AOT60 Flashcards

1
Q

How long is a TAF valid At Auckland, Wellington, Christchurch and Ohakea?

A

30hrs

When a routine update is issued it’s valid for 27hrs (because the update is made 3hours after the old TAF’s issued and 3hrs before the new TAF’s issued.

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2
Q

How long is a TAF valid in Hamilton?

A

24hrs

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3
Q

How long is a Domestic TAF valid not including AA,WN,CH,OH,HN?

A

When issued between 11pm and midnight - 18hrs

When issued between 11am and midday - 12hrs

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4
Q

When are TAFs issued at AA, WN, CH, OH?

A

Every 6 hours (total of 4 per 24hrs)

A routine update will be issued between each TAF (total of 4 per 24hrs)

When added together there is an updated TAF every 3hrs

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5
Q

When are TAF’s issued at HN?

A

Every 6hrs

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6
Q

When are TAF’s issued at domestic Aerodromes not including AA, WN, CH, OH, HN

A

Every 12 hrs

1 at midnight and 1 at midday

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7
Q

How often are sigwx charts issued and how long are they valid?

A

4 times daily

2 are always issued and each is valid for 6hrs

1400z valid 1500-2100z and 2100-0300z
2000z valid 2100-0300z and 0300-0900z
0200z valid 0300-0900z and 0900-1500z
0800z valid 0900-1500z and 1500-2100z

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8
Q

How often are AAW’s issued and valid for?

A

Issued at 1100z valid from 12z-06z

Issued at 2100z valid from 21z-12z

(Issued twice daily at same time as grafors)

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9
Q

How often are GRAFOR’s issued and valid for?

A

Issued twice daily in sets of 3 at 1100z and 2100z (same times as AAW’s)

Issue 1 is valid 18z, 00z, 06z

Issue 2 is valid 00z, 06z, 12z

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10
Q

How long is a metar valid?

A

Only for the exact time it’s issued at. A metar is just a snapshot of current conditions

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11
Q

When and where are METAR and SPECI reports issued?

A

WP, OH, MF only during hours of attendance by atc or flight service.

They are issued hourly

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12
Q

What’s a SPECI?

A

A special report issued off METAR hours in METAR format

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13
Q

When must an airep special be reported?

A

Anytime hazardous met conditions are experienced which in the pilots opinion are or may become severe enough to warrant a sigmet. Must be reported to nearest ats unit.

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14
Q

How long is a sigmet valid?

A

4hrs

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15
Q

Is wind direction true or magnetic in a BWR (basic weather report)?

A

Magnetic

“If it’s written it’s true”

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16
Q

Is wind direction true or magnetic in a BWR (basic weather report)?

A

Magnetic

“If it’s written it’s true”

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17
Q

When and how is RVR reported

A

When viz drops below 1500m at AA and CH

Broken up into touchdown zone (TDZ) runway midpoint (MID) runway stop-end (END)

It will be added to the ATIS and reported to aircraft by ATC when commencing an approach or when requested by approach control.

Also touchdown zone RVR is automatically added to metar auto when viz below 1500m

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18
Q

What is MRA?

A

Minimum reception altitude

Lowest height VOR reception is guaranteed above MSA

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19
Q

What is MFA?

A

Minimum flight altitude

The lowest height an aircraft can fly considering terrain, airspace (special use such as restricted and volcanic hazard zones) and Nav aid reception.

It’s the highest out of MSA, MEA, MRA

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20
Q

What is MEA?

A

Minimum enroute altitude

It’s the lowest safe altitude along a route taking into account NDB reception and MSA

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21
Q

What is MSA?

A

Minimum safe altitude

The lowest safe altitude ensuring terrain clearance.

Typically:

1000ft terrain clearance in non mountainous terrain

2000ft clearance in mountainous terrain

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22
Q

What do we use contingency fuel for and how much is it?

A

6% of the a-b burn or 5 minutes whichever is higher

It’s for any unforeseen changes such as delays, weather or emergencies

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23
Q

Is a TAF AGL or AMSL?

A

AGL

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24
Q

What’s our wake separation behind an a320?

A

None

Medium to medium

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25
Q

Time and distance based Wake separation behind 777?

