APK Flashcards

1
Q
MAJOR INTRACELLULAR CATIONS IS BALANCE INTRACELLULARY BY WHICH ANION?
A. Cl-
B. HCO3
C. HPO4
D. ORGANIC ANIONS
E. Kmn04
A

C. HPO4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In a recent study conducted on phonophoresis, where hydrocortisone was prepared by blending hydrocortisone acetate with aquasonic gel, which of the following statement is true?

A

5 min of hyrdrocortisone phonoporesis with 10% hydrocortisone using continuous US at 1.0w/cm did not result in an increase in human serum cortisol level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
Blood cells activated by antigen only when this is associated with another host cell
A. B lymphocytes
B. T-lymphocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Neutrophils
E. Basophils
A

B. T-lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Suggested dimension for an extremity whirlpool in hydrotherapy area

A

7x8 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
Nutritional components necessary for proper erythrocyte formation and malnutrition
A. all of these
B. Riboflavin Vit B2
C. Iron and Folic Acid
E. Iron
A

C. Iron and Folic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
Of the body water component the largest is occupied by the 
A. Transcellular fluid
B. Intracellular fluid
C. Plasma
D. SC
E. Interstitial Fluid
A

B. intracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vacuum compression therapy may be applied following whirlpool cleansing of the wound at these manufacturer prescribed settings to emphasize the vacuum phase of the cycle in an attempt to increase capillary filling

A

-0.10 bar (-75mmHg) of negative pressure for 90 secs followed by 0.05 bar (38.5mmHg) of positive pressure for 30 secs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This ligament accompanies the supraspinatus in preventing downward dislocation of the humeral head

A

Coracohumeral ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Rate of work performed at any given point

A

Energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Decrease in RMP, making it more positive

A

DEPOLARIZATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Increase in RMP, making it more negative

A

HYPERPOLARIZATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Common origin of gracilis, adductor brevis and adductor magnus

A

INFERIOR RAMUS OF PUBIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vasomotor center

A

pons and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A solution in water crystalloids and colloids

A

Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Foot deformity where front part of foot does not touch the ground

A

Pes calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

High arch foot

A

Pes cavus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True of the quads except
A. Small amount of quads activity if the the COG line passes behind the knee axis
B. There is no quads activity in (B) standing in most cases
C. Standing erect is still possible even with (B) quads paralysis even without braces
D. Keeping the knees slightly flexed minimizes knee collapse during postural sway

A

C. Standing erect is still possible even with (B) quads paralysis even without braces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lobe is rostral to the central sulcus and above the lateral fissure

A

Frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Elicits tenderness over a neuroma within a nn

A

Tinel sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Flexes the knee into full extent and passively allows it to extend completely with sharp end points

A

bounce home test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rapid exchange of (+) and (-) ions due to cells increase in permeability is termed

A

DEPOLARIZATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The femoral head enters and leaves the acetabular

A

ORTOLANI CLICK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The following statements describe the lateral compartment of the knee, EXCEPT

a. Although the anterior cruciate ligament is an important stabilizer of the knee, whether to repair it after injury is controversial
b. Muscular support is provided by the iliotibial band and iliotibial tract
c. The tension on the bundles of the anterior cruciate ligament is altered as the knee moves from extension to flexion
d. The anterior third of the lateral capsule provides little static support
e. The insertion of the popliteus muscle reinforces the posterior third of the lateral capsular ligament

A

c. The tension on the bundles of the anterior cruciate ligament is altered as the knee moves from extension to flexion (FLEXION TO EXTENSION DAPAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The liver measures about __ of the body weight

A

1/5 of body wt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The following are true of anterolateral rotator instability of the knee, EXCEPT

a. Refers to posterior subluxation of the medial tibial plate in an internal rotation direction
b. Commonly results from a chronic anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency associated with a lax lateral capsule
c. The compressive forces on the lateral compartment during weight bearing may cause a severely painful sensation of the knee’s slipping out of place
d. Less commonly, it can be a result of an acute tear of the lateral capsule
e. Described to be a reduction of the tibia upon the femur after subluxation which usually occurs when there is knee flexed from 10-20 degrees and when the iliotibial band lies anterior to the axis of knee rotation

