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AOS 2 > AOS midterm > Flashcards

AOS midterm Flashcards

1
Q

define: concentration

A

number of molecules of a substance per unit volume
C = N/V
the amount of pollutant in a given volume of air
how much stuff is mixed in some mixture of many materials

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2
Q

convert 0 C to Kelvin

A

273K

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3
Q

convert -273 C to K

A

0 K

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4
Q

units of the SI system

A

m, kg, s, K/C

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5
Q

what is the current meter standard?

A

distance traveled by light in a vacuum in a known fraction of a second

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6
Q

what is the density of water?

A

1 kg/L

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7
Q

how does the atomic clock time standard work?

A

the oscillation period between two ground state levels in a cesium atom

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8
Q

what is mixing ratio?

A

ratio between the amount of the pollutant vs the amount of other gasses
(amount of one substance) / (amount of all the other substances)

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9
Q

what are the concentration units for gasses?

A

molecules per unit volume (mol./cm3)

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10
Q

what are the concentration units for particles?

A

mass per unit volume (micrograms/cm3)

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11
Q

effect of a change in volume on mixing ratio

A

no change; just spreading the particles out, not changing the numbers of particles

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12
Q

effect of a change in volume on concentration

A

concentration depends on volume
increase in V, decrease in C
decrease in V, increase in C

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13
Q

what is the steady-state-box model?

A

representation of environment as a ‘box’ and measuring inflow and outflow based on that volume
it is in ‘steady state’ when the concentration (and total amount) is not changing

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14
Q

what is a ‘source?’

A

everything that introduces pollutants into the air in the box
e.g. direct emission (by cars); transport by wind; chemical transformation; re-suspension (pollutant becoming free from liquid or or solid surface and become airborne)

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15
Q

what is a ‘sink?’

A

processes that remove or convert pollutants

e.g. ventilation (wind blows them away); chemical conversion; deposition (pollutant deposited to ground)

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16
Q

what is a ‘rate?’

A

quantification of how fast something is happening

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17
Q

rate of emission/loss (S/L)

A

S/L = (amount emitted or lost in time interval t) / (time interval t)

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18
Q

how to calculate the amount of material in the volume of space

A

source rate - sink rate = S - L

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19
Q

box model equation (steady state concentration of pollutant), q

A

q = (S or L)*tau / V

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20
Q

what percentage of earth’s surface is water?

A

70%

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21
Q

where did life first develop and why?

A

the oceans because the water protected from harmful UV rays

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22
Q

how did the earliest life forms get their energy?

A

they were heterotrophic - used organic molecules and broke them down to harvest the energy (fermentation)

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23
Q

why didn’t heterotrophy last?

A

these organic compounds were not abundant enough and supplies ran low quickly

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24
Q

what solved the organic carbon scarcity problem?

A

autotrophy - harvesting energy from inorganic substances in their environment

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25
Q

what is photosynthesis?

A

an autotrophic process that permitted the organisms to harvest energy from the sun - oxygenic and anoxygenic

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26
Q

what was the early type of photosynthesis?

A

anoxygenic - produced organic matter but did not produce molecular oxygen as a byproduct; used sulfur compounds

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27
Q

what was the most important evolutionary step and why?

A

evolution of oxygenic photosynthesis
oxygen started to accumulate in the environment
oxidized substances in the Earth’s crust
oxygenated the oceans
accumulated in the atmosphere, and absorbed the shortest wavelengths of solar ultraviolet radiation
led to formation of ozone gas from the oxygen
formation of the ozone layer and the Earth’s stratosphere
aided the absorption of solar UV radiation and eventually allowed life to evolve on dry land, outside of the oceans

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28
Q

changes to the Earth environment from this oxygenation due to photosynthesis

A

removes CO2 and adds O2; atmospheric CO2 decreases over time –> long, slow, cooling of the earth; too much oxygen for current anaerobic organisms, so they die off; ozone layer forms, allowing more diverse life forms to develop

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29
Q

how does ozone absorb UV radiation?

A

O3 + hv –> O2 + O

where hv is the energy of a photon of light

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30
Q

how is ozone formed?

A

illuminating oxygen w UV radiation
O2 + hv –> O + O
O + O2 + M –> O3 + M

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31
Q

what is the largest mass extinction ever and how much of the population was lost?

A

Permian Triassic mass extinction (PT event); loss of 60% of species

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32
Q

how did early humans impact the environment?

A

agriculture (cultivation of land, burning of wood, animal waste), heating (open wood fires indoors and burning of coal), and manufacturing (copper/bronze metals and leather tanning) altered the landscape and/or polluted the air with combustion of organic materials

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33
Q

what was the environmental impact of deforestation?

