

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18
Q

If the rhomboids major, rhomboids minor and pectoralis minor are paralyzed, which movement will be hard for the patient to perform?

a. Upward rotation
b. Protraction
c. Downward rotation
d. Retraction

A

c. Downward rotation

SA: Downward rotation + Retraction

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19
Q

Ella, the clinician, is in the middle of examining Tyler, her first patient for the day. Because of the history she has taken, Ella knows that Tyler’s right dominant shoulder became injured while he was working. He is a house painter who has spent the last month painting ceilings in a very large mansion. His right shoulder is painful in the area just above the glenohumeral joint, especially when he raises his arm above his head. The pain has increased so much that it now bothers him when he reaches up to comb his hair or pulls his wallet out of his back pocket. What action is needed to perform those activities?

a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, IR
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, ER
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, ER
d. Shoulder extension, adduction, IR

A

c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, ER

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20
Q

Which of the following is/are true about slow and fast twitch muscle fiber EXCEPT?

a. Slow twitch fibers are mainly organized for
endurance especially for generation of aerobic energy
b. The number of capillaries is greater in vicinity of slow fibers than in the vicinity of fast twitch fibers
c. Fast twitch are about twice as large in diameter
d. NOTA

A

d. NOTA

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21
Q

Placing the hand behind the head, as in
combing one’s hair, requires the
following shoulder complex motions
EXCEPT:

a. Sternoclavicular joint elevation
b. Anterior rotation of the clavicle
c. Scapular upward rotation,
d. Glenohumeral joint elevation with
full lateral rotation

A

b. Anterior rotation of the clavicle

*Posterior rotation of the clavicle

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22
Q

During supination, what is moving?

a. Ulna
b. Radius
c. Both radius and ulna
d. Only the distal ulna

A

b. Radius

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23
Q

Rupture of this ligament shows that the tibia can be pulled excessively forward on the femur:

a. Posterior Cruciate Ligament
b. Medial Collateral Ligament
c. Lateral Collateral Ligament
d. Anterior Cruciate Ligament

A

d. Anterior Cruciate Ligament

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24
Q

This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component:

a. Spurt
b. Isotonic
c. Isometric
d. Shunt
e. Concentric

A

d. Shunt

***Spurt - greater mobility

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25
Q

Position of forearm to isolate brachialis as an elbow flexor

a. Pronation
b. Supination
c. Midposition
d. NOTA

A

a. Pronation

***Not affected by FA position; chief elbow flexor

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26
Q

A stroke patient with residual left hemiparesis has good control of his left proximal muscles. He is being initially taught how to put on the
left-sleeve of his polo. Which PNF pattern can be used to facilitate this movement:

a. Right arm towards D1F, left arm towards D2E
b. Left arm towards D1F, right arm towards D2E
c. Left and right upper extremities toward D1F
d. Left and right upper extremities toward D2E

A

a. Right arm towards D1F, left arm towards D2E

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27
Q

A patient presents to therapy with poor motor control of the LE. The PT determines that to work efficiently toward the goal of returning the patient to his prior level of ambulation, he must work in the ff. order regarding stages of control:

a. Mobility, controlled mobility, stability, skill
b. Stability, controlled stability, mobility, skill
c. Skill, controlled stability, controlled mobility
d. Mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill

A

d. Mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill

“MS.CS”

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28
Q

First real stability pattern

a. Prone on elbows
b. Neck co-contraction
c. Quadruped
d. Standing

A

b. Neck co-contraction

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29
Q

When you ask the client to raise his or her arm in front of his or her body to shoulder height; then ask them to reach forward, which muscles are you testing?

a. Serratus Anterior
b. Pectoralis Major
c. Pectoralis Minor
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA

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30
Q

A 55-year-old patient, six months status post CVA with right hemiparesis, attends therapy on an outpatient basis. As the patient lies supine on the mat, the PT applies resistance to right elbow flexion. The therapist notes mass flexion of the right lower extremity as the resistance is applied. The therapist should document this as:

a. Raimiste’s phenomenon
b. Souque’s phenomenon
c. Coordination synkinesis
d. Homolateral Limb synkinesis

A

d. Homolateral Limb synkinesis

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31
Q

What is the limitation of the inferior glenohumeral ligament?