A

A. REFERS TO POSTERIOR SUBLUXATION OF THE MEDIAL TIBIAL PLATE IN AN INTERNAL ROTATION DIRECTION

(SHOULD BE ANTERIOR SUBLUXATION OF THE LATERAL TIBIAL PLATE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MARK ACTIAL LEVELS OF VERTEBRAL BODIES, THEY MAKE EXCELLENT REFERENCE PTS FROM WHICH TO IDENTIFY OTHER VERTEBRAE

A

L4 AND L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CHARACTERISTICS OF FASCIOSCAPULOHUMERAL DYSTROPHY OF LANDOUZY AND DEJERINE ARE AS FOLLOWS EXCEPT
A. LORDOSIS IS EXAGGERATED
B. IT PROGRESSES QUICKLY, RESULTING IN DISABILITY YEARS AFTER ONSET
C. ATROPHY OF FACE BECOMES SEVERE
D. USUALLY APPEARS IN THE SECOND DECADE OF LIFE IN EITHER SEX

A

B. IT PROGRESSES QUICKLY, RESULTING IN DISABILITY YEARS AFTER ONSET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

HIP REPAIR SURGICAL PROCEDURE INVOLVES REMOVAL OF A BONE WEDGE TO SHIFT WB STRESSES AWAY FROM DEGENERATED CARTILAGE ONTO HEALTHY CARTILAGE

A

DISPLACEMENT OSTEOTOMY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

THE MIDDLE TRUNK IS FORMED BY THESE ROOTS

A

C6 AND C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

PRONATION AND SUPINATION OCCURS MAINLY ON

A

RADIOULNAR JT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CREASE AT THE BASE OF THE FINGERS AND MARKS LOCATION OF PROXIMAL PULLEY

A

PROXIMAL PALMAR CREASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CAUDAL CONTINUATION OF THE PIA MATER

A

FILUM TERMINALE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

TAPERED END

A

CONUS MEDULLARIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

HORSE TAIL

A

CAUDA EQUINA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

THE FOLLOWING APPLY TO HYPERBARIC OXYGEN THERAPY EXCEPT

a. Administering 100% oxygen at pressures higher than three times of sea level can cause central nervous system toxicosis
b. Repeated treatment in a multiplace chamber may result in complication, i.e. pneumothorax, air embolism, CNS and pulmonary intoxicity (can’t find anything about this)
c. Provides as oxygen-rich environment to help destroy the anaerobic organism that cause gas gangrene
d. Increasing the barometric pressure inside the chamber result in ½ or 1/3 concentration

A

D. INCREASING THE BAROMETRIC PRESSURE INSIDE THE CHAMBER RESULT IN 1/2 OR 1/3 OF CONC. (SHOULD BE 2X/3X CONC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The following statements apply to condylar fractures of the knee, EXCEPT

a. Usually, there is anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular action of the gastrocnemius muscle as well as a reduction of the femoral length by the action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscle
b. Single condylar fracture often occur from severe varus or valgus forces and the fracture line may be vertical and in the sagittal plane or it may be vertical in coronary plane
c. Prolonged, rigid immobilization, is usually unnecessary, but full weight bearing is usually restricted during the three months following the injury
d. Supracondylar fractures may be caused by direct trauma or by a torsion stress placed upon the lower extremity
e. Femoral condyles are rarely injured and fractures of the femur may be of the “Y” or “T” type and usually include soft tissue damage

A

A. USUALLY THERE IS ANTERIOR DISPLACEMENT OF THE DISTAL FRAGMENT CAUSED BY THE MUSCULAR ACTION OF THE GASTROCS AS WELL AS REDUCTION OF THE FEMORAL LENGTH BY THE ACTION OF THE HAMSTRINGS AND QUADS FEMORIS.

