AOT60 Flashcards
1
Q
How long is a TAF valid At Auckland, Wellington, Christchurch and Ohakea?
A
30hrs
When a routine update is issued it’s valid for 27hrs (because the update is made 3hours after the old TAF’s issued and 3hrs before the new TAF’s issued.
2
Q
How long is a TAF valid in Hamilton?
A
24hrs
3
Q
How long is a Domestic TAF valid not including AA,WN,CH,OH,HN?
A
When issued between 11pm and midnight - 18hrs
When issued between 11am and midday - 12hrs
4
Q
When are TAFs issued at AA, WN, CH, OH?
A
Every 6 hours (total of 4 per 24hrs)
A routine update will be issued between each TAF (total of 4 per 24hrs)
When added together there is an updated TAF every 3hrs
5
Q
When are TAF’s issued at HN?
A
Every 6hrs
6
Q
When are TAF’s issued at domestic Aerodromes not including AA, WN, CH, OH, HN
A
Every 12 hrs
1 at midnight and 1 at midday
7
Q
How often are sigwx charts issued and how long are they valid?
A
4 times daily
2 are always issued and each is valid for 6hrs
1400z valid 1500-2100z and 2100-0300z
2000z valid 2100-0300z and 0300-0900z
0200z valid 0300-0900z and 0900-1500z
0800z valid 0900-1500z and 1500-2100z
8
Q
How often are AAW’s issued and valid for?
A
Issued at 1100z valid from 12z-06z
Issued at 2100z valid from 21z-12z
(Issued twice daily at same time as grafors)
9
Q
How often are GRAFOR’s issued and valid for?
A
Issued twice daily in sets of 3 at 1100z and 2100z (same times as AAW’s)
Issue 1 is valid 18z, 00z, 06z
Issue 2 is valid 00z, 06z, 12z
10
Q
How long is a metar valid?
A
Only for the exact time it’s issued at. A metar is just a snapshot of current conditions
11
Q
When and where are METAR and SPECI reports issued?
A
WP, OH, MF only during hours of attendance by atc or flight service.
They are issued hourly
12
Q
What’s a SPECI?
A
A special report issued off METAR hours in METAR format
13
Q
When must an airep special be reported?
A
Anytime hazardous met conditions are experienced which in the pilots opinion are or may become severe enough to warrant a sigmet. Must be reported to nearest ats unit.
14
Q
How long is a sigmet valid?
A
4hrs
15
Q
Is wind direction true or magnetic in a BWR (basic weather report)?
A
Magnetic
“If it’s written it’s true”
16
Q
Is wind direction true or magnetic in a BWR (basic weather report)?
A
Magnetic
“If it’s written it’s true”
17
Q
When and how is RVR reported
A
When viz drops below 1500m at AA and CH
Broken up into touchdown zone (TDZ) runway midpoint (MID) runway stop-end (END)
It will be added to the ATIS and reported to aircraft by ATC when commencing an approach or when requested by approach control.
Also touchdown zone RVR is automatically added to metar auto when viz below 1500m
18
Q
What is MRA?
A
Minimum reception altitude
Lowest height VOR reception is guaranteed above MSA
19
Q
What is MFA?
A
Minimum flight altitude
The lowest height an aircraft can fly considering terrain, airspace (special use such as restricted and volcanic hazard zones) and Nav aid reception.
It’s the highest out of MSA, MEA, MRA
20
Q
What is MEA?
A
Minimum enroute altitude
It’s the lowest safe altitude along a route taking into account NDB reception and MSA
21
Q
What is MSA?
A
Minimum safe altitude
The lowest safe altitude ensuring terrain clearance.
Typically:
1000ft terrain clearance in non mountainous terrain
2000ft clearance in mountainous terrain
22
Q
What do we use contingency fuel for and how much is it?
A
6% of the a-b burn or 5 minutes whichever is higher
It’s for any unforeseen changes such as delays, weather or emergencies
23
Q
Is a TAF AGL or AMSL?
