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ap2 endocrine, blood, heart, ig tract, genetics, nutrition > ap test 2 > Flashcards

ap test 2 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart

A

arteries

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2
Q

blood vessels that supply the walls of arteries and veins with blood are

A

vasa vasorum

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3
Q

the two way exchange of substances between blood and body cells occur only though

A

capillaries

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4
Q

large molecules such as peptides and proteins move into and out of the bloodstream by way of

A

fenestrated capillaries

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5
Q

the alteration of blood flow due to the action of precapillary sphincters is

A

vasomotion

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6
Q

the blood vessels that collect blood from all tissues and organs and return it to the heart are the

A

veins

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7
Q

blood is compartmentalized within the veins because of the presence of

A

valves

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8
Q

the most important factor in vascular resistance is

A

the friction between the blood and vessel walls

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9
Q

the specialized exchange surfaces of the liver, bone marrow, and pituitary gland are the

A

sinusoids

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10
Q

net hydrostatic pressure forces water______ a capillary; net osmotic pressure forces water________ a capillary

A

out of, into

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11
Q

What are the primary forces that cause fluid to move out of a capillary and into the interstitial fluid at its arterial end into capillary from the interstitial fluid at its venous end

A

hydrostatic pressure, osmotic pressure

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12
Q

what two factors assist relatively low venous pressure in propelling blood toward the heart

A

muscular compression, respiratory pump

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13
Q

when dehydration occurs there is

A

accelerated reabsorption of water at the kidneys.

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14
Q

human fertilization involves the fusion of two haploid gametes, producing a zygote that contains

A

46 chromosomes

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15
Q

an individual who has two different alles for the same gene is _______ for that trait

A

heterozygous

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16
Q

if an allele must be present on both teh maternal and paternal chromosones to affect the phenotype, the allele is said to be

A

recessive

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17
Q

the percentage of individuals with a partiular gentotype who show the expected phenotype reflects

A

penetrance

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18
Q

for a trait A, the genotype of a homozygous recessive individual is represented as

A

AA

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19
Q

the normal sex chromosome composition of males is

A

XY

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20
Q

distinguish between the following paired terms

A

genotype and phenotype

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21
Q

the part of the digestive tract that plays the primary role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients is or are the

A

small intestine

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22
Q

the duodenal hormone that stimualtes the production of secretion of pancreatic enzymes is

A

cholecystokinin

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23
Q

the enzymatic breakdown of large molecules into their basic building blocks is chemical digestion

A

chemical digestion

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24
Q

the muscularis externa propels materials from one portion of the digestive tract to another by the contraction of

A

peristalsis

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25
Q

the activities of digestive system are regulated by

A

hormonal. local and neural mechanisms

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26
Q

the essential metabolic or synthetic service provided by the liver is

A

metabolic, hematological regulations and bile production

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27
Q

bile release from the gallbladder into the duodenum occurs only under the stimulation of

A

cholecystokinin

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28
Q

the major functions of the large intestine are the

A

reabsorption of water and compaction of feces

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29
Q

teh part of the colon that empties inot the rectum is the

A

descending colon

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30
Q

three vitamins by bacteria in the colon are

A

vitamin k, biotin and panthothenic acid

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31
Q

the final enzymatic steps in the digestive process are accomplished by

A

enzymes secreted by the pancreas

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32
Q

what three basic mechanisms regulate the activities of the digestive tract

A

neural local and hormonal mechanisms

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33
Q

what are the four primary functions of the oral cavity

A

mastication, grinding of food, lubrication and digestion

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34
Q

what are the functions of saliva and how are salivary secretions controlled

A

cephalic reflexes initiates starch digestion and provides alkaline buffering and fluid evaporate cooling.

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35
Q

what contributions do the gastric and pyloric glands of the stomach make to the digestive process

A

the gastric gland contains parietal cells that secrete hydrochloric acid and zygogenic cells that produce pepsin. pyloric gland secretes gastrin and mucus.

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36
Q

what are the primary functions of the pancreas, liver and gallbladder in digestion

A

exocrine function of pancreas that produces pancreatic juices and bile to help with digestion pancreas of fats and carbs and proteins
endocrine function- islet cells create and release important hormones insulin, to lower blood sugar and glucagon to acts to raise blood sugar
liver-bile production, recreation of bilirubin cholesterol, hormones, drugs, metabolism of fats proteins and carbohydrates
enzyme activation. storage of glycogen vitamins and minerals, synthesis of plasma proteins, blood detoxification and purification.

