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Anesthesia Practice > AP 1 Test 2 > Flashcards

AP 1 Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Most common Closed Claims cases

A

Death, Nerve damage, brain damage

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2
Q

“Other” Closed Claims cases

A

Airway injury, emotional distress, eye injury, back pain

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3
Q

How common are claims of awareness and what types

A

2% 18 awareness, 61 recall

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4
Q

Signs and symptoms of awareness

A

Hearing, sensation of paralysis, anxiety, helplessness

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5
Q

How many patients who have recall experience residual effects

A

70%

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6
Q

What volatile prevents recall the most

A

More than 0.6MAC of Iso

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7
Q

What is the most common claim of awareness

A

Females undergoing GA with no volatile

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8
Q

What is the most common error that leads to recall

A

Drug labeling and communication

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9
Q

What percentage of closed claims are concerned airway injury

A

6%

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10
Q

What percentage of airway injurys resulted from a difficult intubation

A

39%

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11
Q

What percentange of airway injuries were temporary

A

87%

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12
Q

How are airway injuries caused by mask ventilation

A

Excessive pressure damaging soft tissues

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13
Q

How do oral and nasal airways injure the airway

A

Nasal-epistaxis Oral-broken teeth, mucosal tears

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14
Q

How can an LMA lead to airway injury

A

Tip of epiglottis folded into cords Excessive lube causing laryngospasm Regurgitation Sore throat

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15
Q

What complications arise with intubation

A

Dental damage, lip injuries, sore throat, vocal cord paralysis, trauma

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16
Q

What percentage of patients have a sore throat when there is blood on instruments

A

40-65%, pain on swallowing 24-48 hrs

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17
Q

What can cause vocal cord paralysis

A

Endotracheal tube cuff, usually temporary

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18
Q

What injuries are associated with the glidescope

A

Soft palate and tonsillar injuries

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19
Q

What is the most frequent cause of complaints against anesthesiologist

A

Dental damage

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20
Q

Which serious dental injuries are most common

A

Subluxation, fracture, avulsion of teeth

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21
Q

How much does risk of dental damage increase with a difficult airway

A

20x

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22
Q

Which airway qualities have reported contact with teeth 90% of the time

A

Buck teeth and MAL3

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23
Q

Which teeth are at highest risk during a DL

A

Central incisors

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24
Q

What are the most common vascular injuries

A

Necrosis, skin slough, swelling, inflammation, infection, nerve damage, fasciotomy

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25
Q

What is the pathophysiology of aspiration

A

LES distinct from esophagus

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26
Q

What is barrier pressure

A

Difference in LES (20-30) and intragastric pressure (5-10)

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27
Q

What decreases LES pressure

A

Peristalsis, vomiting, pregnancy, achalasia, various drug

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28
Q

What increases intragastric pressure

A

Increased gastric volume, increased intraabdominal pressure

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29
Q

What affects gastric volume and gastric emptying

A

Pregnancy, labor, pain, GI disorders, renal failure, diabetes, opioids

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30
Q

What amount of gastric volume and pH are significant indicators for aspiration

A

0.4mL/kg gastric fluid, pH less than 2.5

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31
Q

What are the biggest risk factors for aspiration

A

Emergency, full stomach, obstetrics, GI obstruction, ascites, GERD, hiatal hernia

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32
Q

What are three disease outcomes from aspiration

A

Particulate-Associated Aspiration, aspiration pneumonitis, aspiration pneumonia

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33
Q

What can Particulate-associated aspiration lead to

A

Distal atelectasis

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34
Q

What causes aspiration pneumonia

A

Inhaling infected material or bacterial infection

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35
Q

What causes aspiration pneumonitis

A

Lung tissue damage b/c of aspiration of non-infective gastric fluid Desquamation of bronchial epithelium causing increased alveolar permeability Interstitial edema, reducing compliance and causing V/Q mismatch

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36
Q

What can prevent aspiration

A

Preop fasting Reducing gastric acidity/volume RSI Cricoid pressure NG tube placement

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37
Q

What drugs can reduce gastric acidity/volume (5)

A

Histamine blockers Anticholinergics Antacids PPI Antiemetics

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38
Q

What are major complications related to positioning

A

Venous Air Embolism, alopecia, backache, extremity compartment syndrome, corneal abrasion, nerve palsies, retinal ischemia, necrosis

