Apex- Monitors and Equipment > Cardiac rhythms Flashcards

1
Q

Which pathway depolarizes the left atrium

A. Thorel tract
B. Bachmann bundle
C. Kent bundle
D. Wenckebach tract

A

B. Bachmann bundle

There are 3 internodal tracts that travel from the SA to aV node:
1. Anterior internodal tract (gives rise to the Bachmann bundle)
2. Middle internodal tract (wenkebach tract)
3. Posterior internodal tract (thorel tract)

Kent’s bundle is a pathologic accessory pathway that is responsible for Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

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2
Q

Where does the electric signal go from the SA node

A

SA node → internodal tracts → AV node → Bundle of His → Bundle Branches → Purkinje fibers

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3
Q

Match each phase of the ventricular AP to its corresponding component on the EKG waveform

-QRS complex, QT interval, T wave
-Phase 3, 0, 2

A

Phase 0 → QRS complex
Phase 2 → Qt interval (plateau phase)
Phase 3 → T wave (final repolarization)

Phase 4 → T > QRS (resting phase)

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4
Q

P wave →
PR interval →
QRS complex →
ST segment →
T wave→

A

P wave → atrial depolarization begins
PR interval → atrial depolarization is complete
QRS complex → Atrial repol + ventricular depol starts
ST segment → Ventricular depolarization complete
T wave → ventricular repolarization begins

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5
Q

What is the absolute refractory period?

Where does it start and end on the EKG

From what phase to what phase

A

Period where NO stimulus - no matter how strong - can depolarize the myocyte

It's from the start of ventirculat depol > half way through final repol

QRS > Mid- T wave

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6
Q

What is the relative refractory period?

where does it start/end?

A

It’s a period of time wehre a larger than normal stimulus is required to depolarize the myocyte

second half to end of phase 3 repolarization

second half to end of T-wave

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7
Q

label events occuring in whited out boxes

also label stars - which waves

A
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8
Q

label phases, event, and the ionic movement during each

A

Phase 0 → ventricular depolarizaion →Sodium in

Phase 1 → initial repolarization → cloride (-) in, K+ out

Phase 2 → Plateau (ST) → CA++ in, K+ out

Phase 3 → Final repolarization → K+ out

Phase 4 → resting phase K+ leak

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9
Q

What portion of the ventricular action potential occurs during the ST segment?

A

end of ventricualr depolarization

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10
Q

Match each disease with the EKG abnormality that it is MOST likely to cause:

WPWS, Pericarditis, ICH, Hypokalemia

PR interval depression, U-wave, Peaked T wave, Delta wave

A

WPWS → Delta wave
Pericarditis → PR interval depression
ICH → Peaked T- Wave
Hypokalemia→ U- Wave

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11
Q

T/F- pericarditis can casue PR-interval prolongation

A

False- depression

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12
Q

Q waves suggest MI if the:
amplitude is >
duration is >
or depth is >

A

amplitude > 1/3 the R wave
duration > 0.04 seconds
depth > 1mm

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13
Q

4 things that can cause peaked T-waves

A
  1. Hyperkalemia
  2. Myocardial ischemia
  3. LVH
  4. Intracranial bleeding
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14
Q

My measuring _ , we can quantify the amount of ST elevation and depression.

As a general rule of thumb, changes greater than or less than what are significant

A

The J-point

>

  • 1.0 or < -1.0
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15
Q

4 EKG changes seen with HYPOkalemia

Vs 6 changes seen with HYPERkalemia

A
  1. increased PR interval
  2. increased QT interval
  3. flattened T-waves
  4. U-wave

  1. Prlonged PR (same) + 2. prolonged QRS
  2. PEAKED T-waves + 4. flattened P-waves
  3. Sinus wave pattern + 6. Vfib
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16
Q

Match each lead to the cardiac region it monitors:

aVF, V3, Lead 1, V1

Lateral wall, septum, inferior wall, anterior wall

A

aVF → Inferior
V3 → Anterior
V1 → Septum
Lead 1 → Lateral

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17
Q

On the EKG, what are the:
Bipolar leads:
Limb leads:
Precordial leads:

A

Bipolar leads → I, II, III
Limb leads → aVR, aVL, aVF
Precordial leads → V1-V6

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18
Q

RCA supplies the _ heart & is monitored by leads:

Circ supplies the _ heart & is monitored by the leads:

LCA/LADsupplies the _ heart & is monitored by leads:

A

RCA - inferior heart - II, III, aVF
Circ supplies- left lateral heart - I, AvL, V5, V6
LCA/LAD supplies antierior heart - V1-V4

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19
Q

explain this image

A

a positive deflection occurs when the vector of depolarization travels towards the positive electrode

A negative deflection occurs wehn the vector of depolarization travels away from the positive electrode

A Biphasic deflection occurs wehn the vector of depolarization travels perpendicular to the positive electrode

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20
Q

The heart depolarizes from the (apex to base or base to apex)
&
from the (endocardium to epicardium or epicardium to endocardium)

A

Base → apex
&
Endocardium → epicardium

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21
Q

The mean electrical vector tends to point: (select 2):

-towards areas of hypertrophy
-towards areas of myocardial infarction
-away from areas of hypertrophy
-away from areas of myocardial infarction

A

Towards areas of hypertrophy
and away from areas of infarction

Towards hypertrophied areas (more tissue to depolarize)
away from areas of infarction (vector travels around these areas)

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22
Q

The easiest way to determine axis devation is to examine which 2 leads?

What’s normal, left vs right deviation, & extreme right deviation

A

I & avF
Normal : Lead 1 +, aVF +
Left: Lead 1 +, aVF -
Right: Lead 1 -, aVF +

Extreme right: Lead 1 -, aVF -

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23
Q

What are right and left axis deviations typically caused by?

A

right axis devation - things that affect the right heart : COPD, acute bronchospasm, cor pulmonale, PE

left axis devation- things that affect the left heart: chornic HTN, LBBBB, AS, AI, MR

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24
Q

What types of axis deviations are these

A

Orange - extreme right (2 thumbs down)
Green = normal (2 thumbs up)
Red = Left axis devation (leads Leaving eachother)
Blue = Right axis devation (leads Reaching for eachother)

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25
Q

All of the following are effective for treatment of afib EXCEPT:

A. Verapamil
B. Digoxin
C. Metoprolol
D. Adenosine

A

Adenosine

-it slows conduction through the AV node
- stimulates cardiac adenosine-1 receptor; adenosine activates K+ currents → hyperpolarizes cell membrane and reduces AP duration

not efficaious for afib, flutter, torsades, or VT

works well for SVT and WPW with a narrow QRS

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26
Q

what’s this rhythm and what is one thing that can cause it

A

sinus arrhythmia → occurs wehn the SA node’s pacing rate varies with respiration (usually benign)

Bainbridge reflex can cause this!

Inhalation → decreased intrathoracic pressure → increased venous return → increased HR
Exhalation → increased intrathoracic pressure → decreased venous return → decreased HR

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27
Q

What is often the source of sinus bradycardia

A

increased vagal tone

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28
Q

What is the first line treatment for sinus bradycardia

what should you be careful of and why

A

Atropine

underdosing it (<0.5mg IV) can cause paradoxical bradycardia which is thought to be mediated by presynaptic muscarinic receptors

THEN WHY TF DOES IT COME IN 0.4mg/ml VIALS?

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29
Q

What should you do with a severely symptomatic bradycardic patient

A

immediate transcutaneous pacing

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30
Q

What drug can be given in the setting of beta-blocker or CCB overdose.

Dosage

How does it work?

A

Glucagon
initial dose = 50-70mcg/kg q 3-5min
can be followed by infusion of 2-10mg/hr

it stimulates glucagon receptors on the myocardium, which increases cAMP → increased HR, contractility, AV conduction

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31
Q

What is acute onset a-fib treated with?

what should you start at

A

Cardioversion - start at 100j

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32
Q

When does a TEE need to be done prior to cardioverting afib?

why?

A

if afib onset is >48hrs ago or if onset is unknown

to r/o atrial thrombus

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33
Q

T/F- new onset or undiagnosed afib is an indication to cancel surgery

A

True

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34
Q

What is the most common postop tachydysrthymia

when does it usually occur

what population is at greatest risk?

A

afib

POD 2-4

older patients after CT sugery

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35
Q

TF- volatile anesthetics are a known cause of junctional rhythm

treatment for junctional rhythm if it impacts hemodynamics?

What junctional rhythm progress to? issue?