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37
Q

what are the three primary functions of the large intestine

A

absorbs vitamins that are created by the bacteria inhabiting the colon. it is also very important in absorbing water and compacting the feces. stars fecal matter in the rectum until eliminated through the anus and thus is responsible for passing along solid waste

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38
Q

the production of acid and enzymes by the gastric mucosa is controlled and regulated by

A

the central nervous system, short reflexes coordinated in the stomach wall, digestive tract hormones

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39
Q

the gastric phase of secretion is initiated by

A

the presence of undigested materials in the stomach

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40
Q

chyme reaches the small intestine most quickly when

A

the stomach is greatly distended

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41
Q

which seven hormones are released by the anterior pituitary gland and their functions

A

Growth hormone- this hormone promotes the movement of amino acids into tissue cells and the incorporation of these amino acids into tissue proteins thus stimulating growth of organs
thyroid stimulating hormone- this hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and secrete thyrozine
adrenocorticotrpic homrone- this hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete the glucocorticoids such as hydrocortisone
follicle stimulating hormone- this hormone stimulatesthe growth of ovarian follicles in females and the production of sperm in the testes of males
luteinizing hormone- this hormone and fsh are collectively called gonadotropic homrones. in females, LH stimulates ovulation and the conversion of the ovulated ovarian follicle into an endocrine structure called a corpus luteum. in males lh stimulates the secretion of male sex hormones from the interstitial cells of leydig in the testes.
prolactin-this hormone secreted in both males and females. its best know function sis the stimulation of milk production by the mammary glands of women after the birth of their babies. prolactin plays a supporting role in the regulation of the mal reproductive system by the gonadotrpins and acts on the kidneys to help regulate water and electrolyte balance

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42
Q

what four characteristics of WBCs are important to their response to tissue invasion or injury?

A

WBCs exhibit

1) ameboid movement, a gliding movement that transports the cell
2) emigration, squeezing btw adjacent endothelial cells in the capillary wall
3) positive chemotacis, the attraction to specific chemical stimuli
4) phagocytosis (engulfing particles for neutrophils, basophils, and monocytes)

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43
Q

what are the three functions of platelets during the clotting process

A

1) sticking to the injured blood vessel (called platelet adherence), 2) attaching to other platelets to enlarge the forming plug (called platelet aggregation), and 3) providing support (molecules on the surface of platelets are required for many of the reactions) for the processes of the coagulation cascade.

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44
Q

what five major functions are performed by blood?

A

1) transports dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes
2) regulates pH and electrolyte composition of interstitial fluids throughout body
3) restricts fluid losses through damaged vessels or at other injury sites
4) defends against toxins and pathogens
5) stabilizes body temp

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45
Q

what 3 major types of plasma proteins are in the blood? what is the major function of each?

A

1) ALBUMINS: maintain the osmotic pressure of plasma and are important in the transport of fatty acids
2) GLOBULINS:
- a) bind small ions, hormones, or compounds that might otherwise be filtered out of the blood at the kidneys or have very low solubility in water (transport globulins)
- b) attack foreign proteins and pathogens (immunoglobulins)
3) FIBRINOGEN: functions in blood clotting

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46
Q

serum is

A

plasma minus fibrinogen

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47
Q

the formed elements in blood include:

A

WBCs, RBCs, and platelets

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48
Q

the following is a list of the steps involved in the process of hemostasis

A 
vascular spasm
platelet plug
coagulation
retraction
fibrinolysis
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49
Q

which type of antibodies does plasma contain for each of the following blood types?

a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Typo O

A

a) anti-B antibodies
b) Anti-A antibodies
c) neither Anti-A nor Anti-B antibodies
d) both Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies

50
Q

what four characteristics of WBCs are important to their response to tissue invasion or injury?

A

1) ameboid movement, a gliding movement that transports the cell
2) emigration, squeezing btw adjacent endothelial cells in the capillary wall
3) positive chemotacis, the attraction to specific chemical stimuli
4) phagocytosis (engulfing particles for neutrophils, basophils, and monocytes)

51
Q

what are the 3 functions of platelets during the clotting process?