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39
Q

What is the most common position for Extremity Compartment Syndrome

A

Lithotomy

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40
Q

What percentage of Closed Claims deals with eye injury

A

3%

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41
Q

What are the top causes of corneal abrasion

A

Facemark, import taping of eyes, decreased tear production, swelling

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42
Q

Who is most at risk for eye injury

A

Robotic prostatectomy

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43
Q

What is the first choice treatment for corneal abrasion

A

Erythromycin

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44
Q

What is the backup treatment for corneal abrasion

A

Bacitracin eye ointment QID x 48hrs

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45
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for Ischemic Optic Neuropathy

A

Spine surgery in prone position

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46
Q

What two arteries get occluded during IOP

A

Central Retinal Artery Retinal Artery Branch

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47
Q

How often should intermittent examinations be done to reduce chance of IOP

A

Every 20 minutes

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48
Q

What releases inflammatory agents in an Anaphylactic reaction

A

Basophils and Mast cells

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49
Q

What does an antigen interact with during an anaphylactic reaction

A

IgE

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50
Q

What two main side effects occur with a Type I hypersensitivity reaction

A

Urticaria and angioedema

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51
Q

What is different about an anaphylactoid reaction

A

No IgE interaction

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52
Q

What is the MOA for an anaphylactoid reaction

A

Drug directly release histamine from mast cells

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53
Q

What is a pretreatment for anaphylactoid reaction

A

Histamine antagonist, corticosteroids

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54
Q

What is the biggest cause of allergic reactions

A

Muscle relaxants - 60%

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55
Q

Who is most at risk for Latex allergies

A

Healthcare workers

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56
Q

What groups of patients are at risk for Latex allergies

A

Spina bifida, spinal cord injury, GU abnormalities

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57
Q

What percentage of the population is allergic to PCN (beta lactic) and what percentage is anaphylactic

A

2%, 0.1%

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58
Q

What type of reaction is Vancomycin and Redman syndrome

A

Anaphylactoid

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59
Q

What are the CV symptoms of a reaction

A

Hypotension Tachycardia Arrhythmia

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60
Q

What drug treats allergic reactions

A

Epinephrine

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61
Q

What pulmonary symptoms occur from an allergic reaction

A

Bronchospasm, cough, dyspnea, edema, hypoxia

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62
Q

What dermatological symptoms occur from an allergic reaction

A

Pruritis, urticaria, facial edema

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63
Q

What is the dose of Epi to stop an allergic reaction

A

0.01-0.15 IV or IM

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64
Q

What are methods to treat an anaphylactic reaction

A

stop agent, 100% oxygen, intubation, fluid load

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65
Q

What is the dose of diphenhydramine (benadryl) to treat an allergic reaction

A

50-75 mg IV

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66
Q

What is the dose of Ranitidine (H2 blocker)

A

150 mg IV

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67
Q

What is the dose of hydrocortisone

A

up to 200mg IV

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68
Q

What amount defines hyperkalemia

A

Greater than 5 mEq

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69
Q

How can you rule out pseudohyperkalemia

A

Hemolysis, Leukocytosis, Thrombocytosis

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70
Q

What are the 3 ways you can get hyperkalemia

A

Excess K+ intake, Translocation from ICF to ECF (B blockers, digitalis, aldosterone blockers, succinylcholine), decreased excretory capacity (cyclosporine, NSAIDS, ACE inhibitors, K+ sparing diuretics)

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71
Q

How is hyperkalemia manifested on an EKG

A

Peaked T waves

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72
Q

How is extreme hyperkalemia manifested on an EKG

A

Sine waves

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73
Q

What are cardiovascular effects of hyperkalemia

A

Arrhythmias, heart block, delayed conduction, ventricular standstill, peaked T waves, decreased P waves, prolonged PR interval, wide QRS, sine wave

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74
Q

What are the neuromuscular effects of hyperkalemia

A

Paresthesias (Na/K pumps), weakness, paralysis, confusion

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75
Q

What are 5 treatments of hyperkalemia

A

1) Ca2+ to stabilize cardiac membrane 2) Insulin to drive K+ back in cells and Glucose to avoid hypokalemia 3) Hyperventilation to induce alkalosis and shift K+ (increase minute ventilation) 4) Diuretics (Lasix) 5) Dialysis

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76
Q

Does vasoconstriction increase or decrease with hypothermia

A

Decrease

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77
Q

What are side effects of hypothermia

A

Myocardial ischemia, arrythmias, coagulopathy, longer duration of muscle relaxants