A
AGL
24
Q
What’s our wake separation behind an a320?
A
None
Medium to medium
25
Time and distance based Wake separation behind 777?
2 minutes (3 minutes if it’s from an intermediate departure point)
5nm
26
Wake separation behind a380
3 minutes or 4 if from and intermediate departure point
7nm
27
On approach what deviation on our instruments is allowed before we carry out a missed approach?
• LOC ¼ scale
• GS ¼ scale
• VOR 3°
• NDB prolonged deviations of 5°
• RNAV - an ANP of >0.5 (POS uncertain warning) or a GPS INTEG
28
Circling minima as per company SOP’s?
-Day only
-no lower than published MDA or 1,000 ft AAL, whichever is the higher.
-Visibility greater of 5,000 m or published minimum visibility.
We can do circling at night for places like Rotorua on the RNP B if it states it in the route guide
29
Take off minima when no minima is prescribed?
300ft ceiling
1500m viz
30
Below what viz must the captain fly? Approach & departure
800m departure
1000m approach
31
What are the requirements to fly a reduced take off minima departure with a 0ft ceiling and 800m viz?
• RWY has centre line markings or lights.
• Nose Wheel Steering is serviceable.
• A departure alternate aerodrome is nominated if weather conditions or operational considerations preclude a return to land.
• Minimum of 14 RWY lights are visible.
• Full runway length is used.
• The PIC can confirm that the minimum visibility is present. (By observation of the RWY lights from the take-off position. Where RVR is reported, the minimum required visibility must achieved in all RVR zones (TDZ/MID/END).)
• Aircraft has operative autofeather system
32
What are the additional requirements to fly a reduced take off minima departure below 800m viz?
• The RWY lighting has a serviceable secondary power supply and automatic switch-over.
• The PIC can confirm that the minimum visibility has been met:
• 400m - 7 runway lights
• 350m - 6 runway lights
• Or an RVR report from the ATIS or control tower
• Both pilots have carried out simulator training on reduced visibility take-offs to 350m, and have carried out a reduced visibility take-off in the simulator within the previous 13 months.
• Left seat pilot must be PF
• Maximum crosswind component 20kt
33
Runway edge light spacing?
60 metres
34
During low viz ops what are the 3 conditions that must be met by both pilots? (How do we confirm we are on the correct runway?)
• Refer to the appropriate Airport Arrival/Departure pages for any specific Low Visibility Operations procedures.
• The Airport Ground Chart is to be used for taxi guidance.
• Both pilots must confirm the aircraft is lined up on the correct runway for take-off by reading the runway designator painted on the runway beside the threshold markings, or by tuning the appropriate LLZ freq.
35
Privileges of an ATPL?
All the privileges of an IR and CPL plus;
Can act as PIC of an ATO operating for hire or reward requiring multi crew
36
When do we require an alternate?
+-1hr eta at destination weather is forecast below
1000ft ceiling
5km or 2kmviz above minima whichever is greater
37
Alternate minima/requirements?
Weather at eta must be at or above;
-precision app 600ft or 200ft ceiling above DA and 3000m or 1000m viz above minima
-non precision 800ft or 200ft above DA and 4000m or 1500m above minima
A weather alternate requires the following:
• Weather forecasts and NOTAM available for flight planning.
• Weather conditions at the expected time of arrival, equal to or better than the alternate minima for the planned approach.
• Runway lighting for operations occurring beginning 30 mins before ECT until 30 mins after MCT. Lighting may be either pilot activated, remotely activated or manned.
• Notification and agreement of the Regional Ops Centre of the selected alternate.
Restrictions:
-When planning for a precision approach at an alternate aerodrome based on precision alternate minima, two serviceable ILS receivers are required and for ILS approaches that require DME, two serviceable DME receivers are required (AA, WN, CH and DN).