A

True

*Atropine 0.5mg IV can be given if hemodynamics are affected

can progress to junctional tachycardia (narrow complex tachycardia) > can produce hemodynamic instability

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36
Q

PVCs should be treated in what 3 circumstances

how should they be treated?

A
  1. Frequency > 6/min
  2. polymorphic
  3. runs of 3 or more

  1. Reverse underlying cause : hypoxia, hypercarbia, d/c QT prolonging drugs, tx lytes
  2. If symptomatic - Lidocaine 1-1.5mg/kg followed by a gtt @ 1-4mg/min if continues
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37
Q

What is the most common dysrythmia of sudden cardiac death

A

vfib

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38
Q

What is the syndrome associated with a sodium ion channelopathy in the heart?

Who is it most commonly seen in?

What are the diagnostic EKG findings and considerations for someone with this?

A

Brugada Syndrome

males from southeast asia

Right BBB and persistent ST elevation in precordial leads V1-V3

-pt may require ICD or pad placement during surgery

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39
Q

Brugada syndrome type 1 vs type 2

A

1 & 2 > ST elevations >/= 2mm

1 → DOWNSLOPING ST segment & INVERTED T-wave

2 → “saddle back” (think 2 words = 2) ST-wave configuration & UPRIGHT or Biphasic (2) T wave

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40
Q

What rhythm

A

Second degree heart block- Mobitz 2

Some P’s conduct to the ventricles, while others don’t (usually there is a set ratio of 2:1 or 3:1). After the dropped QRS, the next P arrives right on time

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41
Q

What rhythm

A

Second degree heart block- Mobitz 2

Some P’s conduct to the ventricles, while others don’t (usually there is a set ratio of 2:1 or 3:1). After the dropped QRS, the next P arrives right on time

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42
Q

What is 1st degree heart block

treatment?

A

PR > 0.20

usually asymptomatic and no treatment required

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43
Q

Mobitz 1 vs 2

treatments

A

1 → wenchebach- PR longer longer drop
2 → Some P’s conduct to the ventricles while others dont (usually set ratio of (2:1 or 3:1)

often asympomatic

1 → atropine if symptomatic
2 → pacing

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44
Q

True/False: Atropine is treatement of choice for 2nd-degree heart block- Mobitz 2

A

False - Mobitz 1

Mobitz 2 often does not respond to Atropine and pacing is required

45
Q

3 causes of 1st degree heart block

A
  1. age related degenerative changes
  2. CAD
  3. drugs: dig/amio
46
Q

What rhythm

treatment

A

1st degree heart block

monitor (usually asymptomatic)

47
Q

Rhythm

tx

A

Second degree- Mobitz 1 (Wenkebach)

asymptomatic - nothing
symptomatic - atropine

48
Q

What causes 3rd degree heart block? (2)

A
  1. fibrotic degeneration of the atrial conduction system
  2. Lenegres Disease
49
Q

What rhythm

2 treatments

A

CHB

mechanical pacemaker (transcutaenous, transvenous, implantable)
chemical pacemaker (isoproterenol)

50
Q

What rhythm is associated with Stokes-Adams attack and what is that?

A

CHB

  • decreased CO → decreased cerebral perfusion → syncope
51
Q

Which type of heart blocks may require a pacemaker?

A

Mobitz 2 & CHB

52
Q

Which inotrope best treats 3rd degree heart block?

A

Isoproterenol

53
Q

Match each antiarrhythmic agent with it’s drug class (1-4)

-propanolol, lidocaine, amiodarone, verapamil

A

1 → Lidocaine
2 → Propanolol
3 → Amiodarone
4 → Verapamil

1 → inhibit fast sodium channels
2 → decrease rate of depolarization
3 → inhibit potassium ion channels
4 → inhibit slow calcium channels

54
Q

What are the 4 classes of antiarrhythmics and their MOA

A

1 → Sodium channel blockers
2 → Beta blockers
3 → K+ channel blockers
4 → Calcium channel blockers

1 → quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide; lidocaine & phenytoin; flecainide, propafenone
2 → obvious ones
3 → amiodarone & bretyium
4 → verapamil & diltazem

55
Q

What phases of the action potentials do each class of antiarrhythmic agents affect?