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78
Q

What does shivering do to O2 consumption, CO2 production, and cardiac output

A

Increase b/c heart rate increases

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79
Q

What is the definition of a critical incident

A

A human error or equipment failure that could have led to undesirable outcomes

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80
Q

What are the top causes of critical incidences

A

1) Human error (68%) 2) Equipment failure 3) Disconnection

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81
Q

What percentage of incidences occur from failure to inspect

A

22-33%

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82
Q

Where is local injected for a spinal

A

CSF of subarachnoid space (intrathecal)

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83
Q

Which neuraxial method requires more drug

A

Epidural

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84
Q

Which neuraxial method works more quickly

A

Spinal

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85
Q

Where is an epidural injected

A

Epidural space

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86
Q

Which neuraxial method has the chance of mixing spinal and epidural

A

Epidural

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87
Q

Which injections are used for chronic pain release

A

Epidural injections and indwelling spinal catheters

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88
Q

What are the 7 absolute contraindications for neuraxial anesthesia

A

Infection, patient refusal, aortic stenosis, mitral stenosis, hypovolemia, increased ICP, coagulopathy

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89
Q

What are the 4 relative contraindications for neuraxial anesthesia

A

Sepsis, uncooperative patient, neurologic deficit, spinal deformity

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90
Q

What are the 3 controversial contraindications for neuraxial anesthesia

A

Prior back surgery, can’t communicate, complicated surgery

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91
Q

What oral anticoagulant must be stopped with the patient having normal PT and INR

A

Coumadin (Warfarin), stopped days before

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92
Q

What are the 2 antiplatelet drugs that must be stopped 7 days before surgery

A

NSAIDS and Plavix [makes platelets slippery]

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93
Q

How long must an epidural be in place before intraop heparin is given

A

1 hour

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94
Q

How long after intraop heparin is given before an epidural can be removed

A

4 hours

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95
Q

What is an example of low molecular weight heparin

A

Lovenox, can’t have an hour before or after they take the catheter out

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96
Q

What does the vertebral canal extend from

A

Foramen magnum to sacral hiatus

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97
Q

What is the principal landmark for spinal anesthesia

A

L4, iliac crest

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98
Q

What is the principal landmark for thoracic epidurals

A

T7-T8 interspace, scapula

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99
Q

Where does the posterior superior iliac spine lie

A

S2

100
Q

What are the 3 ligaments of the spinal canal

A

Supraspinous, infraspinous, ligamentum flavum

101
Q

Where does an adult and infant spinal cord end

A

Adult L1, infant L4

102
Q

What are the dermatomes for nipple and belly button

A

T4 nipple (C section), T10 belly button (TURP)

103
Q

What does a spinal cover

A

Everything below pelvis

104
Q

What are the motor/sensory coverages of both neuraxial methods

A

Spinal single shot can take out motor function Epidural can maintain motor and still take out sensory

105
Q

What are the relative sizes of the nerves and what is the difficulty of blockage

A

Sympathetic > Sensory > Motor Motor most difficult, sensory easier but spreads more, sympathetic easiest

106
Q

How can you test a sympathetic block

A

Bag of ice/coldness factor

107
Q

Which dermatomes are the cardiac accelerators and what happens if they are blocked

A

T1-T4, low BP low HR

108
Q

Which dermatomes determine vasomotor tone

A

L5-T1

109
Q

What should you do if a patient is nauseous from the hypotension caused by an epidural

A

Lay down, maybe trendelenburg

110
Q

What are the blood vessels supplying the spinal cord

A

One anterior Two posterior Artery of Adamkiewicz - 2/3 anterior portion of cord

111
Q

What are the indications for an epidural

A

Primary anesthetic for belly or lower extremity Supplements general anesthesia Postop pain

112
Q

What are the indications for a spinal

A

Lower abdomen, perineum, lower extremities

113
Q

How should a patient be positioned for a midline approach

A

Sitting

114
Q

What prodecures should a patient be positioned prone to received neuraxial block

A

Anorectal

115
Q

What is the principle site of action for neuraxial blocks

A

Nerve root

116
Q

What is the MOA for neuraxial blocks

A

Binds to nerve tissue and blocks transmission of pain signals

117
Q

What does blocking posterior nerve rooms interrupt

A

Somatic and visceral sensory nerves

118
Q

What does blocking anterior nerve roots block

A

Motor and autonomic outflow

119
Q

Which neuraxial block must be very close to the roots anesthesized

A

Epidural

120
Q

Which block can achieve a differential blockade

A

Somatic motor (sympathetic, sensory, or motor)