-Secondary back up power and auto-switchover (for Navaid and lights as req)
WX Alt AD does not require ATC or Rescue Fire (SOP)
Tech and departure Alt AD also doesn’t need traffic or ground staff
38
Duties of PIC
(1) A pilot-in-command is responsible for—
(a) the safe operation of the aircraft; and
(b) the safety and well-being of all passengers and crew; and
(c) the safety of the cargo carried.
(2) The pilot-in-command has final authority to control the aircraft while in command and for the maintenance of discipline by all persons on board the aircraft.
(3) The pilot-in-command is responsible for compliance with all relevant requirements of civil aviation legislation.
(4) Subsection (3) is subject to sections 15 and 16. (Can breach the legislation if it’s safer to do so)
39
Minimum holding speed in icing?
Vclimb + 20
(Performance manual)
40
During an engine failure in the cruise what’s the first step to mange the aircraft’s energy?
Condition levers max (close to max continuous power)
41
What are the required documents to be carried on board the aircraft? (SOP’s and NZ civil aviation rules)
● Technical Log
– Q300 Daily Check Records
– Certificate of Airworthiness
– Certificate of Maintenance
– Certificate of Registration
– Open/deferred items
– Notices to crew
– Damage Register Table
– Cabin Condition reports
– Maintenance Log
– Aircraft radio station approval levels CAA 2129
– Weight and balance data CAA form 2173 or ANZ form ET5329
● MEL/DDG
● AMS
● SOPs
● CSM
● Route Guide – Part 1 & 2
● FCOM1*
● QRH
● Checklist (two copies)
● Performance Manual*
● AIP Flip – Q300 #
● Navigation Charts # - two copies of each
● ICAO Emergency Response Guidance (Doc 9481)
● Flight Log/ Trip Record
● Operational Flight Plan
● Meteorological Briefing
● NOTAMs and other briefing documents
● GPS RAIM Prediction
● Loadsheet
● NOTOC (if applicable)
● Flight Deck Observer Briefing Card
* Equivalent document to Aircraft Flight Manual
# Senior Manager Aircraft Operations or Duty Pilot may approve limited use of alternative documents or despatch with non relevant set missing.
42
What is the max fuel discrepancy on a load sheet?
50kg
43
Oxygen required 3 crew
1800psi
44
Oxygen required for 2 crew
1300psi
45
Can you dispatch to an uncontrolled airport with tcas and/or egpws inop?
No unless only one is inop and you get approval by the senior manager of air operations
46
What is the standard ifr seperation in uncontrolled airspace?
1000’ vertically
Or
10nm horizontally
47
In uncontrolled airspace when passing opposite direction traffic how much distance do you need once traffic has passed to climb through its level?
5nm
48
In uncontrolled airspace when following anther ifr aircraft what height do you have to remain above until the preceding aircraft is visual?
1000ft above published missed approach altitude
49
Uncontrolled separation on departure?
At least 1 minute separation provided the tracks do not cross and are at least 45 degrees apart. At least 10NM separation if the tracks are separated by less than 45 degrees but this may be reduced to a minimum of 1 minute separa-tion if at least a 1,000ft vertical separation is maintained and the preceding aircraft is climbing to a higher altitude.
50
In uncontrolled airspace who has right of way?
Arriving aircraft has right of way over departing aircraft on the ground
If both are arriving the lower aircraft has right of way
51
Can we land with a tailwind on a wet runway?
Yes (fcom1) and no (performance manual)
The performance manual says we can land at MLW on a runway 1300m or more, up to 10kts tail wind on a ‘dry runway’ with no landing calculations required. It also says we can land on wet runways with no tailwind.
The problem is only runways shorter than 1300m have landing graphs in the route guide meaning we can’t do a landing calculation if the runways wet at airports with runways longer than 1300m.
So the answer ultimately is no we can’t on runways longer than 1300m.
52
Below what altitude must the pic guard the controls?
1000ft
53
What’s the maximum wind strength for take off and landing?
60kts
54
Maximum xw limit for a contaminated runway?