A

1) transport chemicals important to clotting
2) form a temporary patch in the walls of damaged blood vessels
3) actively contract after the clot has formed

52
Q

what 4 conditions cause the release of erythropoietin?

A

1) during anemia
2) when blood flow to the kidneys declines
3) when oxygen content of the air in the lungs declines
4) when the respiratory surfaces of the lungs are damaged

53
Q

dehydration would

A

cause an increase in the hematocrit

54
Q

when the clotting proteins are removed from plasma

A

serum remains

55
Q

in adults the only site of red blood cell production and the primary site of white blood cell formation is the

A

red bone marrow

56
Q

the differential count of a person who has a allergy would indicate a high number of

A

basophils

57
Q

stem cells responsbile for lymphopoiesis are located in the

A

thymus and spleen

58
Q

the first hemostasis

A

vascular spasm

59
Q

the complex sequence of steps leading to conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is

A

fibinolysis

60
Q

How are septal cells involved with keeping the alveoli from collapsing?

A

They produce surfactant, a substance that reduces surface tension. Alveoli are very small, only 80 nanometers wide, and are flat. Therefore they have a tendency to curl up. The surfactant reduces this tendency, hence keeps the alveoli from collapsing

61
Q

How does pulmonary ventilation differ from alveolar ventilation, and what is the function of each type of ventilation?

A

alveolar ventilation the amount of air that reaches the alveoli and is available for gas exchange with the blood per unit time.
pulmonary ventilation a measure of the rate of ventilation, referring to the total exchange of air between the lungs and the ambient air.

62
Q

Boyle’s Law:

A

pressure of a given quantity of gas in inversely proportional to its volume. an increase in lung volume during inspiration decreases intrapulmonary pressure to sub atmospheric levels; air therefore goes in. A decrease in lung volume raises the intrapulmonary pressure above that of the atmosphere, pushing air out!

63
Q

Dalton’s Law:

A

the statement that the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum that each individuals gas in the mixture would exert independently. the part contributed by each gas is known as the partial pressure of gas.

64
Q

Henrys Law:

A

When a gas is in contact with the surface of a liquid, the amount of the gas which will go into solution is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas
*For example, in the gas exchange processes in respiration, the solubility of carbon dioxide is about 22 times that of oxygen when they are in contact with the plasma of the human body.

65
Q

If the pleural cavity is penetrated due to an injury, why does the lung collapse?

A

A collapsed lung can result when the pleural cavity (the space outside the lung) accumulates blood (hemothorax) or air (pneumothorax) or both

66
Q

What are the differences between pulmonary volumes and respiratory capacities? How are pulmonary volumes and respiratory capacities determined?

A

?

67
Q

What are the primary effects of pH, temperature, and 2,3bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) on hemoglobin saturation?

A

the attraction is decreased when the ph is lowered and increased when the ph is raised this is called the bohr effect. when the attraction of the hemoglobin for oxygen is reduced there is slightly less loading of blood with oxygen in the lungs but greater unloading of oxygen in the tissues.

68
Q

Pulmonary ventilation involves

A

“breathing” Atmospheric pressure
Intraalveolar (intrapulmonary) pressure
Intrapleural pressure

69
Q

The presence of abnormally low oxygen content in tissue fluids is

A

hypoxia

70
Q

According to Henry’s law, if the partial pressure of a gas increases,

A

?

71
Q

In tissues at a normal partial pressure of oxygen, blood entering the venous system contains about

A

(c) 75 percent

72
Q

Approximately 70 percent of the carbon dioxide absorbed by blood is transported

A

(b) bound to hemoglobin

73
Q

The apneustic centers of the pons

A

inhibit the pneumataxic and inspiratory centers

74
Q

All the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata except the

A

olfactory epithelium

75
Q

Sneezing and coughing are classic examples of

A

) protective reflexes

76
Q

What are the five primary functions of the respiratory system?

A
  1. responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
  2. supplies oxygen to the blood
  3. gets rid of carbon dioxide and other waste gases
  4. inspiration and expiration
  5. inside the cell, cellular respiration genetics energy.
77
Q

What defense mechanisms protect the respiratory system from becoming contaminated with debris and pathogens?

