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TIRED YEAR > AP RECALLS LQ 1 > Flashcards

AP RECALLS LQ 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Muddy brown urine casts with high urine protein are usually seen in _____. *

A. Post-renal azotemia
B.Prerenal azotemia
C. Intrarenal azotemia

A

C. Intrarenal azotemia

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2
Q

Confirmatory tests require ______ to be certain of the diagnosis. *

A.low specificity
B. low sensitivity
C. high specificity
D. high sensitivity

A

C. high specificity

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3
Q

A test with a higher sensitivity _______ a greater proportion of persons ______ disease. *

A. identifies – without
B.excludes - without
C.identifies – with
D.excludes - with

A

C.identifies – with

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4
Q

The fundamental characteristics of TARGET AMPLIFICATION METHODS EXCEPT: *

A. The primers bind to complementary sequences on one strand of double-stranded targets.
B. The amplification products in all the techniques are defined by two oligonucleotide primers.
C. They are enzyme-mediated processes that synthesize copies of target nucleic acid.
D. All produce millions to billions of copies of the targeted sequence in a matter of hours

A

A. The primers bind to complementary sequences on one strand of double-stranded targets.

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5
Q

Amniocentesis can be typically done during this period of gestation: *

A.between 18-20 weeks
B.between 16 and18 weeks
C. between 20 - 28 weeks
D.between 14 and16 weeks

A

B. between 16 and18 weeks

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6
Q

The postanalytic evaluation process, on the clinical significance of the Laboratory Test result, includes the following:

A.critical values
B.delta checks
C.reference ranges
D.linearity ranges
E.pretest and posttest probability
F.1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only
G. 2nd & 4th choices only
H.All of the above

A

F.1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only

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7
Q

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), which provides tissue from the developing placenta is obtained by the transabdominal or transvaginal procedure, performed at _______ gestation.

A.18 – 22 weeks
B.14 to 18 weeks
C.10 to 14 weeks
D.22-26 weeks

A

C.10 to 14 weeks

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8
Q

The methods of extraction, storage, and handling of nucleic acid molecules, depends on the type of the tissue from where they were extracted. *

A.TRUE
B.FALSE

A

B. FALSE

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9
Q

In virus, the main enzyme responsible for synthesizing a double helix complementary DNA strand (cDNA) from RNA is___: *

A. ribonuclease H
B. RNA polymerase
C. reverse transcriptase
D. integrase

A

C. reverse transcriptase

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10
Q

The major cause of simultaneous elevation of prothrombin time & activated partial thromboplastin time is _______. *

A. Coumadin therapy
B. Combined Heparin & Coumadin therapy
C. Heparin therapy
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
E. Coagulation Factor Deficiency

A

D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

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11
Q

A frequent cause of inadequate samples is the presence of high concentrations of interfering substances in the specimen such as in the following conditions: *

A. Lipemia
B. Hemolysis
C. Gammopathies
D. Icterus
E. 1st, & 3rd choices only
F. 2nd & 4th choices only
G. All of the above

A

G. All of the above

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12
Q

How are cytosines connected to guanines? *

A. 10 hydrogen bonds
B. 2 hydrogen bonds
C. 3 hydrogen bonds
D. 25 hydrogen bonds

A

C. 3 hydrogen bonds

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13
Q

It is the process of comparing a current laboratory result with results obtained on a previous specimen from the same patient. *

A. critical values
B. delta checks
C.reference ranges
D.linearity ranges
E.pretest and posttest probability
F,1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only
G.2nd & 4th choices only
H.All of the above

A

B. delta checks

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14
Q

These cells can be cultivated and made to undergo more than twice but a limited number of divisions before senescence by adding cytokines and lectins to the growth media. *

A. Neutrophils
B. gastrointestinal mucosal cells
C. nasal epithelial cells
D. fibroblasts
E.Lymphocytes

A

A. Neutrophils

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15
Q

These are laboratory results that may represent a life-threatening situation that may not otherwise be readily detectable. *

A. critical values
B.delta checks
C.reference ranges
D.linearity ranges
E.pretest and posttest probability
F.1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only
G.2nd & 4th choices only
H.All of the above

A

A. critical values

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16
Q

The usual blood gas picture in a patient with diabetes mellitus. *

A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

A

C. Metabolic acidosis

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17
Q

Osler’s rule.