*SHOULD BE POST DISPLACEMENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

PERTINENT TEST FOR ANTEROMEDIAL ROTATOR INSTABILITY

A

ABDUCTION STRESS TEST AT 30 DEG FLEXION AND ER ANTERIOR DRAWER SIGN

38
Q

The following statements apply to the median nerve, EXCEPT

a. Sensory loss involves the palmar surface of the hand and fingers
b. There is conspicuous atrophy of the thenar eminence with flattening of the palm
c. Partial injuries are often painful and paresthetic and causalgia may occur
d. Interrupt at the elbow produces weakness of the wrist flexion with median deviation
e. Carries fibers from the C6, C7, C8 and T1 roots

A

d. Interrupt at the elbow produces weakness of the wrist flexion with ULNAR not median deviation

39
Q

The following describe care of meniscal injuries, EXCEPT

a. Subjects with horizontal cleavage of the menisci often remain asymptomatic
b. Flexion-extension exercises strengthen the quadriceps femoris mechanism
c. Subjects with vertical tears of the menisci do not heel, but increased strength and flexibility around the knee may allow continues activities until the appropriate surgical procedure is performed
d. Short-arc (terminal extension) or straight-leg-raise exercise cannot be substituted if full-arc exercises cause pain

A

d. Short-arc (terminal extension) or straight-leg-raise exercise cannot be substituted if full-arc exercises cause pain

40
Q
Development of the vertebrae nervous system involves progressive neural events which can include the following, except
A. retraction of neural projections
B. formation of complex neural pathways
C. Synaptogenesis
D. Myelinisation
E. Axonal growth
A

A. RETRACTION OF NEURAL PROJECTIONS (REGRESSIVE EVENTS)

41
Q

REDUCES VERTICAL RISE OF COG

A

PELVIC LIST

42
Q

CHILDREN WITH SPASTIC CP DEMONSTRATE THE FF GAIT EXCEPT
A. FIXED CONTRACTURE OF TRICEPS SURAE IS EVIDENT
B. MAY BE ACCOMPANIED BY APT DURING STANCE PHASE
C. OFTEN ACCOMPANIED BY EXCESSIVE KNEE FLEXION AND EXTENSION
D. DECREASED WALKING SPEED AND STRIDE LENGTH

A

A. FIXED CONTRACTURE OF TRICEPS SURAE (NOT FIXED)

43
Q

This/these statement/s describes the excitability property of the neuron

a. It is most excitable when the membrane potential is reduced to its firing level
b. It is excitable at all times
c. It can be stimulated again at the spike of the action
d. None of these
e. All of these

A

MOST EXCITABLE WHEN THE MEMBRANE POTENTIAL IS REDUCED TO ITS FIRING LEVEL

44
Q

decrease catecholamine stimulation of the heart may also cause a general decrease in systemic sympathetic activity

A

BETA ADRENERGIC BLOCKERS

45
Q

An upper limb tension test is considered positive if the following are present, EXCEPT:

a. The patient’s responses are different from what is expected for asymptomatic subjects
b. It produces the patient’s symptoms
c. There is tissue resistance or a decrease in the ROM on one side of the body as compared with the other
d. The test responses can be altered by a sensitizing maneuver that provokes an increase in symptoms
e. The symptoms are aggravated by movements that are generally towards form the site of restriction or symptom

A

E. THE SYMPTOMS ARE AGGRAVATED BY MOVEMENTS THAT ARE GENERALLY TOWARDS FROM THE SITE OF RESTRICTION OR SX

46
Q

The following interaction are true, EXCEPT:

a. The muscles are only able to maintain weight and force if they are passively stretched by changing joint angle
b. Physiological extensors that maintain body posture against gravity are activated more frequently than flexors
c. Unloaded muscles lose weight and are less forceful even if they are exercised or stimulated for 20 minutes per day
d. A muscle contracting at a long length would produce a greater load because of the passive length-tension properties of the muscle
e. Shortening contractions in unloaded muscles will induce fatigue more rapidly than isotonic contractions because more oxygen is consumed

A

e. Shortening contractions in unloaded muscles will induce fatigue more rapidly than isotonic contractions because more oxygen is consumed
* SHOULD BE LENGTHENING CONTRACTIONS