A

reduces a local sink for carbon dioxide

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34
Q

difference between pre-industrial society’s impacts on the environment and today’s impacts

A

pre: impacts were locally restricted; total world population was small; energy use was limited because it was based on renewable energy

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35
Q

calculate total pollution produced

A

C x r x Ap
C = population size [persons]
r = per capita resource consumption [resource units/person]
ap = pollution per resource unit consumed [pollt. units/res.units]

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36
Q

IPCC scenarios of population growth criteria

A

globalization vs local development (1 vs 2)

economic vs environmental emphasis (A vs B)

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37
Q

IPCC A1 marker scenario

A

globalization with economic emphasis –> rapid convergent growth (second smallest future population)

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38
Q

IPCC A2 marker scenario

A

local development with economic emphasis –> fragmented world (largest future population)

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39
Q

IPCC B1 marker scenario

A

globalization with environmental emphasis –> convergence with global environmental emphasis (smallest future population)

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40
Q

IPCC B2 marker scenario

A

local development with environmental emphasis –> local sustainability (second largest future population)

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41
Q

what drives the rise in atmospheric CO2

A

the burning of fossil fuels mainly with contributions from deforestation and other types of land use change

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42
Q

define weather

A

state of the atmosphere as we experience it instantaneously

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43
Q

define climate

A

average weather over an extended period of time in a specific region

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44
Q

define global climate

A

globally averaged weather over an extended period of time

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45
Q

define global average temperature

A

stable parameter for climate

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46
Q

how can we study past climates?

A

ice cores - snow layers with chemical indicators of past climates

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47
Q

how quickly can the climate change?

A

as quickly as 10 years

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48
Q

what is firn?

A

snow over 1 year old

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49
Q

what is a hoar layer?

A

a weak layer of frost that forms on the snow during calm, clear, and humid conditions

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50
Q

how deep do you have to go to get ice cores?

A

2m+

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51
Q

what do ice records tell us about past climates?

A

CO2 mixing ratios
relative temperature by the ratio of hydrogen and deuterium
strong covariance of atmospheric CO2 and temperature

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52
Q

what are earth’s permanent gasses and at what percent?

A

nitrogen (78%), oxygen (20%), argon (1%), and trace gasses

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53
Q

what are earth’s variable gasses?

A

water vapor (1) and carbon dioxide (2)

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54
Q

layers of the atmopshere (ground up)

A

troposphere, stratosphere, ozone layer, mesosphere, ionosphere (aurora)

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55
Q

what is the kind of rate of change of pressure with altitude?

A

exponential

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56
Q

how do pressure and density and altitude mathematically relate?

A

pressure and density both decrease by a half for every 5.5 km increase in altitude

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57
Q

what is boyle’s law

A

P1V1 = P2V2 (inverse relationship)

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58
Q

what is adiabatic expansion?

A

lower parcel temperature as parcel rises in atmosphere and expands

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59
Q

how much does the greenhouse effect raise overall temp by?

A

33K

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60
Q

what is thermal energy?

A

how hot a body is; more the hotter it is (higher temp)

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61
Q

what is radiative energy?

A

light carries energy

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62
Q

what is chemical energy?

A

molecules can store energy

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63
Q

what is the suns surface called?

A

the photosphere

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64
Q

what is the temperature at the photosphere?

A

~6000K

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65
Q

how does the sun generate energy?

A

nuclear fusion 2H —> He + (thermal) energy

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66
Q

what is a black body?

A

a perfect blackbody absorbs all wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation (emr) that fall on it

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67
Q

what is kirchoff’s law?

A

a blackbody also emits all wavelengths of emr

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68
Q

what happens to a blackbody at a lower temp and example

A

less radiation is emitted and color becomes redder

incandescent lamps behave like black bodies

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69
Q

what happens to a blackbody at a higher temp

A

peaks at shorter wavelengths and more energy is emitted overall

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70
Q

what is albedo

A

percentage radiation reflected on earth

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71
Q

what is the average surface temp of earth without an atmosphere

A

255K

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72
Q

what happens to the radiation that reaches earth

A

UV absorbed by O2 and O3; IR is absorbed by CO2 and H2O except for a small atmospheric window that lets some of earths IR out; most visible light is not absorbed

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73
Q

what is the greenhouse effect?

A

upgoing IR is absorbed and emitted back to the ground thus heating the earth more with the radiation

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74
Q

how much of earth’s surface is covered in clouds?