15kts
55
What are the engine start wind limitations?
35kts tailwind for gpu start
20kts for apu start
56
What landing distance corrections are applied to normal landing data?
1.43 for dry runways
1.64 for wet runways
If the landing correction is equal to or less than 1.64 in the QRH and the runway is at least 1300m long no further correction is required (dry runway only)
57
Below what oxygen pressure do we advise moc?
1600psi
58
What glide slope guidance is required to fly an approach (day & night)
During the day if no Papi or ils guidance is available we need at least 5km viz and 1000ft ceiling and an instrument approach should be flown to minimums.
All night operations require a PAPI or ILS guidance.
59
What is an adults weight
87kg
60
Child’s weight?
40kg (2-11years)
61
Infant weight
10kg (under 2 years old)
62
Sports weight?
106kg
63
Galley weight (A no cart)
0kg
64
Galley weight (B cart only)
43kg
65
Galley weight (C cart and catering)
77kg
66
Under what conditions can we land without a landing calculation?
MLW with LDA 1300m or more, prop de ice on or off under the following conditions:
-dry runway up to 10kts tailwind
-wet runway no tailwind
-Without MEL or ER Failure affecting landing performance
67
Looking at Aerodrome a navaid label what does it mean if the border is shaded vs not shaded?
Shaded means the navaid is used for the prescribed procedure
If it’s unshaded it’s not used for the procedure
68
Green oxygen disk (overboard discharge disk) missing, can we still depart?
Indicates that the pressure relief valve has discharged oxygen
(o) (m) May be missing provided an approved procedure is used to ensure that the oxygen supply is at or above minimum requirements for the flight.
1. Prior to each flight, check the pressure in the crew fixed oxygen system bottle by whichever gauge is operative.
2. The minimum dispatch pressure is 1300 psi at 21.1 deg C. Refer to graph for MEL 35-04- 01A(O) for pressure variations with change in ambient temperature.
69
APU yellow disk missing?
The apu fire bottle has discharged via the extinguishing system. (Into the apu)
MEL
(m)May be inoperative provided:
1) The Fuel Shutoff Valve is verified closed; and,
2) The APU is not used.
70
APU red disk missing?
APU fire bottle has thermally discharge (discharged into the atmosphere)
MEL
(m)May be inoperative provided:
1) The Fuel Shutoff Valve is verified closed; and,
2) The APU is not used.
71
Yellow disk missing on wing root?
Fire bottle has discharged via the extinguishing system
MEL
(o)(m)Either or both may be missing provided indicator readings are checked each flight day to determine adequate charge.
72
Red disk missing on Wing Root
Fire bottle has thermally discharged
MEL
(o)(m)Either or both may be missing provided indicator readings are checked each flight day to determine adequate charge.
73
Slash on the tyre/ Canvas showing what do you do?
Inform captain. Call MOC. Assess condition. No-go if canvas showing or no tread remaining
74
How much contingency fuel do we need? A-B and B-C
A-B = 6% or 5 minutes whichever is higher e.g WN-WB
B-C = 3%
75
When can you use the 30mins Final Reserve?
When all other options are exhausted and utilising CAA Act S13A
76
What makes up our safe Endurance fuel?
A-B Fuel (T/o from A, SID, Climb, Cruise, Descent, STAR, APP to MAP of B)
Traffic Holding (Where Req)
Contingency = 6% of A-B or 5 mins holding at 1500ft (greater of)
B-C Fuel (MAP, Climb, Cruise, Descent, STAR, APP to C)
Contingency = 3% B-C
Fixed Reserves = 30 mins holding at 1500ft
77
What’s TOMAC?
Mean Aerodynamic Chord Take-off Weight.
Swept wings have a variable chord line. For W+B calculations, trim settings and CG%, the local chord line won’t work. Need an average or MEAN chord. The location of the CG is expressed as a percentage of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord.
20% TOMAC of a 5m MAC = CG location is 20% of 5 metres from the front of the MAC.