A

2 minutes (3 minutes if it’s from an intermediate departure point)

5nm

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26
Q

Wake separation behind a380

A

3 minutes or 4 if from and intermediate departure point

7nm

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27
Q

On approach what deviation on our instruments is allowed before we carry out a missed approach?

A

• LOC ¼ scale
• GS ¼ scale
• VOR 3°
• NDB prolonged deviations of 5°
• RNAV - an ANP of >0.5 (POS uncertain warning) or a GPS INTEG

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28
Q

Circling minima as per company SOP’s?

A

-Day only

-no lower than published MDA or 1,000 ft AAL, whichever is the higher.

-Visibility greater of 5,000 m or published minimum visibility.

We can do circling at night for places like Rotorua on the RNP B if it states it in the route guide

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29
Q

Take off minima when no minima is prescribed?

A

300ft ceiling

1500m viz

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30
Q

Below what viz must the captain fly? Approach & departure

A

800m departure

1000m approach

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31
Q

What are the requirements to fly a reduced take off minima departure with a 0ft ceiling and 800m viz?

A

• RWY has centre line markings or lights.
• Nose Wheel Steering is serviceable.
• A departure alternate aerodrome is nominated if weather conditions or operational considerations preclude a return to land.
• Minimum of 14 RWY lights are visible.
• Full runway length is used.
• The PIC can confirm that the minimum visibility is present. (By observation of the RWY lights from the take-off position. Where RVR is reported, the minimum required visibility must achieved in all RVR zones (TDZ/MID/END).)
• Aircraft has operative autofeather system

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32
Q

What are the additional requirements to fly a reduced take off minima departure below 800m viz?

A

• The RWY lighting has a serviceable secondary power supply and automatic switch-over.
• The PIC can confirm that the minimum visibility has been met:
• 400m - 7 runway lights
• 350m - 6 runway lights
• Or an RVR report from the ATIS or control tower
• Both pilots have carried out simulator training on reduced visibility take-offs to 350m, and have carried out a reduced visibility take-off in the simulator within the previous 13 months.
• Left seat pilot must be PF
• Maximum crosswind component 20kt

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33
Q

Runway edge light spacing?

A

60 metres

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34
Q

During low viz ops what are the 3 conditions that must be met by both pilots? (How do we confirm we are on the correct runway?)

A

• Refer to the appropriate Airport Arrival/Departure pages for any specific Low Visibility Operations procedures.
• The Airport Ground Chart is to be used for taxi guidance.
• Both pilots must confirm the aircraft is lined up on the correct runway for take-off by reading the runway designator painted on the runway beside the threshold markings, or by tuning the appropriate LLZ freq.

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35
Q

Privileges of an ATPL?

A

All the privileges of an IR and CPL plus;

Can act as PIC of an ATO operating for hire or reward requiring multi crew

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36
Q

When do we require an alternate?

A

+-1hr eta at destination weather is forecast below

1000ft ceiling

5km or 2kmviz above minima whichever is greater

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37
Q

Alternate minima/requirements?

A

Weather at eta must be at or above;

-precision app 600ft or 200ft ceiling above DA and 3000m or 1000m viz above minima

-non precision 800ft or 200ft above DA and 4000m or 1500m above minima

A weather alternate requires the following:
• Weather forecasts and NOTAM available for flight planning.
• Weather conditions at the expected time of arrival, equal to or better than the alternate minima for the planned approach.
• Runway lighting for operations occurring beginning 30 mins before ECT until 30 mins after MCT. Lighting may be either pilot activated, remotely activated or manned.
• Notification and agreement of the Regional Ops Centre of the selected alternate.

Restrictions:

-When planning for a precision approach at an alternate aerodrome based on precision alternate minima, two serviceable ILS receivers are required and for ILS approaches that require DME, two serviceable DME receivers are required (AA, WN, CH and DN).
-Secondary back up power and auto-switchover (for Navaid and lights as req)

WX Alt AD does not require ATC or Rescue Fire (SOP)
Tech and departure Alt AD also doesn’t need traffic or ground staff

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38
Q

Duties of PIC

A

(1) A pilot-in-command is responsible for—

(a) the safe operation of the aircraft; and
(b) the safety and well-being of all passengers and crew; and
(c) the safety of the cargo carried.
(2) The pilot-in-command has final authority to control the aircraft while in command and for the maintenance of discipline by all persons on board the aircraft.
(3) The pilot-in-command is responsible for compliance with all relevant requirements of civil aviation legislation.
(4) Subsection (3) is subject to sections 15 and 16. (Can breach the legislation if it’s safer to do so)

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39
Q

Minimum holding speed in icing?