a. Anterior translation
b. Superior translation
c. Posterior translation
d. Inferior translation
e. AOTA

A

b. Superior translation

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32
Q

Patient suffered from ankle sprain. What structure is most likely affected?

a. Deltoid ligament
b. Plantar Calcaneonavicular ligament
c. Interosseous ligament
d. Talofibular ligament

A

d. Talofibular ligament

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33
Q

In wrist extension, which joint moves first?

a. Radiocarpal joint
b. Midcarpal joint
c. Distal radioulnar joint
d. NOTA

A

b. Midcarpal joint

“FR.EM” = Flexion-Radiocarpal ; Extension-Midcarpal

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34
Q

The following statements concern the spinal cord:

a. The spinal cord has a cervical enlargement for the brachial plexus.
b. The spinal cord possesses spinal nerves that are attached to the cord by anterior and posterior rami.
c. In the adult, the spinal cord usually ends inferiorly at the lower border of the fourth lumbar vertebra.
d. The ligamentum denticulatum anchors the spinal cord to the pedicles of the vertebra along each side.
e. The central canal does not communicate with the fourth ventricle of the brain.

A

a. The spinal cord has a cervical enlargement for the brachial plexus.

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35
Q

While reading the medical chart of an infant you are about to examine, you note that the patient has been diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot. Which of the following findings are
associated with this condition?

a. Ventricular septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis, left ventricular hypertrophy, and transposition of the aorta to the right

b. Atrial septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and transposition of the aorta to the right side

c. Ventricular septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and transposition of the aorta to the right

d. Atrial septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and transposition of the aorta to the left

A

c. Ventricular septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and transposition of the aorta to the right

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36
Q

If the anterior deltoids, coracobrachialis, pectoralis Major and biceps brachii are paralyzed, which movement is markedly diminished if not absent?

a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Internal rotation
d. External Rotation

A

a. Flexion

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37
Q

Which of the following ligaments prevents superior translation of the humeral head?

a. Coracohumeral Ligament
b. Transverse humeral Ligament
c. Coracoclavicular Ligament
d. Coracoacromial Ligament
e. Inferior Glenohumeral Ligament

A

a. Coracohumeral Ligament

38
Q

When carrying a 25 lb load in the hand during static standing, which of the following muscle/s is/are responsible for holding the humeral head tightly apposed against the glenoid fossa?

i. Supraspinatus
ii. Teres minor
iii. Infraspinatus
iv. Subscapularis

a. I, II and III
b. I and III
c. II and IV
d. IV only
e. AOTA

A

a. I, II and III

***Forced couple I.T.S + Deltoid when performing OKC with UE

39
Q

When you ask the client to place his or her hands behind his or her head or to the back of the neck with elbows pointed out, what muscle/muscles are you testing?

a. Infraspinatus
b. Teres minor
c. Deltoid
d. Supraspinatus
e. AOTA

A

e. AOTA

40
Q

Patient cannot comb his hair and but reach the back pocket. What is contracted?

a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, IR
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, ER
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, ER
d. Shoulder extension, adduction, IR

A

d. Shoulder extension, adduction, IR

41
Q

The following statements describe the
wrist: EXCEPT:

a. In abduction, the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrium shift medially.

b. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrium shift laterally in adduction.

c. Due to reinforcement provided by fibers, the carpus is forced to move with the radius as a unit during pronation supination.

d. Because the joint is ellipsoidal, movements can occur only in the three axes of the ellipse.

e. It can be flexed, extended, abducted or adducted.

A

d. Because the joint is ellipsoidal, movements can occur only in the three axes of the ellipse.