121
Q

What does a somatic block do

A

Interrupt pain Abolish skeletal muscle tone

122
Q

What area does a sympathetic block cover

A

Thoracolumber, T1-L2 Small myelinated

123
Q

What area does an autonomic block cover

A

Craniosacral, not vagus

124
Q

What are the CV effects of a neuraxial block

A

Decreased HR, BP, contractility Decreased tone

125
Q

Where are the cardiac accelerators

A

T1-T4

126
Q

What pulmonary effects does a neuraxial block have

A

Can knock out accessory muscles and possibly diaphragn via phrenic nerve (C3-C5)

127
Q

What GI effects does a neuraxial block have

A

Vagal tone dominate (increased function)

128
Q

What effect does neuraxial anesthesia have on renal function

A

None

129
Q

What effect does neuraxial anesthesia have on urinary retention

A

Increases

130
Q

What are the three types of spinal needles

A

Quinke (teardrop), Whitacre (dot), Sprotte (rectangle)

131
Q

What are the 3 types of epidural needles

A

Tuohy (blunt tip), Crawford (thin walled), Waiss winged

132
Q

What are the advantages of an epidural over a spinal

A

-Decreased risk of post dural headache -Segmental sensory block -Greater control over intensity of block and type -Can titrate/elongate block with indwelling catheter -Can hit all 3 spinal levels

133
Q

What are the disadvantages of an epidural

A

-Slower onset time 10-20 min -Less dense of a block -No confirmation like a spinal (loss of resistance)

134
Q

Do you need more or less volume/concentration for an epidural

A

More

135
Q

What is a test dose for an epidural

A

3ml 1.5% lidocaine with epi 1:200,000

136
Q

What is the amount of local per segment

A

1-2mL per level

137
Q

What patient populations are exception for amount of epidural

A

Short, elderly

138
Q

What are the benefits of spinal over an epidural

A

Shorter time, slighter amount, more intense sensory/motor block, can confirm placement by CSF

139
Q

What classes of drugs can you add to a spinal block

A

Vasoconstrictors, opioids

140
Q

What are the three levels of baracitiy affecting a spinal

A

Hypobaric - less dense than CSF, floats Isobaric - same, stays in place Hyperbaric - more dense than CSF, sinks

141
Q

What affects the level of a spinal block

A

Baricity, positioning during and immediately after, concentration, site of injection

142
Q

What two substances can be added to chance the baricity of a spinal

A

Water and glucose

143
Q

Which neuraxial method risks cardiac arrest

A

Spinal

144
Q

What causes a post dural puncture headache

A

Breach of dura, CSF leaks and causes decreased intracranial pressure, needle size

145
Q

What are the s/s of PDPH

A

Photophobia, nausea

146
Q

What are the 3 types of PDPH

A

Bilateral, frontal, retroorbital

147
Q

What is the definitive treatment for PDPH

A

Epidural blood patch

148
Q

Spinal vs Epidural injection location

A

Spinal - lumbar only Epidural - anywhere

149
Q

Spinal vs Epidural duration of block

A

Spinal - brief Epidural - longer

150
Q

Spinal vs Epidural procedure time

A

Spinal - brief Epidural - longer

151
Q

Spinal vs Epidural quality of block

A

Spinal - high Epidural - not as good

152
Q

Spinal vs Epidural advantages

A

Spinal - increased risk of hypotension Epidural - dural puncture headache

153
Q

What is the most common regional technique in peds for prodecures below diaphragm

A

Caudal anesthesia

154
Q

What does the needle penetrate in caudal anesthesia

A

Sacrococcygeal ligament covering the sacral hiatus

155
Q

What is the sacral hiatus formed by

A

Unfused S4-S5 vertebrae

156
Q

What are the two main categories of regional anesthesia

A

Neuraxial blocks (spinal, epidural, caudal) Peripheral nerve blocks (single shot, indwelling catheters)

157
Q

What are the levels a needle transverses

A

Skin–>subcutaneous–>supraspinous–>infrasponous–>flavum–>epidural space–>dura mater–>arachnoid–>subarachnoid (intrathecal)–>pia–>cord