A

Vclimb + 20

(Performance manual)

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40
Q

During an engine failure in the cruise what’s the first step to mange the aircraft’s energy?

A

Condition levers max (close to max continuous power)

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41
Q

What are the required documents to be carried on board the aircraft? (SOP’s and NZ civil aviation rules)

A

● Technical Log

– Q300 Daily Check Records
– Certificate of Airworthiness
– Certificate of Maintenance
– Certificate of Registration
– Open/deferred items
– Notices to crew
– Damage Register Table
– Cabin Condition reports
– Maintenance Log
– Aircraft radio station approval levels CAA 2129
– Weight and balance data CAA form 2173 or ANZ form ET5329

● MEL/DDG
● AMS
● SOPs
● CSM
● Route Guide – Part 1 & 2
● FCOM1*
● QRH
● Checklist (two copies)
● Performance Manual*
● AIP Flip – Q300 #
● Navigation Charts # - two copies of each
● ICAO Emergency Response Guidance (Doc 9481)
● Flight Log/ Trip Record
● Operational Flight Plan
● Meteorological Briefing
● NOTAMs and other briefing documents
● GPS RAIM Prediction
● Loadsheet
● NOTOC (if applicable)
● Flight Deck Observer Briefing Card

  • Equivalent document to Aircraft Flight Manual
    # Senior Manager Aircraft Operations or Duty Pilot may approve limited use of alternative documents or despatch with non relevant set missing.
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42
Q

What is the max fuel discrepancy on a load sheet?

A

50kg

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43
Q

Oxygen required 3 crew

A

1800psi

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44
Q

Oxygen required for 2 crew

A

1300psi

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45
Q

Can you dispatch to an uncontrolled airport with tcas and/or egpws inop?

A

No unless only one is inop and you get approval by the senior manager of air operations

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46
Q

What is the standard ifr seperation in uncontrolled airspace?

A

1000’ vertically
Or
10nm horizontally

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47
Q

In uncontrolled airspace when passing opposite direction traffic how much distance do you need once traffic has passed to climb through its level?

A

5nm

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48
Q

In uncontrolled airspace when following anther ifr aircraft what height do you have to remain above until the preceding aircraft is visual?

A

1000ft above published missed approach altitude

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49
Q

Uncontrolled separation on departure?

A

At least 1 minute separation provided the tracks do not cross and are at least 45 degrees apart. At least 10NM separation if the tracks are separated by less than 45 degrees but this may be reduced to a minimum of 1 minute separa-tion if at least a 1,000ft vertical separation is maintained and the preceding aircraft is climbing to a higher altitude.

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50
Q

In uncontrolled airspace who has right of way?

A

Arriving aircraft has right of way over departing aircraft on the ground

If both are arriving the lower aircraft has right of way

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51
Q

Can we land with a tailwind on a wet runway?

A

Yes (fcom1) and no (performance manual)

The performance manual says we can land at MLW on a runway 1300m or more, up to 10kts tail wind on a ‘dry runway’ with no landing calculations required. It also says we can land on wet runways with no tailwind.

The problem is only runways shorter than 1300m have landing graphs in the route guide meaning we can’t do a landing calculation if the runways wet at airports with runways longer than 1300m.

So the answer ultimately is no we can’t on runways longer than 1300m.

52
Q

Below what altitude must the pic guard the controls?

A

1000ft

53
Q

What’s the maximum wind strength for take off and landing?

A

60kts

54
Q

Maximum xw limit for a contaminated runway?

A

15kts

55
Q

What are the engine start wind limitations?

A

35kts tailwind for gpu start

20kts for apu start

56
Q

What landing distance corrections are applied to normal landing data?