***2 axes of the ellipse only

42
Q

What is the limitation of the inferior glenohumeral ligament?

a. Anterior translation
b. Superior translation
c. Posterior translation
d. Inferior translation
e. AOTA

A

b. Superior translation

43
Q

Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue are transmitted via:

a. Trigeminal nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. facial nerve
e. vagus nerve

A

d. facial nerve

44
Q

In lateral epicondylitis, repetitive stress may result in injury to the following muscles:

a. All of these
b. Proximal attachments of the extensor radialis brevis
c. Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
d. Extensor Digitorum

A

a. All of these

45
Q

The only two muscles inserted into the back part of the sclera:

a. Superior Oblique and Inferior Oblique
b. Superior Rectus and Medial Rectus
c. None of these
d. Lateral Rectus and Inferior Rectus

A

a. Superior Oblique and Inferior Oblique

46
Q

In radial nerve paralysis, the following happens, EXCEPT:

a. Extension in drop-wrist position is
due to tendon action, not active
contraction
b. Wrist drop develops
c. Grip strength may be good if the wrist is supported in extension by means of a splint
d. The wrist can be actively extended or stabilized for effective grasp

A

d. The wrist can be actively extended or stabilized for effective grasp

***Cannot be actively extended

47
Q

On a full-term, healthy newborn infant, gentle rubbing on one cheek elicits a response that deviates his mouth to that side. This is called:

a. Asymmetric Tonic Neck Reflex
b. Moro Reflex
c. Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex
d. Rooting Reflex
e. Sucking Reflex

A

d. Rooting Reflex

48
Q

The nerve most likely to be injured
in wrist slashing is:

a. Median nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. radial nerve
e. Radio-ulnar nerve

A

a. Median nerve

49
Q

The most important joint in the upper extremity for spatial placement is:

a. Sternoclavicular joint
b. Shoulder joint
c. Claviculohumeral joint
d. Elbow joint
e. Wrist joint

A

b. Shoulder joint

50
Q

The major modifiable risk factors for the development and progression of coronary artery disease include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Habitual smoking
b. Hypertension
c. Physical activity
d. Habitual smoking
e. Hypercholesterolemia

A

c. Physical activity

51
Q

You were endorsed with a patient who sustained a laceration injury to the hand. The surgeon informed you that it was most challenging to perform the surgery owing to poor vascular supply of this severed zone of the hand. Which of the following best describes this region?

a. It is located from the distal FDP insertion to the level of distal palmar crease

b. It is located from the distal insertion of the FDS to the level of the distal palmar crease

c. It is the area under the transverse carpal tunnel

d. It is from the neck of the metacarpals to the distal carpal tunnel

e. It is the area proximal to the wrist

A

b. It is located from the distal insertion of the FDS to the level of the distal palmar crease

52
Q

The volar surfaces of the forearm, wrist and hand, are divided into five flexor zones which when lacerated, can present with symptoms that are consistent with the structures injured in that specific zone. Which of the following would BEST describe the consequences of an injury to Zone II?

a. Inability to complete a full fist due to rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus
b. Loss of wrist and digital flexion, with damage to the ulnar and median nerves
c. Disruption of MCP flexion due to rupture of the lumbricales
d. Inability to flex the PIP and DIP due to injury to extrinsic finger flexors

A

d. Inability to flex the PIP and DIP due to injury to extrinsic finger flexors

53
Q

In holding 12kg basket on left arm, which muscle helps keep the humeral head apposed against the glenoid fossa?

a. Teres minor
b. Biceps
c. Deltoids
d. AOTA

A

a. Teres minor

54
Q

In a normal electrocardiogram, this wave is caused by potentials generated as the ventricles depolarize:

a. T wave
b. QRS complex
c. Q wave
d. P wave

A

b. QRS complex

55
Q

Excessive inversion stress is the most common cause of ankle injury because:

a. The talus can be forced to invert father than it can evert

b. None of these

c. The ligamentous thickenings on the lateral side of the joint are separate, and therefore not as strong as the deltoid

d. All of these

e. The medial malleolus is shorter than the lateral malleolus

A

d. All of these

56
Q

The following statements apply to the 11th cranial nerve, EXCEPT:

a. Lifting the shoulders up toward the ear then resisting the movement from above tests the trapezius

b. This combined motor and sensory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and the upper portion of the trapezius muscles

c. Testing the function of the 11th nerve also tests for involvement of functions by motor neuron disease and dystrophy

d. Testing the function of the 11th nerve will detect weakness of either central or peripheral nuclei of origin

e. The nuclei of origin of the various parts of this nerve are not adjacent and differential paresis may occur from central nuclear lesions

A

b. This combined motor and sensory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and the upper portion of the trapezius muscles