A

1 → depression of phase 0 & phase 3 repolarization
2 → slows phase 4 depolarization in the SA node
3 → prolongs phase 3 repolarization
4 → decreases conduction velocity through the AV node

1→ sodium channel blockers (lido)
2 → betablockers
3 → k+ channel blockers (amio)
4 → calcium channel blockers (verapamil and cardizem)

56
Q

How does amiodarone work?

A

It prolongs phase 3 repolarization (increases Qt), increases effective refractory period

K* channel blocker

bretium also in this class (class 3)

57
Q

Difference between class 1A, B, C antiarrhythmics, examples of each (3,2,2 respectively)

A

class 1 = sodium channel blockers (phases 0 and 3)

1A: mod ↓phase 0; prolonged phase 3 (increased Qt)
1B: weak ↓phase 0;** shortened **phase 3
1C: STRONG ↓phase 0, little effect on phase 3

1A → quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide
1B → lidocaine, phenytoin
1C → flecainide, propafenone

58
Q

What class of antiarrythmic agent and how the AP is affected

answer from left to right

A
  • Slowing of phase 4 depolarization → Class 2→ betablockers
  • Strong depression of phase 0, little effect on phase 3 repolarization → class 1c → Na channel blockers - flecanide & propafenone
  • Prolonged phase 3 repolarization → K+ channel blocker (increased QT) → amio & bretyium
  • Moderate depression of phase 0 depolarization + prolonged phase of phase 3 repolarization (increased QT) → Class 1A → quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide
  • Decreased conduction velocity trhough AV node → Class 4 → Ca++ channel blockers → verapamil and diltazem
  • Weak depression of phase 0, shortened phase 3 repolarization → class 1B (NA++ blockers) → lidocaine and phenytoin

*When thinking about how antidysrhythmics work, ask yourself:
1. Are they depressing phase 0 (class 1)
2. Are they effecting phase 3 repolarization (class 1, 3)
3. Or are they slowing phase 4 depolarization (class 2)

59
Q

We have andenosine naturally circulating in our bodies?! what does it do?

A

Yep, it slows conduction through the AV node

it stimulates the cardaic adenosine-1 receptors and promotes potassium efflux, hyperpolarizing hte cell membrane, and slowing conduction

60
Q

How is adenosine metabolized?

1/2 life?

A

rapidly in the plasma

5 seconds

61
Q

T/F - Adenosine can be used for rapid AFIB

A

FALSE

not useful for afib/flutte – only SVT and WPW with narrow complex

62
Q

T/F- Adensosine can cause bronchospasm in the asthmatic patient

A

True

63
Q

peripheral vs central line dosing of adensoine (1st and 2nd doses)

what peripheral site is preferred?

A

Peripheral 6mg → 12mg
Central 3mg → 6mg

*AC preferrerd for peripheral - closest to heart

64
Q

Wolff- Parkinson- White syndrome is associated with:

A. Atrial re-entry
B. SA nodal re-entry
C. A-V re-entry
D. Ventricular re-entry

A

C. A-V reentry

  • WPW occurs when an accessory pathway joins the atrium to the ventricles (kent’s bundle)
65
Q

What is the most common cause of tachyarrhythmias?

A

Re-entry pathways

66
Q

A patient with WPWS develops afib during surgery. Select the BEST treatment for this situation (select 2)

  • Cardioversion
  • Verapamil
  • Digoxin
  • Procainamide
A

Cardioversion and Procainamide

67
Q

In the normal conduction pathway, the cardiac impulse is delayed at the AV node, meaning it has a long ……

how does this relate to accessory pathways?

A

refractory period

in the accessory pathway, there is no delay, so the impulse quickly moves from the atrium to the ventricle → there is no gate keeper (slowed movement thru the AV node)

68
Q

What is the diagnostic feature of WPWS?

3 other things that can be commonly seen

A
  • Delta wave

Short PR (<0.12), Wide QRS, Possible T-wave inversion

After the SA node depolarizes, the electricle impulse travels through the accessory pathway and the same time as the AV node; the accessory pathway route is not delayed like the AV route and arrives at the ventricle earlier, causing the delta wave.