47
Q

The following are true of the spinal (or dorsal root) ganglia, EXCEPT:

a. Each spinal nerve possesses one, and the ganglia are found each in an intervertebral foramen resting on a pedicle
b. A collection of cell bodies whose axons are in the anterior horn of the gray matter of the cord
c. Each spinal ganglion’s cell body is a part of a unipolar, afferent neuron having a T-shaped axon
d. All of these

A

b. A collection of cell bodies whose axons are in the anterior horn of the gray matter of the cord

48
Q

COG AT ITS LOWEST POINT IS RAISED BY

A

PELVIC ROTATION

49
Q

ANTERIOR 1/3 IS ROSTRAL TO THE CENTRAL SULCUS AND ABOVE THE LATERAL FISSURE ON THE LATERAL SURFACE OF THE HEMISPHERE

A

FRONTAL LOBE

50
Q

THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS CHARACTERIZE THE NS EXCEPT
A. THE SPEED AT WHICH A NN IMPULSE TRAVELS ALONG THE LENGTH OF AN AXON IS RELATED TO THE DIAMETER OF AN AXON
IN A PERIPHERAL NN, THE AVERAGE CONDUCTION VELOCITY OF LARGE MOTOR AND SENSORY FIBERS IS ABOUT THE SAME
C. IMPULSE CONDUCTION IS FASTER IN AXONS WITH MYELIN SHEATH
D. LARGER AXONS CONDUCT IMPULSES AT A SLOWER VELOCITY

A

D. LARGER AXONS CONDUCT IMPULSES AT A SLOWER VELOCITY (THEY CONDUCT AXONS AT A faster velocity)

51
Q

ability of stomach to accommodate fluid without increase in pressure is known as

A

perceptive relaxation

52
Q

AT A COMFORTAB;LE ROOM TEMP (24-25C), THE MAJOR MECHANISMS OF HEAT EXCHANGE BETWEEN THE SKIN AND ENVIRONMENT IS

A

RADIATION CONVECTION AND EVAPORATION

53
Q

TO PREVENT BOTH REGURGITATION AND ASPIRATION, OPTIMAL POSITION FOR PTS WITH NM CONDITIONS BUT WITHOUT INC IN ICP OR GASTRIC DYSFUNCTION

A

LATERAL TRENDELENBURG

54
Q

IF TWO FORCES ARE PULLING FROM THE SAME PT., THE RESULT FORCE

A

REACHES A MAXIMUM WHEN THE FORCES ARE ON THE SAME LINE AND ACTING IN OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS

55
Q

INHIBITORY POST SYNAPTIC POTENTIAL ARE PRODUCED WITH HYPER POLARIZATON OF THE CELL MEMBRANE DUE TO

A

CHLORIDE ION INFLUX

56
Q

STIMULATION USED IN INDOLENT ULCER

A

ANODAL (FOR PROTEIN BUILDING)

57
Q

AMOUNT OF CALORIES REQUIRED TO CONCENTRATE ONE OSMOLE OF SUBSTANCE TENFOLD

A

1400 CALORIES

58
Q

Coagulopathies interfere with the normal mechanism of the blood and affect the normal blood clotting factor that can result in the following, EXCEPT:

a. Excesses do not contribute to tissue infarction
b. Deficits can contribute to bleeding abnormalities and hemorrhage
c. Excesses can contribute thromboemoli
d. Excesses can contribute to obstruction of blood flow to vital organs
e. Redistribution of spinal forces during lifting as a result of decreased intraabdominal pressure

A

A. EXCESSES DO NOT CONTRIBUTE TO TISSUE INFARCTION

59
Q

The following are possible mechanisms of action for back belts, EXCEPT:

a. Use of biomechanically safe lifting techniques as a result of Proprioceptive input
b. Decreased muscular fatigue and strain during lifting as a result of increased muscle support
c. Decreased ROM as a result limiting spinal ROM
d. Existence of soothing effect as a result of increased local tissue temperature and a sense of safety
e. Redistribution of spinal forces during lifting as a result of decreased intraabdominal pressure

A

Redistribution of spinal forces during lifting as a result of decreased intraabdominal pressure (INCREASED IAP)