158
Q

What 2 things does the spread of a spinal depend on

A

1) Baricity 2) dose

159
Q

What are the risk factors of PDPH

A

Young women, heavier, pregnant

160
Q

What is the conservative treatment for PDPH

A

Lay down, caffiene to build CSF

161
Q

Where must an epidural be placed

A

Approximate middle of desired dermatomal block

162
Q

What determines spread of epidural

A

1) Volume

163
Q

Which one can be used for anethesia or analgesia

A

Epidural

164
Q

What position of receiving a block is important for post op

A

Lateral decubitis

165
Q

Where is the most prominent cervical process

A

C7

166
Q

Which part of the action potential does neuraxial anesthesia block

A

The activations of Na+ channels

167
Q

Which one can achieve differential block

A

Epidural

168
Q

Interrupting what transmission provides a sympathetic blockade

A

Efferent autonomic

169
Q

What effects come from a sympathetic bloack

A

Decreased sympathetic tone or unopposed parasympathetic tone

170
Q

Why is there urinary retention

A

Blockade of lumbar and sacral leads to blocking of sympathetic and parasympathetic

171
Q

What receptors do neuraxial opioids act on

A

NTs that act on mu receptors on the spinal cord to transmit pain Dont cause hypotension or motor block

172
Q

Why do opioids cause urinary retention

A

Inhibit micturation reflux, inhibit detrussor muscles

173
Q

Why do opioids cause itching

A

Histamine, mu receptors

174
Q

Why do opioids cause PONV

A

Chemoreceptor triggers

175
Q

Which opioids cause early respiratory depression

A

Lipophilic like fentanyl or meperidine, absorb into epidural space

176
Q

Which opioids cause late respiratory depression

A

Hydrophilic like morphine, caused by cephalad spread after 12 hours

177
Q

Why is increased fibrinolytic activity and decreased stasis a benefit of blocks

A

Less risk of PVT, PE

178
Q

What immune benefits come with blocks

A

Less infection, less tumor regrowth, less stress response

179
Q

What are the cardiovascular benefits for thoracic epidural analgesia

A

Less MI, less dysrhythmias

180
Q

How much do hematoma occur

A

1/100,000

181
Q

How often to meningitis/abcesses occur

A

1/65,000-500,000

182
Q

How often does dural puncture/PDPH occur

A

1%

183
Q

What are the first signs of local toxicitiy

A

Circumoral numbness, metallic taste, ringing of ears, dizziness

184
Q

What are the later, worse effects of local toxicity

A

Respiratory arrest, CV arrest (spinal)

185
Q

What is Transient Neurologic Syndrome

A

Radicular irritation

186
Q

What increases the concern for TNS

A

Lidocaine spinals, lithotomy

187
Q

What is Cauda Equina syndrome

A

Direct neurotoxicity or cord trauma, reason microcatheters are banned

188
Q

Which is better for postop pain

A

Epidural

189
Q

What is flap surgery

A

Transfer of tissue to another site

190
Q

What 2 things determine which flap is used

A

Size and site of defect

191
Q

What are the 2 types of flaps

A

Pedicle, free

192
Q

What is a pedicle flap

A

Tissue released at original site, twisted around neurovascular bundle without interruption of blood flow

193
Q

What is a free flap

A

Tissue and neurovascular bundle removed from donor site and replaced by microsurgical anastomosis to a new site

194
Q

Which flap has more reliable perfusion and better sensation

A

Pedicle

195
Q

What would you use a latissimus doors myocutaneous pedicle flap for

A

Breast or chest wall reconstruction

196
Q

What would you use a TRAM pedicle flap for

A

Breast or chest wall reconstruction

197
Q

What would you use a buttock/posterior thigh pedicle flap for

A

Pressure sore reconstruction

198
Q

What would you use a forehead or cheek interpolation pedicle flap for

A

Nasal deformities

199
Q

Which flap has no lymph drainage initially

A

Free flap

200
Q

What factors are free flaps still sensitive to eventhough they are desensitized to SNS