A. For patients under the age of 60 years, try to attribute all abnormal laboratory findings to a single cause.
B. Never rely on a single out-of-reference range value to make a diagnosis.
C. Only if there is no possible way to correlate all abnormal findings should the possibility of multiple diagnoses be entertained.
D. 1st & 3rd choices only
E. 1st & 2nd choices only
F. All of the above

A

D. 1st & 3rd choices only

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18
Q

Which findings would be diagnostic of a severe liver failure? *

Choices: Decreased
Increased

serum bilirubin -
total protein -
De Ritis ratio -
Lactate Dehydrogenase -
Ammonia-
albumin-
Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase/ALT-
Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase

A

serum bilirubin - increased
total protein - decreased
De Ritis ratio - increased
Lactate Dehydrogenase -increased
Ammonia- increased
albumin-decreased
Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase/ALT- increased
Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase-increased

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19
Q

A patient complaining of dizziness has the following Lab results below.

Microcytic Normocytic erythrocytes;
Normal serum iron/total Iron binding capacity ratio;
Decreased red cell count; Normal iron binding capacity;
Decreased serum iron; Normal red cell distribution width;
High ferritin.

What is the most probable diagnosis? *

A. Anemia of Chronic Disease
B. Renal Failure
C. Aplastic Anemia
D. Iron Deficiency Anemia
E. Hemolytic Anemia
F. Megaloblastic Anemia

A

A. Anemia of Chronic Disease

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20
Q

Which findings would be diagnostic of massive muscle tissue necrosis?

Myoglobin -
Potassium -
Creatine Kinase (CK) -

A

Myoglobin - increase
Potassium - increase
Creatine Kinase (CK) - increase

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21
Q

A jaundiced patient with all high serum enzymes & bilirubin, but normal protein, is most likely to have _____. *

A. Obstructed cystic duct
B. Inflamed liver
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Hepatoma

A

B. Inflamed liver

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22
Q

MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection *

Choices:
-gene expression profiling & DNA sequencing
-HIV-1 RNA & HBV DNA & HCV RNA
-CMV
-cytokines in inflammation
-M tuberculosis

HYBRIDIZATION LINE-BLOT REVERSE

A

M tuberculosis

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23
Q

MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection *

Choices:
-gene expression profiling & DNA sequencing
-HIV-1 RNA & HBV DNA & HCV RNA
-CMV
-cytokines in inflammation
-M tuberculosis

ASSAYS CAPTURE HYBRID

A

CMV

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24
Q

MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection *

Choices:
-gene expression profiling & DNA sequencing
-HIV-1 RNA & HBV DNA & HCV RNA
-CMV
-cytokines in inflammation
-M tuberculosis

MICROARRAYS OLIGONUCLEOTIDE

A

gene expression profiling & DNA sequencing

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25
Q

MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection *

Choices:
-gene expression profiling & DNA sequencing
-HIV-1 RNA & HBV DNA & HCV RNA
-CMV
-cytokines in inflammation
-M tuberculosis

MACROARRAYS

A

Cytokines in inflammation

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26
Q

Which findings would be diagnostic of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) in a patient with fulminant liver failure? *

Choices: Decreased
Increased

activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

A

INCREASED

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27
Q

Which findings would be diagnostic of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) in a patient with fulminant liver failure? *

Choices: Decreased
Increased

Partial thromboplasin time (PTT)

A

INCREASED

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28
Q

Which findings would be diagnostic of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) in a patient with fulminant liver failure? *

Choices: Decreased
Increased

D-DIMER

A

INCREASED

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29
Q

Which findings would be diagnostic of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) in a patient with fulminant liver failure? *

Choices: Decreased
Increased

Platelet counts

A

DECREASED

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30
Q

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: *

Choices:
-inter-individual variation
-pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector
-analyst & laboratory factor

time between receipt of specimen and analysis

A

pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector

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31
Q

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: *

Choices:
-inter-individual variation
-pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector
-analyst & laboratory factor