60
Q

OSCILLATIONS OF RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIALS OF THE GI SMOOTH MUSCLE NOT ASSOCIATED WITH MUSCLE CONTRACTION IS KNOWN AS

A

SLOW WAVES

61
Q

OSCILLATIONS OF RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIALS OF THE GI SMOOTH MUSCLE ASSOCIATED WITH MUSCLE CONTRACTION IS KNOWN AS

A

SPIKES

62
Q

PROGNOSIS OF PTS. WITH CHF

A

POOR WITH A MORTALITY RATE OF 2 YRS

63
Q

IN THE NEUROPATHIC EXTREMITY, A POOR INDICATION OF INFLAMMATION IS

A

PAIN AND DISTURBANCE OF FUNCTION

64
Q

ENTRY OF CALCIUM INTO THE CARDIAC MM DURING CARDIAC AP IS AN EXAMPLE OF

A

OPENING OF VOLTAGE GATED CHANNEL

65
Q

These neural differences provide part of the basis for the differences in motor behavior that are observed following perinatal brain damage as compared with those found after adult-onset brain damage, EXCEPT:

a. Myelinization is not yet complete
b. There is an abundance of neurons projecting from the cerebral cortex to the brain stem and spinal cord
c. Neurons within the brain has not completely differentiated
d. Some corticofugal projections project to inappropriate targets
e. There is an overabundance of neurons in certain areas such as the spinal cord

A

b. There is an abundance of neurons projecting from the cerebral cortex to the brain stem and spinal cord

66
Q

Galvanic current has gained attention in wound healing due to its predictable electric fields that form around the electrodes, attracting specific types of ions near the different poles. The following takes place under the anode, EXCEPT:

a. Fibroblast migration
b. Increased migration of epidermal cells, macrophages, and leukocytes
c. Protein synthesis
d. Enhanced ion transport
e. Decreased vascular congestion

A

b. Increased migration of epidermal cells, macrophages, and leukocytes(CATHODE)

67
Q

The two-mode theory of vision asserts that:

a. The degeneration of perceptual and sensory systems are linked to potential postural problems
b. The visual system acts only via the clarity with which it sees but also via the information that is generated by the individual’s motion through the environment
c. Spatially distributed information comes via the ambient mode, responsible for orientation and locomotion and the focal mode, responsible for object recognition and identified
d. The somatosensory and visual systems are primarily sensitive to low frequency stimulation
e. Visual perception is anchored to the optic array and emphasizes the importance of optical information retrieved from various sectors to the optic array

A

SPATIALLY DISTRIBUTED INFORMATION COMES VIA THE AMBIENT MODE, RESPONSIBLE FOR ORIENTATION AND LOCOMOTION, AND THE FOCAL MODE RESPONSIBLE FOR OBJECT RECOGNITION AND IDENTIFICATION

68
Q

EXAMPLE OF NICOTINE-ACH RECEPTOR ON THE MUSCLE END PLATE

A

LIGAND GATED

69
Q
  1. Soft tissue palpation of the lumbar spine may present the following observation, EXCEPT:
    a. Activity flexing the hip when there is psoas abscess results in increased pain in the inguinal area indicating hip joint pathology
    b. The sacral triangle is a common area of pain due to low back strains of the avulsion of a tendon from the anterior iliac spine
    c. Fibrofatty nodules that may be lodged under the lip of the iliac crest’s posterior portion may be tender to palpation and cause localized low back pain
    d. With the hip flexed, the sciatic nerve may be palpated midpoint between the ischial tuberosity and the greater tubercle and can be tender to palpation when a herniated disc is present
    e. If either the supraspinous or interspinous ligaments are rupture, the area may be tender and a defect may be palpable between the spinous processes
A

THE SACRAL TRIANGLE IS A COMMON AREA OF PAIN DUE TO LOW BACK STRAINS OF THE AVULSION OF TENDON FROM THE ANTERIOR ILIAC SPINE (SHOULD BE POSTERIOR)