A

1.43 for dry runways

1.64 for wet runways

If the landing correction is equal to or less than 1.64 in the QRH and the runway is at least 1300m long no further correction is required (dry runway only)

57
Q

Below what oxygen pressure do we advise moc?

A

1600psi

58
Q

What glide slope guidance is required to fly an approach (day & night)

A

During the day if no Papi or ils guidance is available we need at least 5km viz and 1000ft ceiling and an instrument approach should be flown to minimums.

All night operations require a PAPI or ILS guidance.

59
Q

What is an adults weight

A

87kg

60
Q

Child’s weight?

A

40kg (2-11years)

61
Q

Infant weight

A

10kg (under 2 years old)

62
Q

Sports weight?

A

106kg

63
Q

Galley weight (A no cart)

A

0kg

64
Q

Galley weight (B cart only)

A

43kg

65
Q

Galley weight (C cart and catering)

A

77kg

66
Q

Under what conditions can we land without a landing calculation?

A

MLW with LDA 1300m or more, prop de ice on or off under the following conditions:

-dry runway up to 10kts tailwind
-wet runway no tailwind
-Without MEL or ER Failure affecting landing performance

67
Q

Looking at Aerodrome a navaid label what does it mean if the border is shaded vs not shaded?

A

Shaded means the navaid is used for the prescribed procedure

If it’s unshaded it’s not used for the procedure

68
Q

Green oxygen disk (overboard discharge disk) missing, can we still depart?

A

Indicates that the pressure relief valve has discharged oxygen

(o) (m) May be missing provided an approved procedure is used to ensure that the oxygen supply is at or above minimum requirements for the flight.
1. Prior to each flight, check the pressure in the crew fixed oxygen system bottle by whichever gauge is operative.
2. The minimum dispatch pressure is 1300 psi at 21.1 deg C. Refer to graph for MEL 35-04- 01A(O) for pressure variations with change in ambient temperature.

69
Q

APU yellow disk missing?

A

The apu fire bottle has discharged via the extinguishing system. (Into the apu)

MEL
(m)May be inoperative provided:
1) The Fuel Shutoff Valve is verified closed; and,
2) The APU is not used.

70
Q

APU red disk missing?

A

APU fire bottle has thermally discharge (discharged into the atmosphere)

MEL
(m)May be inoperative provided:
1) The Fuel Shutoff Valve is verified closed; and,
2) The APU is not used.

71
Q

Yellow disk missing on wing root?

A

Fire bottle has discharged via the extinguishing system

MEL
(o)(m)Either or both may be missing provided indicator readings are checked each flight day to determine adequate charge.

72
Q

Red disk missing on Wing Root

A

Fire bottle has thermally discharged

MEL
(o)(m)Either or both may be missing provided indicator readings are checked each flight day to determine adequate charge.

73
Q

Slash on the tyre/ Canvas showing what do you do?

A

Inform captain. Call MOC. Assess condition. No-go if canvas showing or no tread remaining

74
Q

How much contingency fuel do we need? A-B and B-C

A

A-B = 6% or 5 minutes whichever is higher e.g WN-WB

B-C = 3%

75
Q

When can you use the 30mins Final Reserve?

A

When all other options are exhausted and utilising CAA Act S13A

76
Q

What makes up our safe Endurance fuel?

A

A-B Fuel (T/o from A, SID, Climb, Cruise, Descent, STAR, APP to MAP of B)
Traffic Holding (Where Req)
Contingency = 6% of A-B or 5 mins holding at 1500ft (greater of)
B-C Fuel (MAP, Climb, Cruise, Descent, STAR, APP to C)
Contingency = 3% B-C
Fixed Reserves = 30 mins holding at 1500ft

77
Q

What’s TOMAC?

A

Mean Aerodynamic Chord Take-off Weight.

Swept wings have a variable chord line. For W+B calculations, trim settings and CG%, the local chord line won’t work. Need an average or MEAN chord. The location of the CG is expressed as a percentage of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord.
20% TOMAC of a 5m MAC = CG location is 20% of 5 metres from the front of the MAC.

78
Q

C of G limits?