***Purely motor

57
Q

The upper eyelids normally cover 1-2 mm of the superior margin of the cornea in forward gaze. Ptosis of the upper lid is an abnormality which may be due to which condition?

a. Edema due to infection, trauma or venous stasis
b. All of these
c. Horner’s syndrome
d. Third-nerve paresis
e. Myasthenia gravis

A

b. All of these

58
Q

A spot within a muscle, ligament, tendon or periosteal tissue, that elicits a localized rather than referred pain to adjacent areas upon sustained stimulation:

a. Tender point
b. Stimulation point
c. Acupuncture point
d. trigger point
e. motor point

A

a. Tender point

***“Localized”

59
Q

Supplied by the femoral nerve, this neurologic level crosses the anterior portion of the middle of the thigh:

a. L2
b. L1
c. L4
d. L3
e. S1

A

a. L2

60
Q

The neurological basis for sexual dysfunction in men with spinal cord injury (SCI) are as follows: EXCEPT:

a. The parasympathetic spinal outflow originating from the S-2 to S-4 spinal segments is primarily responsible for mediating reflexogenic erection

b. The T-10 to S-2 spinal segments contain the reflex arc that receives sensory afferents from the genitals

c. The neural output from the hypothalamus to the sexual organs courses in the anterolateral columns to terminate in the intermediolateral cell columns of T-10 to L-3

d. In men, the sympathetic output is primarily responsible for regulating ejaculation and psychogenic component of penile erection

e. Supraspinal component of the motor pathways descends with the corticospinal tracts to the S-2 to S4 segments of the sacral cord

A

c. The neural output from the hypothalamus to the sexual organs courses in the anterolateral columns to terminate in the intermediolateral cell columns of T-10 to L-3

***S2-S4

61
Q

Following are measurable determinants of gait, EXCEPT:

a. The knee should remain flexed during all components of stance phase

b. The body’s center of gravity lies two inches in front of the second sacral vertebrae and oscillates no more than two inches in a vertical direction

c. The pelvis and trunk shift laterally approximately one inch to the weightbearing side

d. The width of the base should not be more than two to four inches from heel to heel

A

a. The knee should remain flexed during all components of stance phase

62
Q

The following muscles arise from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and bounds the medial side of the antecubital fossa:

a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

b. Flexor Digitorum Sublimis, Flexor Digitorum Profundus and Flexor Pollicis Longus

c. None of these

d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis

A

d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis

63
Q

Paralysis of the left gluteus maximus is compensated for during the stance phase by:

a. Increased ankle plantarflexion of the affected extremity

b. Hyperextension of the spine

c. External tibial torsion at heel strike

d. Maintenance of knee flexion of affected extremity

A

b. Hyperextension of the spine

64
Q

Persistent asymmetry of the Moro reflex suggest the following, EXCEPT:

a. Hemiparesis
b. Fracture of the clavicle
c. Injury to the brachial plexus
d. Hemiplegia
e. Fracture of the humerus

A

d. Hemiplegia

65
Q

The following statements apply to
cane selection, EXCEPT:

a. To determine proper sizing, ask patient to stand with the cane’s tip 4” (10 cm) to the side of his foot, the cane should extend from the floor to his hip joint

b. A rubber tip keeps the cane from slipping and helps prevent accident

c. As the cane is held, the elbow should be flexed at a 45 degree angle

d. As the cane is held, the elbow should be flexed at a 30 degree angle

e. If he has poor balance, he’ll probably need a broad-based cane

A

c. As the cane is held, the elbow should be flexed at a 45 degree angle

***20-30 deg of elbow flexion

66
Q

When applied, second class levers can be:

a. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
b. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
c. Levers of stability and speed
d. All of these

A

b. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage

***Lever 2 (Power)

67
Q

Atrial depolarization is represented in the ECG as the:

a. ST interval
b. P wave
c. PR interval
d. QRS complex
e. T wave

A

b. P wave

68
Q

The distal carpal consists of the
following, EXCEPT:

a. Hamate
b. Navicular
c. Capitate
d. Trapezium
e. Trapezoid

A

b. Navicular

***Navicular = “Scaphoid”

69
Q

Normal cardiac rhythm is:
a. 40-70 bpm
b. 30-60 bpm
c. 120-150 bpm
d. 60-90 bpm
e. 100-130 bpm