Exposure to environmental factors

A

inter-individual variation

32
Q

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: *

Choices:
-inter-individual variation
-pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector
-analyst & laboratory factor

time between specimen collection and specimen endorsement

A

pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector

33
Q

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: *

Choices:
-inter-individual variation
-pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector
-analyst & laboratory factor

Sample transport

A

inter-individual variation

34
Q

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: *

Choices:
-inter-individual variation
-pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector
-analyst & laboratory factor

type of laboratory methods

A

analyst & laboratory factor

35
Q

In the documentation of panic values, the following information should be written & recorded except: *

A. name of patient
B. title or position of the caregiver who is notified
C. the time and date of notification
D. the read-back by the health care worker
E. critical value
F. name of caregiver
G. All except 1st & 5th choices
H. All except 2nd & 6th choices
I. No exception

A

I. NO EXCEPTION

36
Q

The most common site for cervical neoplastic changes. *

A.Cervical-vaginal junction
B. Endometrial-endocervical junction
C. Endocervical-exocervical junction

A

C. Endocervical-exocervical junction

37
Q

A “Normal of Negative FNAC” report means: *

A. the absence of any disease
B. the Physician could have missed the tumor location
C. the tumor could be fibrotic & less cellular
D. the tumor could be predominantly fluid with scarce cells
E. last 3 choices only
F. All of the above

A

F. All of the above

38
Q

This factor on the part of the Clinician affects greatly the accuracy of the cytologic examination: *

A. sample collection
B. interpretation of smears
C. patient & sample preparation
D. staining of the material
E. 1st & 3rd choices only
F. 2nd & 4th choices only
G. All of the above

A

E. 1st & 3rd choices only

39
Q

Obtaining specimens from the vaginal posterior fornix is an example of ___. *

A. aspiration cytology
B. exfoliative cytology
C. abrasive cytology

A

B. exfoliative cytology

40
Q

Sputum collection for Tuberculosis must be collected this number of times before proclaiming a patient as Negative: *
A. One time only if chest X-ray is negative
B. Twice in any day for a week
C. Once daily x 3 consecutive days
D. Thrice in one day 4 hours apart

A

C. Once daily x 3 consecutive days

41
Q

TRUE OR FALSE REGARDING PANIC VALUE

It must be reported immediately to a health care provider who can provide necessary medical intervention

A

TRUE

42
Q

TRUE OR FALSE REGARDING PANIC VALUE

Federal law, regulatory agencies, and the joint commission require communication of such results within 48 hrs

A

TRUE

43
Q

TRUE OR FALSE REGARDING PANIC VALUE

The healthcare provider receiving the report should readback the information being received

A

TRUE

44
Q

TRUE OR FALSE REGARDING PANIC VALUE

The laboratory has to document the reporting of panic value

A

TRUE

45
Q

TRUE OR FALSE REGARDING REFERENCE INTERVAL

It is the range of values into which 95% of nondiseased individual will fall

A

TRUE

46
Q

TRUE OR FALSE REGARDING REFERENCE INTERVAL

It means that 25% of nondiseased individuals will have laboratory results above the reference range

A

TRUE

47
Q

TRUE OR FALSE REGARDING REFERENCE INTERVAL

Around 25% of nondiseased individuals will have laboratory results above the reference range.

A

TRUE

48
Q

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: *

Choices:
-inter-individual variation
-pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector
-analyst & laboratory factor

sample storage before analysis

A

pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector

49
Q

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: *

Choices:
-inter-individual variation
-pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector
-analyst & laboratory factor

difference in age

A

inter-individual variation

50
Q

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: *

Choices:
-inter-individual variation
-pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector
-analyst & laboratory factor

sample collection

A

pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector

51
Q

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: *

Choices:
-inter-individual variation
-pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector
-analyst & laboratory factor

genetic background

A

inter-individual variation

52
Q

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: *

Choices:
-inter-individual variation
-pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector
-analyst & laboratory factor

A

pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector

53
Q

involves examination of spontaneously sledded cells from lining of an organ into a cavity

A

Exfoliative cytology

54
Q

Examination of cells collected or removed by brushing or artificial mechanical desquamation

A

Abrasive cytology

55
Q

procedure in which a thin needle is inserted into a swelling to collect a sample cells or some amount of fluid

A

Aspiration cytology

56
Q

A percutaneous procedure that involves removing a piece of tissue from a lesion or mass using a hollow needle

A

Core needle biopsy

57
Q

Cutting a sample of the suspicious tissue from a mass for purposes of diagnosis

A

Surgical biopsy

58
Q

What type of cytological techniques?