A

Forward limit:
Up to 13,608kg 15% MAC
From 13,608-19,505kg Varies linearly from 15% - 21.5% MAC

After limit:
All weights 40% MAC

79
Q

On a Dash how much fuel can you carry at MZFW?

A

MTOW 19,505 - MZFW 17,917 = 1588kg

80
Q

Taking off at MTOW how much fuel do we need to burn before we can land?

A

MTOW 19,505 - MLW 19,051 = 454kg which equates to 42 minutes cruise or approximately 1hr holding.

81
Q

Can we deviate from the law?

A

No unless:

-The emergency involves danger to life or property
-The extent of the breach only goes as far as necessary to deal with the emergency
-There is no other reasonable means of avoiding the emergency
-The degree of danger is higher in the prescribed requirement than deviating from it
-Must immediately notify all relevant ATS and notify the director ASAP and if a written
report is requested, present that.

82
Q

Currency requirements?

A

ATPL - Prev 90 days:
-3 take-o􏰀s and landings (Can be sim); or
-Demonstrated continued competence to a flight examiner; or
-Demonstrated take-o􏰀 and landing manoeuvres to a flight instructor

IFR – Prev 90 days:
-Passed a check (As per above); or
-3 hrs Instrument Time (1 hr IFT); and
-3 Instrument Approaches (1 in Sim)
Similar type procedure within previous 90 days
o Non-precision = RNAV / LOC / VOR / NDB
o Precision = ILS / LNAV/VNAV

CAR 121 –
-IFR Competency Check within previous 6 months; and
-Route and Aerodrome Check within previous 12 months; and
-Oral and written test within previous 12 months – CAR Part 121.607
o CAA Rules and Exposition
o Systems, Performance, Operating, Flight Manual content
o Navigation, ATC and Meteorology
o Special flight ops
o New Equipment, procedures, techniques
o Type evacuation training, DG, Avmed, CRM, Security, Type refresher training

83
Q

Flight and duty limits – ALPA CEA Section 5

A

Duty limitations:
1 day – 11 hours (disrupted up to 12 hours)
28 Days – 186 hours
365 days – 2000 hours

Flight limitations:
1 day – 8 hours (disrupted up to 8.5 hours)
7 days – 35 hours
28 days – 100 hours
90 days – 300 hours
365 days – 1000 hours

Sector Limitations:
Max 6 flying sectors
Max 8 sectors including paxxing and positioning Max 2 sectors with U/S autopilot
Rest periods not less than 10 hours

84
Q

How much rest do we require if we extend past our max duty or flight time?

A

At least 12hrs including the hours between midnight-6am

85
Q

What does /// mean?

A

Cloud type not detected. Unable to determine if TCU or CB on AUTO METAR

86
Q

Radio failure under radar vectors?

A

-Maintain last assigned vector for 2 minutes and climb to MSA if required
-continue with the route in the flight plan

87
Q

Taxi, take off fuel, set heading fuel

A

80kg

88
Q

Enroute cruise fuel (a-b and b-c)

A

660kg/hr

89
Q

Instrument App fuel

A

8min

80kg

90
Q

Missed app fuel

A

4 mins

50kg

91
Q

Missed app and second app fuel?

A

150kg

92
Q

Final reserve fuel?

A

30 mins holding

240kg

93
Q

Extra holding fuel?

A

15 mins

120kg

94
Q

On an auto METAR What does //// mean?

A

Viz not reported (probably due to faulty sensor)

95
Q

On an auto METAR what does /////// mean?

A

Cloud not reported (probably due to faulty sensor)

96
Q

Symbol for severe icing?

A

Triple nipple

97
Q

Symbol for sever turbulence?

A

Mountain with a cap

98
Q

Symbol for hail?

A

Triangle (Illuminati)

99
Q

Symbol for snow?

A

Snow flake

100
Q

Symbol for thunderstorm

A

Jagged arrow (kinda looks like lightning)

101
Q

Symbol for mountain wave?

A

Oval with 3 dashes

102
Q

Symbol for Radio activity

A

Circle with 3 small triangles on the inside edge

103
Q

Holding ias (performance Manual)

A

Vclimb+4kts

104
Q

Radio failure with an atc hold down?