A

filtration mechanisms that prevent contamination by debris or pathogens

78
Q

By what three mechanisms is carbon dioxide transported in the bloodstream?

A

-Carbon Dioxide Transport
Carbon dioxide (CO2) combines with water forming carbonic acid, which dissociates into a hydrogen ion (H+) and a bicarbonate ions:
-.Only about 5% of the CO2 generated in the tissues dissolves directly in the plasma.
-

79
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation to the smooth muscle tissue layer in the bronchioles causes

A

a) bronchoconstriction

80
Q
  1. Gas exchange at the respiratory membrane is efficient because
A

(a) the differences in partial pressure are substantial
(b) the gases are lipid-soluble
(c) the total surface area is large
(d) a, b, and care correct

81
Q

The primary physiological adjustment necessary for an athlete to compete at high altitudes is

A

) elevated hematocrit

82
Q

An increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood causes chemoreceptors to stimulate the respiratory centers, causing

A

?

83
Q

Lymphoid stem cells that can form all types of lymphocytes occur in the

A

bone marrow

84
Q

Lymphatic vessels are located everywhere except the

A

the central nervous system

85
Q

The body’s largest collection of lymphoid tissue is in the

A

the spleen

86
Q

Red blood cells that are damaged or defective are removed from the bloodstream by the

A

spleen

87
Q

Phagocytes move through capillary walls by squeezing between adjacent endothelial cells, a process known as

A

(a) diapedesis

88
Q

cytoxic t cell

A

s a T lymphocyte (a type of white blood cell) that kills cancer cells, cells that are infected (particularly with viruses), or cells that are damaged in other ways.

89
Q

helper T cells

A

adaptive immune system. These cells have no cytotoxic or phagocytic activity; they cannot kill infected host cells or pathogens. Rather, they help other immune cells—they activate and direct other immune cells.

90
Q

suppresser t cells

A

tolerance to self-antigens, and abrogate autoimmune disease. Mouse models have suggested that modulation of Tregs can treat autoimmune disease and cancer, and facilitate organ transplantation.

91
Q

plasma cells

A

white blood cells which secrete large volumes of antibodies. They are transported by the blood plasma and the lymphatic system. Like all blood cells, plasma cells ultimately originate in the bone marrow; however, these cells leave the bone marrow as B cells, before terminal differentiation into plasma cells, normally in lymph nodes.

92
Q

NK cells

A

cells provide rapid responses to virally infected cells and respond to tumor formation, acting at around 3 days after infection

93
Q

interferons

A

proteins made and released by host cells in response to the presence of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, parasites or tumor cells. They allow for communication between cells to trigger the protective defenses of the immune system that eradicate pathogens or tumors.

94
Q

pyrogens

A

is a substance inducing fever

95
Q

t-cell

A

play a central role in cell-mediated immunity

96
Q

B-cells

A

protects from infection

97
Q

interleukins

A

They promote the development and differentiation of T, B, and hematopoietic cells.

98
Q

tumor necrosis factor

A

a cytokine involved in systemic inflammation and is a member of a group of cytokines that stimulate the acute phase reaction

99
Q

colony-stimulating factors

A

synthesizes bone marrow to synthesize white blood cells

100
Q
  1. What seven defenses, present at birth, provide the body with the defensive capability known as nonspecific resistance?
A

physical barriers: keep hazardous organisms and materials outside the body. Ex: a mosquito cannot reach the skin surface due to hair on body.
phagocytes: cells that engulf pathogens and cell debris. Ex: macrophages of peripheral tissues and the microphages of blood.
inflammatory response: is a localized, tissue-level response that tends to limit the spread of an injury or infection.
fever: an elevation of body temp. that accelerates tissue metabolism and the activity of defenses.
immunological surveillance
interferons
complement

101
Q

A person is in fluid balance when

A

the amount of water gained each day is equal to the amount lost to the environment

102
Q

The primary components of the extracellular fluid are

A

interstitial fluid and plasma

103
Q

All the homeostatic mechanisms that monitor and adjust the composition of body fluids respond to changes

A

in the ECF

104
Q

A rise in body temperature accompanying a fever

A

increases water loss

105
Q

The most common problems with electrolyte balance are caused by an imbalance between gains and losses of

A

sodium ions

106
Q

Angiotensin II produces a coordinated elevation in the ECF volume by

A

(a) stimulating thirst
(b) causing the release of ADH
(c) triggering production and secretion of aldosterone

107
Q

What are fluid shifts? What is their function, and what fac¬tors can cause them?