Breast tumor

A

Aspiration cytology

59
Q

What type of cytological techniques?

voided urine

A

Exfoliative cytology

60
Q

What type of cytological techniques?

Buccal mucosal smear

A

Abrasive cytology

61
Q

What type of cytological techniques?

Thyroid nodule

A

Aspiration cytology

62
Q

What type of cytological techniques?

Nipple discharge

A

Exfoliative cytology

63
Q

What type of cytological techniques?

Sputum

A

Exfoliative cytology

64
Q

What type of cytological techniques?

Pap smear

A

Abrasive cytology

65
Q

The simplest of the cells/tissue sampling techniques

A

Exfoliative cytology

66
Q

The use of fixative such as alcohol, formalin, or a mixture of both is indicated in all types of cells/tissue sampling techniques

A. True in all techniques
B. True in cytology techniques only
C. True in biopsy techniques only
D. False
E. Fresh specimens may not be soaked in fixatives

A

A. True in all techniques

67
Q

Pap smear is recommended every 1-2 years for the following

A. Women between ages 18-70 years
B. Women who have ever had sexual contact
C. Women who are sexually active
D. A & B only
E. All

A

D. A & B only

68
Q

Infection with this organism can result to squamous koilocytic atypia, dysplasias, & eventually to carcinoma when untreated

A. Monilia
B. Human papillomavirus
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Herpes simplex
E. Gardnerella vaginalis

A

B. Human papillomavirus

69
Q

High grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) comprise of the following findings

A. Koilocytosis & Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN I)
B. (Cervical intraepithelial Neoplasia) CIN 2 and CIN 3
C. A & B
D. All

A

B. (Cervical intraepithelial Neoplasia) CIN 2 and CIN 3

70
Q

The most important site for gynaecological cytology sampling

A. Endometrial-Endocervical junction
B. Endocervical-Exocervical junction
C. Exocervical-vaginal junction
D. Tubal-endometrial junction

A

B. Endocervical-Exocervical junction

71
Q

Aspiration biopsy procedure is not indicated for

A. the spleen
B. Patient with bleeding disorder
C. Patient at risk for bleeding from chemo-radiation of from cancer itself
D. patient taking blood thinning drugs
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

72
Q

Ms. L is worried of vaginal itchiness and burning with grayish white to yellow discharge and fishy odor. What do you expect to find in the papanicolau sear (pap’s smear)

A. Clue cells invaded with Gardnerella vaginalis
B. Hyphae and yeast of candida albicans
C. Protozoal trichomonas vaginalis
D. Neisseria gonorrheas

A

A. Clue cells invaded with Gardnerella vaginalis

73
Q

Which statement is correct regarding sputum collection for acid fast bacilli testing?

A. sputum specimen must be collected on three consecutive days
B. Each sputum smear on from each collection day must become positive
C. Collect only once if first smear is positive for AFB.
D. A & C only
E. All of the above

A

A. sputum specimen must be collected on three consecutive days

74
Q

The presence of these cells confirm the specimen as “sputum” rather than “mere saliva”

A. Flat squamous cells
B. Foamy macrophages
C. Columnar ciliated cells
D. neutrophils
E. B & C

A

B. Foamy macrophages

75
Q

The FNAC procedure is not indicated for the following conditions. Except:

A. Splenic mass
B. Hemophilia patients
C. Patient on chemo-radiation
D. Thrombocytopenia or taking blood thinning drugs
E. Liver mass

A

E. Liver mass

76
Q

Pitfalls to reliable results from FNAC

A. Less than 1cm mass
B. Blood aspirates
C. Dense fibrosis
D. Gross fluid
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

77
Q

Indications for cytopathology

A. Differentiation between benign and malignant lesions
B. Detection of inflammation and certain types of pathogenic agents
C. Study of the hormonal patterns and evaluation of the gonodal hormonal activity
D. The identification of Barr body
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

TIRED YEAR (16 decks)

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