A

Maintain the last assigned level to the points specified, then climb maintain the flight plan level. If no point specified, maintain last assigned level, or minimum flight altitude for 5 minutes then climb to the levels in the flight plan.

105
Q

How do we calculate remote QNH?

A

Distance (Nm – 5) x 5 = Add to MDA

106
Q

What does “use of remote QNH NA mean?

A

Use of remote QNH NA – Remote QNH shall not be used for RNP (AR) approaches or to fly LNAV/VNAV to these minima.

107
Q

Give an example of the first call on the SID to ATC

A

Wellington Approach, NZ231L airborne climbing through 1200 ft for FL 230

Napier Tower, NZ255L Established on track through 2500ft for 10,000ft, estimating NIXOT at 35

-call sign, set heading time, Level passing and level climbing, eta at waypoint

108
Q

Why do we have speed restriction on SIDS etc?

A

These are the max speeds we can fly with our turn radius to ensure safe terrain clearance

109
Q

Emergency equipment in the flight deck?

A

X3 smoke goggles
X1 PBE
X1 pair fire gloves
Alt gear ext handle
Fire Ext
Crash Axe
X2 Torches
X3 life jackets
Escape rope
X3 O2 Masks

110
Q

What’s in the REEC?

A

X2 Fire Ext
Fire Gloves
Fire Blanket
Torch

111
Q

Separation in Class C Airspace?

A

IFR flights
IFR from VFR
IFR from SVFR
SVFR from SVFR when viz below 5km

VFR flights only receive traffic info

112
Q

Separation in class D airspace?

A

IFR flights
IFR and SVFR
SVFR when viz below 5km

Everything else is only provided with traffic information

113
Q

Duties of the PIC in an emergency arising in flight?

A

(1) In an emergency arising in flight, the pilot-in-command may breach civil aviation legislation only if the pilot-in-command is satisfied that—
(a) the emergency involves a danger to life or property; and
(b) the extent of the breach goes only as far as is necessary to deal with the emergency; and
(c) there is no other reasonable means of alleviating, avoiding, or assisting with the emergency; and
(d) the degree of danger involved in complying with the provision is clearly greater than the degree of danger involved in deviating from it.

(2) If the pilot-in-command breaches civil aviation legislation in accordance with this section, the pilot-in-command must—
(a) immediately notify the relevant air traffic control service of the breach; and
(b) as soon as practicable, notify the Director of the breach and the circumstances that necessitated it; and
(c) if requested by the Director, provide to the Director a written report in respect of the breach.

In an emergency during flight, the pilot can break aviation laws only if:

There is a danger to life or property.
The breach is necessary to handle the emergency.
There is no other way to deal with it.
The danger of following the law is greater than the danger of breaking it.

If the pilot breaks the law, they must:

Notify air traffic control immediately.
Tell the Director and explain why it happened as soon as possible.
If the Director asks, provide a written report.

114
Q

Established on the WB VOR/DME 06 approach through the FMS

Can you continue with a GPS INTEG

A

The approach may be continued as the FMS will revert to VOR for position guidance (GPS not required for a VOR approach through the FMS)

115
Q

Established on the WB VOR/DME 06 approach through the FMS

Can you continue with a position uncertain message?

A

Not through the fms, revert to VOR/LOC

116
Q

Established on the WB VOR/DME 06 approach through the FMS

Can you continue if the ground based VOR fails?

A

No, commence a missed approach and if required revert to an RNAV approach

117
Q

Alert phase PA

A

Attention attention, Cabin crew at station

118
Q

End of alert phase command to FA

A

Resume normal duties

119
Q

Rapid disembarkation command to FA

A

Rapid disembarkation

120
Q

depressurisation PA

A

Attention attention, emergency descent

121
Q

Rejected take-off pa

A

Remain seated and await further instruction or

Attention attention cabin crew at stations

122
Q

RNP tolerance’s

A

ENR 2.8nm
Term 1.0nm
App 0.3nm

123
Q

Apu fuel burn

A

55kg/hr

124
Q

Sector 1 hold entry

A

Parallel

125
Q

Sector 2 hold entry

A

The smallest angle, 70 degrees

Track outbound 30 degrees offset

Offset entry

126
Q

Sector 3 hold entry

A

Direct entry