78
C of G limits?
Forward limit:
Up to 13,608kg 15% MAC
From 13,608-19,505kg Varies linearly from 15% - 21.5% MAC
After limit:
All weights 40% MAC
79
On a Dash how much fuel can you carry at MZFW?
MTOW 19,505 - MZFW 17,917 = 1588kg
80
Taking off at MTOW how much fuel do we need to burn before we can land?
MTOW 19,505 - MLW 19,051 = 454kg which equates to 42 minutes cruise or approximately 1hr holding.
81
Can we deviate from the law?
No unless:
-The emergency involves danger to life or property
-The extent of the breach only goes as far as necessary to deal with the emergency
-There is no other reasonable means of avoiding the emergency
-The degree of danger is higher in the prescribed requirement than deviating from it
-Must immediately notify all relevant ATS and notify the director ASAP and if a written
report is requested, present that.
82
Currency requirements?
ATPL - Prev 90 days:
-3 take-os and landings (Can be sim); or
-Demonstrated continued competence to a flight examiner; or
-Demonstrated take-o and landing manoeuvres to a flight instructor
IFR – Prev 90 days:
-Passed a check (As per above); or
-3 hrs Instrument Time (1 hr IFT); and
-3 Instrument Approaches (1 in Sim)
Similar type procedure within previous 90 days
o Non-precision = RNAV / LOC / VOR / NDB
o Precision = ILS / LNAV/VNAV
CAR 121 –
-IFR Competency Check within previous 6 months; and
-Route and Aerodrome Check within previous 12 months; and
-Oral and written test within previous 12 months – CAR Part 121.607
o CAA Rules and Exposition
o Systems, Performance, Operating, Flight Manual content
o Navigation, ATC and Meteorology
o Special flight ops
o New Equipment, procedures, techniques
o Type evacuation training, DG, Avmed, CRM, Security, Type refresher training
83
Flight and duty limits – ALPA CEA Section 5
Duty limitations:
1 day – 11 hours (disrupted up to 12 hours)
28 Days – 186 hours
365 days – 2000 hours
Flight limitations:
1 day – 8 hours (disrupted up to 8.5 hours)
7 days – 35 hours
28 days – 100 hours
90 days – 300 hours
365 days – 1000 hours
Sector Limitations:
Max 6 flying sectors
Max 8 sectors including paxxing and positioning Max 2 sectors with U/S autopilot
Rest periods not less than 10 hours
84
How much rest do we require if we extend past our max duty or flight time?
At least 12hrs including the hours between midnight-6am
85
What does /// mean?
Cloud type not detected. Unable to determine if TCU or CB on AUTO METAR
86
Radio failure under radar vectors?
-Maintain last assigned vector for 2 minutes and climb to MSA if required
-continue with the route in the flight plan
87
Taxi, take off fuel, set heading fuel
80kg
88
Enroute cruise fuel (a-b and b-c)
660kg/hr
89
Instrument App fuel
8min
80kg
90
Missed app fuel
4 mins
50kg
91
Missed app and second app fuel?
150kg
92
Final reserve fuel?
30 mins holding
240kg
93
Extra holding fuel?
15 mins
120kg
94
On an auto METAR What does //// mean?
Viz not reported (probably due to faulty sensor)
95
On an auto METAR what does /////// mean?
Cloud not reported (probably due to faulty sensor)
96
Symbol for severe icing?
Triple nipple
97
Symbol for sever turbulence?
Mountain with a cap
98
Symbol for hail?
Triangle (Illuminati)
99
Symbol for snow?
Snow flake
100
Symbol for thunderstorm
Jagged arrow (kinda looks like lightning)
101
Symbol for mountain wave?
Oval with 3 dashes
102
Symbol for Radio activity
Circle with 3 small triangles on the inside edge
103
Holding ias (performance Manual)
Vclimb+4kts
104
Radio failure with an atc hold down?