70
Q

SENDS IMPULSES TO INHIBITORY INTERNEURONS TO RELAX ANTAGONIST MUSCLES

A

ANNULOSPIRAL ENDINGS

71
Q

SLING FOR A PT WITH A PAINFUL SHOULDER

A

TRIANGULAR SLING

72
Q

LARGEST CONTRIBUTOR IN PROSTHETIC HIP REACTION FORCE

A

HIP ABDUCTORS

73
Q

The following characterize below-knee amputees, EXCEPT:

a. Increase in gait speed is achieved by lengthening strides rather than by increasing the number of steps per minute
b. Loss of mobility at the ankle and foot, lack of distal muscular control and absent proprioception all contribute to altered gait characteristics
c. These individuals have the potential for very high function because of their retention of normal hip and knee control
d. There is substantial reduction in free walking speed, as a result of both diminished stride length and cadence
e. Strength deficits in the remaining musculature often limit ambulation activity

A

INCREASE IN GAIT SPEED IS ACHIEVED BY LENGTHENING STRIDES RATHER THAN BY INCREASING THE NUMBER OF STEPS PER MINUTE (NOT INCREASING NUMBER OF STEPS BUT LENGTHENING)

74
Q

HOW MANY PD POSITIONS AND LUNG SEGMENTS

A

12 PD POSITIONS AND 14 LUNG SEGMENTS

75
Q

PAIN IN TIBIAL TUBEROSITY IN OSGOOD SCHLATTER IS PRODUCED BY?

A

RESISTED KNEE EXTENSION

76
Q
WHICH OF THE CELL IN THE GLOMERULUS DOES NOT FORM THE MECHANICAL BARRIER TO FILTRATION
A. BASEMENT MEMBRANE
B. PODOCYTES
C. ENDOTHELIAL
D. MESANGEAL CELLS
E. MESOTHELIAL
A

E. MESOTHELIAL

77
Q

MOST DILUTE LUMINAL FLUID WITH ADH

A

DCT

78
Q

MOST CONC WITH ADH

A

COLLECTING DUCT

79
Q

MOST CONC WITHOUT ADH

A

DESCENDING LOOP OF HENLE

80
Q

MOST DILUTE WITHOUT ADH ASCENDING LOOP OF HENLE

A

ASCENDING LOOP OF HENLE

81
Q

CHEMICAL SUBSTANCE THAT ACTIVATE TRYPSINOGEN TO TRYPSIN

A

ENTEROKINASE

82
Q

FILLING OF VENTRICLES OCCURS MAXIMALLY DURING

A

FIRST 1/3 OF DIASTOLE

83
Q

SMALLEST CELLULAR COMPONENT OF BLOOD

A

PLATELET

84
Q

DARK BANDS

A

HAVE AN H BAND AT THE CENTER

85
Q

GLUCOSE IS PRIMARILY ABSORBED VIA

A

SECONDARY ACTIVE TRANSPORT

86
Q

PREDICTOR FOR FIRST TIME OCCURRENCE OF LBP IN MEN

A

SORENSEN

87
Q

NT THAT INCREASES POTASSIUM ION

A

WILL HYPERPOLARIZE THE MEMBRANE

88
Q

VENTRICULAR CELL IS STIMULATED DURING SPIKE OF THE AP, IT WOULD FALL DURING>

A

ABSOLUTE REFRACTORY PERIOD

89
Q

SEGMENT OF NEPHRON PERMEABLE TO WATER

A

THIN DESCENDING LOOP OF HENLE

90
Q

PERCEPTION OF LIGHT BLOW TO THE EYES IS AN EXAMPLE

a. Law of selective energy
b. Doctrine of specific nerve energies
c. Decreased specified stimulus
d. Law of adequate stimulus
e. Phenomenon of referred pain

A

B. DOCTRINE OF SPECIFIC NERVE ENERGIES

91
Q

This statement describes Ca+ absorption

a. Occurs best in distal small intestines
b. Requires the receptor calmodulin
c. Stimulated by both vitamin D and Ca+ excess
d. Involves an active transport process
e. Effective solubilisation

A

INVOLVES AN ACTIVE TRANSPORT PROCESS