A

d. 60-90 bpm

70
Q

Any bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles that results in increased energy expenditure:

a. Physical activity
b. Training
c. Exercise
d. Performance
e. physical fitness

A

a. Physical activity

71
Q

The following muscle chiefly flex the distal interphalangeal joint:

a. Lumbricals
b. Flexor Digitorum Profundus and Flexor Pollicis Longus
c. None of these
d. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis and
Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

A

b. Flexor Digitorum Profundus and Flexor Pollicis Longus

72
Q

This transport mechanism exists in all cell bodies and maintains the sodium and potassium concentration differences across the cell membrane; it also established a negative electrical potential inside the cells:

a. Sodium-potassium pump
b. Calcium pump
c. Sodium counter-transport
d. Active transport

A

a. Sodium-potassium pump

73
Q

Which is true of the following examples of anatomic pulleys?

a. In quadriceps and patellar tendons, where the direction of pull is changed as the knee flexes and improves the force arm distance due to the interposed patella.

b. All of these

c. In the leg, where tendons of the peroneal and long toe flexor descend distally on the posterior aspect of the legs and go behind and around the malleoli to form attachments in the foot and toes.

d. In the palmar side of the phalanges, when the flexor digitorum profundus and superficialis contract, their tendons rise for the joint axes and held down by seven pulley-like loops that deflects the tendon with movement.

A

b. All of these

74
Q

These cardinal signs characterized inflammation, EXCEPT:

a. Edema
b. Rubor
c. Pain
d. Heat
e. No disturbance of function

A

e. No disturbance of function

***Cardinal Signs:
Rubor (Redness)
Tumor (Edema)
Dolor (Pain)
Calor (Heat)
Functio lasi (Loss of function)

75
Q

The following statements apply to the common peroneal nerve, EXCEPT:

a. Subject is able to walk on his toes and Achilles reflex is preserved

b. Interruption of the nerve results in loss of dorsiflexion of ankle and toes and in loss of eversion of the foot

c. There is foot drop with hypotonia and atrophy of muscle but not sensory loss

d. Received fibers from the L4, L5, S2, and S2 roots

e. There is varying sensory loss along the lateral aspect of the dorsum of the foot

A

c. There is foot drop with hypotonia and atrophy of muscle but not sensory loss

***Motor and Sensory loss

76
Q

To test this nerve, the subject protrudes the tongue and moves it from side to side:

a. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Vagus nerve
c. Spinal accessory nerve
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

a. Hypoglossal nerve

77
Q

Despite the presence of third cranial nerve paralysis, upon examination it was determined that the eyes is able to rotate inward, indicating that the superior oblique muscle is intact. This indicates:

a. All of these
b. Cranial nerve II is only partially denervated
c. None of these
d. Cranial nerve IV is intact
e. Cranial nerve IV is also denervated

A

d. Cranial nerve IV is intact

78
Q

This muscle is active in foot inversion if accompanied by dorsiflexion:

a. Extensor hallucis longus
b. Tibialis anterior
c. Tibialis posterior
d. Extensor digitorum longus

A

b. Tibialis anterior

79
Q

Among health care workers, the jobfactor described that has the highest problematic percentage for the development of work-related musculoskeletal disorders is:

a. Performing the same task over and over

b. Reaching or working away from your body

c. Lifting or transferring dependent patients

d. Bending or twisting your back in an awkward way

e. Working in the same positions in long periods

A

c. Lifting or transferring dependent patients

80
Q

From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13 to 15 degrees. A decrease in this angle, a factor in out-toeing during walking, is called:

a. Coxa vara
b. Coxa valga
c. Retroversion
d. Anteversion

A

c. Retroversion

81
Q

In the jaw reflex involving the masseter and temporalis muscles, this cranial nerve mediates the reflex are:

a. Facial
b. Accessory
c. Hypoglossal
d. Glossopharyngeal
e. Trigeminal

A

e. Trigeminal

82
Q

The perpendicular distance from the pivot point to the line of action of the weight is called the:

a. Lever Arm
b. Mechanical Advantage
c. Force Arm
d. Weight Arm

A

d. Weight Arm

83
Q

Which eye muscles are contracting when the subject is looking downward and to the left:

a. Left superior rectus and right inferior oblique

b. Right inferior rectus and left superior oblique

c. Right superior rectus and left inferior oblique

d. Left inferior rectus and right superior oblique

A

d. Left inferior rectus and right superior oblique

84
Q

In Moro reflex, when the infant is held in supine and the head is gently, but abruptly, allowed to drop in partial hyperextension, the following response is observed, EXCEPT:

a. The legs flex slightly
b. Deviates his mouth to a lateral side
c. The hips abduct but to a lesser degree than the arms
d. The arms return forward over the body in a clasping maneuver
e. The arms briskly abduct and extend while the hands open

A

b. Deviates his mouth to a lateral side

***Describes procedure for Rooting reflex

85
Q

A terminal branch of the internal
carotid artery:

a. None of these
b. Opthalmic artery
c. Middle cerebral artery
d. Lenticulostriate arteries

A

c. Middle cerebral artery

86
Q

The following statements are true of the right atrium, EXCEPT:

a. It receives the venous blood returning from all parts of the body except the lungs

b. The superior vena cava enters it vertically from above

c. The inferior vena cava enters it vertically from below

d. It receives blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins

A

d. It receives blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins (Left atrium)

87
Q

Reflex response mediated by more than two neurons:

a. None of these
b. Both of these
c. Polysynaptic nerve response
d. Monosynaptic reflex response

A

c. Polysynaptic nerve response

88
Q

The first to seventh ribs attached to sternum, the 8th to 10th ribs are joined by cartilage; 11th and 12th ribs have free ends:

a. All statements are true
b. All statements are false
c. Last statement is true, first two statements are false
d. First two statements are true, last statement is false

A

a. All statements are true

89
Q

The following statements apply to motor aphasia, EXCEPT:

a. Spoken language is slow and full of effort with poorly produced sounds

b. Lesions is in Broca’s area

c. Extreme difficulty in expressing certain grammatical words and phrases

d. Poor comprehension of spoken and written language

A

d. Poor comprehension of spoken and written language (Global Aphasia)

90
Q

The following statements are true of the terminal rotation of the knee, EXCEPT:

a. Allows humans with an energy efficient mechanism a mechanical stability to stand erect without quadriceps muscle contraction

b. Terminal rotation is seen as internal rotation of the femur on the fixed tibia in a closed-chain motion

c. In the last 20 degrees of knee extension, the tibia externally rotates about 20 degrees on the fixed femur

d. It is mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented.

A

d. It is mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented.

91
Q

Flexion and extension occurs in this plane, and divides the body into right and left sides:

a. Frontal Plane
b. Horizontal Plane
c. Sagittal Plane
d. None of these

A

c. Sagittal Plane

92
Q

The following statements are true of the Median Nerve, EXCEPT:

a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbricals

b. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch the Anterior Interosseous Nerve

c. It is forced from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus

d. It accompanies the axillary and brachial arteries but gives no branch until it reaches the elbow region

A

a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbricals

***Lumbricals are innervated both by Median and Ulnar nerve

93
Q

In a resting state, the cell membrane is:

a. None of these
b. Polarized with the outside positive in relation to the inside
c. Depolarized with the outside negative in relation to the inside
d. Positive and negative polarization are distributed equally on either side

A

b. Polarized with the outside positive in relation to the inside

94
Q

The statements apply to inspiratory capacity, EXCEPT:

a. Equals residual volume plus the inspiratory reserve volume

b. Amount of air one can breath at normal expiratory level and distending the lungs to the maximum

c. Equals tidal volume plus the inspiratory reserve level

d. Amount of air is about 3500 ml

A

a. Equals residual volume plus the inspiratory reserve volume

95
Q

Failure to recognize stimuli when the appropriate sensory systems are functioning adequately:

a. Aphasia
b. Agnosia
c. Aphonia
d. Apraxia

A

b. Agnosia

96
Q

Amount of air remaining in the lungs at the end of normal expiration:

a. Vital capacity
b. Inspiratory capacity
c. Functional residual capacity
d. Total lung capacity

A

c. Functional residual capacity

RETENTION ENHANCEMENT EXAM (3 decks)

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