A

Hypoxia, hypercapnia, K+, Mg2+, osmoalility, catecholamines

201
Q

Which one used a single feeder artery and vein

A

Free flap

202
Q

What are 2 types of free flaps

A

Fibula flap w/ peroneal artery and vein, radial forearm flap

203
Q

What are the 3 stages of free flaps

A

1) Primary ischemia 2) Reperfusion 3) Secondary ischemia

204
Q

When does anoxic injury start during primary ischemia

A

Lactate, calcium, inflammatory mediators increasing - pH decreasing

205
Q

What is reperfusion

A

Washing out of toxic metabolites

206
Q

When does reperfusion injury occur

A

When complement and immune complex activation occurs

207
Q

When does secondary ischemia occur

A

When massive intravascular thrombosis and interstitial edema happens

208
Q

What causes secondary ischemia

A

Arterial/venous thrombosis, kinking/vasospasm, compression from dressings

209
Q

What can cause flap edema

A

XS crystalloids, hemodilution, prolonged ischemia, histamines, flap manipulation

210
Q

What CV factors can cause secondary ischemia

A

Vasoconstriction, hypovolemia, hypothermia, alkalosis, pain, hypotension, MI depressor drugs, heart failure

211
Q

What does the Staged Flap/Vascular Delay involve

A

Vascularly undermining blood flow to flap and leaving it in place to cause angiogensis and ischemia preconditioning

212
Q

What is the delay to transfer a staged flap

A

3 weeks

213
Q

What is the main determinant of perfusion to the flap and what should you avoid

A

Arterial tension, vasopressors

214
Q

How does isovolumetric hemodilution improve blood flow to flap

A

Reduce viscosity

215
Q

What HCT level greatly increases viscosity

A

40

216
Q

What is the best HCT level for desired viscosity

A

30

217
Q

Does hypothermia increase or decrease viscosity and how

A

Increase by causing aggregation of RBCs

218
Q

Does hyper or hypovolemia help dilate flap vessels

A

Hypervolemia

219
Q

What should you consider monitor-wise for serial lab checks and volume status with SBP and PP variation

A

A line

220
Q

What should you monitor if you cant get an IV

A

CVL, CVP

221
Q

What does propofol do to platelet aggregation and why

A

Inhibits because its an intralipid

222
Q

What patients are at higher risk for flap failure

A

High ASA, head/neck cancer, smokers, alcoholics, heart/lung issues, poor nutritional status

223
Q

Why would airways be difficult in flap cases

A

Tumor or radiation

224
Q

What lab should you consider running if the patient had prior chemo

A

ECHO

225
Q

How long should smoking be discontinued for before flap surgery

A

3 weeks, esp TRAM flaps

226
Q

A BMI of what greatly increases chance of failure

A

30

227
Q

Patients with which 2 problems are of concern for flap surgeries

A

HLD, PAD

228
Q

Why should you check glucose levels in diabetic patients before flap surgeries

A

Help reduce post op infections and vascular leakage

229
Q

What blood tests should you order preop before a flap surgery

A

CBC, basic panel, T/C

230
Q

What effects does warming your patients have on viscosity and vasoconstriction

A

Prevents increases in viscosity and vasoconstriction

231
Q

What could you do preop do prevent thrombosis

A

LMW heparin, compression socks

232
Q

How long do flap surgeries usually last

A

6-12 hours

233
Q

What do you need to measure with an A line during a flap surgery

A

SBP/PP variation

234
Q

Do you need a foley with UOP for flap surgery

A

Yes

235
Q

What IV access do you need for flap surgeries

A

2 large bore IVs

236
Q

What monitor should you use so you can limit anesthetic depth

A

BIS

237
Q

What effect does hypocapnia and hypercapnia have on SVR and CO

A

Hypocapnia - increase SVR, decrease CO Hypercapnia - induces sympathetic stimulation

238
Q

What does hyperoxia cause (CV)

A

Vasoconstriction, poor circulation

239
Q

What drug should you NOT use during flap surgery

A

Pressors

240
Q

What will surgeons sometimes request for improvement of flap survival

A

ASA, heparin

241
Q

What would a surgeon inject if a vasospam occurs during flap surgery

A

Papaverine, verapamil, or lidocaine - but could cause hypotension

242
Q

What postop monitors are used for flap monitoring

A

Doppler US, laser doppler, transQ O2 tension

243
Q

What is the failure rate for flap surgery

A

4%

244
Q

What does a pale and cold flap usually indicate

A

Arterial thrombosis

245
Q

What does a congested flap usually indicate

A

Venous obstruction

246
Q

What level should you keep UOP at for flap surgerys

A

Greater than 1cc/kg/hr

247
Q

What should your Sat be above for flap surgeries

A

94

Anesthesia Practice (9 decks)

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