Maintain the last assigned level to the points specified, then climb maintain the flight plan level. If no point specified, maintain last assigned level, or minimum flight altitude for 5 minutes then climb to the levels in the flight plan.
105
How do we calculate remote QNH?
Distance (Nm – 5) x 5 = Add to MDA
106
What does “use of remote QNH NA mean?
Use of remote QNH NA – Remote QNH shall not be used for RNP (AR) approaches or to fly LNAV/VNAV to these minima.
107
Give an example of the first call on the SID to ATC
Wellington Approach, NZ231L airborne climbing through 1200 ft for FL 230
Napier Tower, NZ255L Established on track through 2500ft for 10,000ft, estimating NIXOT at 35
-call sign, set heading time, Level passing and level climbing, eta at waypoint
108
Why do we have speed restriction on SIDS etc?
These are the max speeds we can fly with our turn radius to ensure safe terrain clearance
109
Emergency equipment in the flight deck?
X3 smoke goggles
X1 PBE
X1 pair fire gloves
Alt gear ext handle
Fire Ext
Crash Axe
X2 Torches
X3 life jackets
Escape rope
X3 O2 Masks
110
What’s in the REEC?
X2 Fire Ext
Fire Gloves
Fire Blanket
Torch
111
Separation in Class C Airspace?
IFR flights
IFR from VFR
IFR from SVFR
SVFR from SVFR when viz below 5km
VFR flights only receive traffic info
112
Separation in class D airspace?
IFR flights
IFR and SVFR
SVFR when viz below 5km
Everything else is only provided with traffic information
113
Duties of the PIC in an emergency arising in flight?
(1) In an emergency arising in flight, the pilot-in-command may breach civil aviation legislation only if the pilot-in-command is satisfied that—
(a) the emergency involves a danger to life or property; and
(b) the extent of the breach goes only as far as is necessary to deal with the emergency; and
(c) there is no other reasonable means of alleviating, avoiding, or assisting with the emergency; and
(d) the degree of danger involved in complying with the provision is clearly greater than the degree of danger involved in deviating from it.
(2) If the pilot-in-command breaches civil aviation legislation in accordance with this section, the pilot-in-command must—
(a) immediately notify the relevant air traffic control service of the breach; and
(b) as soon as practicable, notify the Director of the breach and the circumstances that necessitated it; and
(c) if requested by the Director, provide to the Director a written report in respect of the breach.
In an emergency during flight, the pilot can break aviation laws only if:
There is a danger to life or property.
The breach is necessary to handle the emergency.
There is no other way to deal with it.
The danger of following the law is greater than the danger of breaking it.
If the pilot breaks the law, they must:
Notify air traffic control immediately.
Tell the Director and explain why it happened as soon as possible.
If the Director asks, provide a written report.
114
Established on the WB VOR/DME 06 approach through the FMS
Can you continue with a GPS INTEG
The approach may be continued as the FMS will revert to VOR for position guidance (GPS not required for a VOR approach through the FMS)
115
Established on the WB VOR/DME 06 approach through the FMS
Can you continue with a position uncertain message?
Not through the fms, revert to VOR/LOC
116
Established on the WB VOR/DME 06 approach through the FMS
Can you continue if the ground based VOR fails?
No, commence a missed approach and if required revert to an RNAV approach
117
Alert phase PA
Attention attention, Cabin crew at station
118
End of alert phase command to FA
Resume normal duties
119
Rapid disembarkation command to FA
Rapid disembarkation
120
depressurisation PA
Attention attention, emergency descent
121
Rejected take-off pa
Remain seated and await further instruction or
Attention attention cabin crew at stations
122
RNP tolerance’s
ENR 2.8nm
Term 1.0nm
App 0.3nm
123
Apu fuel burn
55kg/hr
124
Sector 1 hold entry
Parallel
125
Sector 2 hold entry
The smallest angle, 70 degrees
Track outbound 30 degrees offset
Offset entry
126
Sector 3 hold entry
Direct entry