69
Q

Orthodromic AVNRT vs Antidromic AVNRT

incidence →
reentry pathway route →
QRS →
treatment →

which one is more dangerous and why

A

antidromic is more dangerous bc the gatekeeper function of the AV node is bypassed and the heart rate can increase well beyond the heart’s pumping ability (dramatically reducing filling time)

70
Q

Drugs to avoid with a patient with an antidromic AVNRT (5)

why?

A

Lidocaine
Adenosine
Beta-blockers
Calcium channel blockers
Digoxin

(L-ABCD) (Love ABCD)

Bc if you give a drug that preferentially blocks the AV node to an antidromic AVNRT, then you’ll force conduction along the acessory pathway which can induce vfib!

71
Q

why is it bad news if a patient with WPW goes into Afib?

how do you want to treat it and why?

A

bc during afib the atria can depolarize up to 300 times a mintue, and combining this with WPW can preciptate CHF, vfib, and death.

*Procainamide is the treatment of choice bc it increases the refractory period in the accessory pathway. If the patient is hemodynamically unstable, then cardioversion is the best option

*avoid drugs that increase the refractory period of the AV node

72
Q

What is the definitive treatment for WPWS?

A

radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway

73
Q

What is the only narcotic known to increase the QT interval?

A

Methadone

74
Q

How can furosemide affect the QT interval?

A

it can cause hypokalemia and hypomagnesia which both can prolong the QT

when asked about how something affects the QT interval - think does it affect the lytes? low lytes = long qt

75
Q

how does hyperventilation affect the QT interval?

A

hyperventilation shifts K+ into the cells
→ decreased serum K can prolong the QT interval

76
Q

2 acute treatments for torsades?

A

mag sulfate and cardiac pacing

77
Q

What 2 genetic syndromes are associated with Torsades?

A

Romano Ward & Timothy

Timothy Romano Ward

78
Q

Normal QT interval for men vs women

A

men > 0.45
women > 0.47

79
Q

Why do we used corrected QT?

A

bc the QT interval varies inversely with HR

80
Q

Match the NBG pacemaker identification code to its designated function:
Postion 1 →
Position 2 →
Position 3 →
Postion 4 →

Mneumonic?

Chamber sensed, Progamability, Response to sensed event, chamber paced

A

Postion 1 → chamber Paced
Position 2 → chamber Sensed
Position 3 → Response to sensed event
Postion 4 → Programability

PaSeR

Chamber Paced
Chamber Sensed
Response of pacmaker if native activity is sensed

81
Q

What kind of pacing modes are AAI, VVI ?

What does the pacemaker do?

A

Single-chamber demand pacing

BACKUP MODE

only fires wehn the native HR falls below a pre-determinded level
AAI - atria paced, atria sensed, inhibition
VVI - ventricle paced, ventricle sensed, inhibition

*inhibition = if natative activity is sensed, the pacemaker is inhibited (won’t fire – unless under a certain rate)

82
Q

What is the most common mode of modern day pacemakers?

How does it work?

A

DDD

dual paced, dual sensed, dual response

ensures the atrium contracts first, followed by the ventricle and improves AV-synchrony

83
Q

Describe AOO pacing

risk?

A

Asynchrounous pacing
-Atrium is paced, no chamber is sensed, and no response to native cardaic electricle activity

R-on-T

84
Q

Describe VVI pacing

A

Single-chamber demand pacing
Ventricle is paced and sensed & the pacer is inhibited if native electric activity is sensed

85
Q

A patient undergoing bunionectomy has a VOO pacer with a rate of 80bmp. during the procedure, there is failure to capture and the HR decreases to 50bmp. Which of the following BEST explains why this complication occured?

A. EtCO2 was 20mmHg
B. An ultrasonic Harmonic scalpel was used
C. The patient was hyperthermic
D. The electrocautery setting was changed from “coag” to “cutting”

A

A. EtCO2 was 20mmHg

The pacer failed to capture because hypocarbia (which caused hypokalemia) made the myocardium more resistant to depolarization. The same electrical stimulus from the pacer was no longer sufficent to depolarize the heart. You’ll see the pacer spikes, but you wont see capture

-when compared to ESU, the use of a ultrasonic harmonic scalpel decreases the risk of electromagnetic interference
-changes from “coag to cutting” also reduces the risk of EMI
-hypothermia makes the myocardium more resistant to to depolarization (also explains why hypothermia causes bradycardia)

86
Q

What does putting a magnet on a pacemaker vs. ICD vs. Pacer+ICD combo

A

Pacer → converts it to asynchronous mode (usually but not always) > asynchonous = delivers a constant rate despite underlying native activity

ICD → suspends ICD and prevents shock delivery

PACER+ICD: suspends ICD and prevents shock delivery; no effect on pacemaker function (interesting?)