A

Fluid shifts occur when the body’s fluids move between the fluid compartments psyiologically this occurs by a combination of hydrostatic pressure gradients and osmotic pressure gradients. Water will move from one chamber into the next passively across a semi permeable membrane until the hydrostatic and osmotic pressure gradients balance each other. Many medical conditions can cause fluid shifts when fluid moves out of the cells, cellular processes slow down or cease from intracellular dehydration. Fluid shifts into the brain cells can cause increased cranial pressure; fluid replacement or diuretics may compensate fluid shifts.

108
Q

Which three major hormones mediate major physiological adjustments that affect fluid and electrolyte balance

A

Antidiuretic Hormone The hypothalamus contains special cells known as osmoreceptors, which
monitor the osmotic concentration of the ECF. These cells are sensitive to subtle changes: A 2
percent change in osmotic concentration (approximately ) is sufficient to alter osmoreceptor
activity. The population of osmoreceptors includes neurons that secrete ADH. These neurons are
located in the anterior hypothalamus, and their axons release ADH near fenestrated capillaries in
the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. The rate of ADH release varies directly with osmotic
concentration: The higher the osmotic concentration, the more ADH is released. Increased
release of ADH has two important effects:
It stimulates water conservation at the kidneys, reducing urinary water losses and
concentrating the urine
it stimulates the thirst center, promoting the intake of fluids.
o Aldosterone The secretion of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex plays a major role in determining
the rate of absorption and loss along the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting system of
the kidneys. The higher the plasma concentration of aldosterone, the more efficiently the kidneys
conserve Because ―water follows salt,‖ the conservation of Na+ also stimulates water retention.
Aldosterone also increases the sensitivity of salt receptors on the tongue. This effect may
increase your interest in, and consumption of, salty foods. Aldosterone is secreted in response to

rising or falling levels in the blood reaching the adrenal cortex, or in response to the activation of
the renin–angiotensin system.
o Natriuretic Peptides The natriuretic peptides ANP and BNP are released by cardiac muscle cells
in response to abnormal stretching of the heart walls, caused by elevated blood pressure or an
increase in blood volume. Among their other effects, they reduce thirst and block the release of
ADH and aldosterone that might otherwise lead to the conservation of water and salt. The
resulting diuresis (fluid loss at the kidneys) lowers both blood pressure and plasma volume,
eliminating the source of the stimulation.

109
Q

Interstitial cells are responsible for the

A

production of androgens

110
Q

In males, the primary target of FSH is the

A

sustentacular cells of the seminiferous tubules

111
Q

Testosterone and other androgens are secreted by the

A

interstitial cells

112
Q

The ovaries are responsible for

A

the production of female gametes

b) the secretion of female sex hormones
c) the secretion of inhibin

113
Q

Ovum production, or oogenesis, begins

A

before birth

114
Q

In females, meiosis is not completed until

A

fertilization occurs

115
Q

During meiosis, when synapsis occurs, corresponding maternal and paternal chromosomes come together to produce

A

23 chromosomes

116
Q

The completion of meiosis in males produces four spermatids each containing

A

23 chromosones

117
Q

The secretory phase of the uterine cycle is influenced primarily by the stimulatory effects of progestins and estrogens from the

A

d) corpus luteum

118
Q

A sudden surge in LH secretion causes the

A

rupture of the follicular wall and ovulation

119
Q

The principal hormone of the postovulatory phase is

A

progesterone

120
Q

At ovulation, the basal body temperature

A

increases noticeably

121
Q

Impotence is the inability to

A

achieve or maintain an erection

122
Q

Menopause is accompanied by

A

sustained rises in GnRH, FSH, and LH

b) drops in circulating levels of estrogen and progesterone
c) a thinning of the urethral and vaginal walls

ap2 endocrine, blood, heart, ig tract, genetics, nutrition (2 decks)

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