87
Q

What is the most critical information to have preop in someone with a pacemaker?

A

what’s their underlying rhythm - so you know how to prepare for device failure

-can be treated with isoproterenol, epi, or atropine (depends on the underlying rhythm)

88
Q

what’s going on here….concern?

A

failure to sense

-pacer is sending sporatic impulses
-concern for R on T

not sure wtf i would do other than consult cardiology to interrogate it?

89
Q

whats going on

6 conditions that could lead to this

A

failure to capture

conditions that can hyperpolarizing the myocardium, making it more resistant to depolarization (electrical stimulus)
- hyperkalemia, hypokalemia
- hypocapnia (intracellular K shift)
- hypothermia
- MI
- Fibrotic tissue builiding up on leads
- Antiarrythmic meds

can also be from electrode displacement or wire fracture

90
Q

What gives off more EMI, coag or cutting setting on the bovie?

A

coag

91
Q

The risk of EMI is highest when electrocautery tip is used within how man cm radius of the pulse generator

A

15cm

(i read somewhere that concern should be have when operating above umbilicus)

92
Q

where should the bovie pad be placed on someone with a pacer?

A

far away from the generator, in a location that prevents a direct line of current thru it

93
Q

T/F- a pacemaker is a contraindication for lithotripsy

A

False - the beam should be directed away from the generator

94
Q

T/F- ECT is contraindicated in a person with a pacemaker

A

false

MRI is the only contraindication (even though some newer ones are MRI safe)

95
Q

The EKG in this image is due to injury of the:
A. His bundle
B. AV node
C. SA node
D. Bachmann’s bundle

A

A. Bundle of His

It’s Mobitz 2 - affected regions of this are the His bundle or bundle branches

96
Q

The EKG in this image is due to injury of the:
A. His bundle
B. AV node
C. SA node
D. Bachmann’s bundle

A

A. Bundle of His

It’s Mobitz 2 - affected regions of this are the His bundle or bundle branches

97
Q

Which EKG change is associated with ICH?
A. short PR
B. peaked T waves
C. Deep Q waves
D. U waves

A

B. Peaked T’s

  • PR depression > pericarditis
  • Deep Q waves > MI
  • U waves > hypokalemia
98
Q

What kind of axis devation?

A

Left axis devation

Lead 1 is postive and AVF is negative

99
Q

Which Bipolar limb lead is ALWAYS positive

A

Bottom left

100
Q

Which Bipolar limb lead is ALWAYS positive

A

Bottom left

101
Q

click on tha area of hexagonal reference system that correlates with left axis devation

A

-90 to -30 degrees

Normal = -30 to +90
Left axis = < -30 (L , to the Left)
Right = > +90 (R, to the right)

102
Q

T/F- Sinus tachycardia is the MOST common cause of acute MI

A

TRUE!

103
Q
A
104
Q

Which of the following if the reference point for measuring changes in the ST segment?

A. PR Segment
B. ST Segment
C. J Point
D. Qt interval

A

A. PR segment

The J point is where the QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins. By measuring this point relative to the PR segment, we can quantify the amount of elevation and depression

105
Q

Which of the following if the reference point for measuring changes in the ST segment?

A. PR Segment
B. ST Segment
C. J Point
D. Qt interval

A

A. PR segment

The J point is where the QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins. By measuring this point relative to the PR segment, we can quantify the amount of elevation and depression

106
Q

T/F- the bovie pad is a gounding pad

A

FALSE - no one in the OR should be grounded, not even the patient

it is a return electrode where electricty flows after it flows through the tip of the electrocautery > pt > exits patient through the return electrode

107
Q

Word association game:

Lengres disease

A

CHB

108
Q

Word association game:

Romano ward disease/syndrome

What other disease is associated w it

A

Torrsaddes

(+Timothy disease)

109
Q

DISOPYRAMIDE

A

CLASS 1A antidysrhythmic w procainamide and quinidine
Mod phase 0, prolonged phase 3(qt)