A

about half at any given time

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75
Q

name 2 types of clouds

A

cumulus and cirrus

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76
Q

effect of high clouds on earth;s albedo

A

high clouds have a low albedo so do not affect solar radiation in a major way
greenhouse effect => weak
oevrall warming

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77
Q

effect of low clouds on earth’s albedo

A

high albedo of low clouds significantly reduce solar radiation reaching earth’s surface

greenhouse effect => warming not as strong as cooling effect from albedo

overall planetary cooling

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78
Q

what is the influence of aerosols/haze on the atmosphere?

A

similar to cooling by clouds

increases albedo —> cooling effect

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79
Q

signs of climate change

A

temperature change
change in cloudiness and rainfall
changes of arctic sea ice, ice caps, and glaciers
variation of sea level

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80
Q

climate change from natural causes

A

sunspot cycles; milankovitch cycles; volcanic eruptions

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81
Q

how do sunspot cycles effect climate change?

A

the suns emissions vary slightly in an 11 year period but the intensity is too weak to actually be noticed

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82
Q

how do milankovitch cycles affect climate change?

A

variations in earth’s orbit with periods of 22000 41000 and 100 000 yrs and could have been triggers for ice ages but magnitude is too small to explain current changes

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83
Q

how do volcanoes affect climate change?

A

ash and other particles block sunlight (albedo) => surface cools down

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84
Q

greenhouse gasses and primary sources

A

water vapor (no main source), CO2 (fossil fuel combustion), methane food production – rice and cows), N2O (agricultural - fertilized - soils), CFCs (refrigerants and industry)

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85
Q

How can aerosol (haze) impact the climate?

A

White aerosol can lead to cooling of the surface

Black aerosol can warm the atmosphere

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86
Q

how do we know climate change is real?

A

average land-surface air temp rose 1.3C; sea level has risen over the past 200 yrs; global glacier retreat; arctic sea ice retreat

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87
Q

best and worst scenarios for future climate change

A

best: we actively and effectively reduce emissions, temp will increase 1 degree celcius by the end of the century and then slowly decrease
worst: little reduction in greenhouse emissions, temp will increase 4 C by 2100 and 8 C by 2300

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88
Q

what is negative feedback

A

cause –> effect –> suppress

the effect suppresses the cause, decreasing the effect

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89
Q

positive feedback

A

increases the effect - self-sustaining

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90
Q

what is geoengineering and what are the 2 methods

A

manipulation of the earth’s climate system to counteract the effects of climate change caused by greenhosue gas emissions [last resort]
eg.
remove atmospheric carbon dioxide or reduce emissions via carbon sequestration (CDR)
manage solar radiation reaching earth’s surface (SRM)

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91
Q

alternative sources of energy

A 
geothermal energy
hydroelectric power
nuclear energy
biofuels
wind energy
solar radiation
photovoltaics (solar cells)
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92
Q

what is CDR

A

carbon dioxide removal (cdr) - remove CO2 from atmosphere and store underground

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93
Q

what is srm

A

solar radiation management (srm) - reduce sunlight reaching earth’s surface

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94
Q

methods of CDR

A

reforestation, biochar, enhancement of natural weathering processes, enhancement of oceanic uptake of CO2, direct engineered capture of CO2,

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95
Q

methods of srm

A

increase surface reflectivity,

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96
Q

when was the ozone hole discovered?

A

1986

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97
Q

where can most ozone be found?

A

stratosphere

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98
Q

difference between good ozone and bad ozone

A

good is in stratosphere bad is below and considered smog

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99
Q

what is the chapman cycle

A

the conversion of oxygen to ozone and back again

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100
Q

chemical mechanism for the source of ozone in the chapman cycle

A

O2 + hv —> O + O
2x O + O2 —> O3
net: 3O2 —> 2O3

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101
Q

chemical mechanism for the sink of ozone in the chapman cycle – photolysis

A

O3 + hv —> O2 + O
O + O3 —> O2 + O2
net: 2 O3 —> 3O2

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102
Q

catalytic chemical mechanism for ozone destruction

A

O3 + X —> XO + O2
XO + O3 —> X + 2O2
net: 2O3 —> 3O2

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103
Q

natural catalysts for ozone destruction

A

NO, OH, Cl, Br

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104
Q

what is a vertical ozone column (TOC)

A

all the ozone in the column of 1 cm2 cross-section from the ground to space

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105
Q

classes of UV radiation and effects

A

A - lowest energy, not absorbed by ozone, doesn’t cause sunburn but can contribute to skin cancer; B - most absorbed by ozone layer, can cause sunburn and skin cancers; and C - most energetic, hazardous, used for sterilization, but is completely absorbed by the ozone layer

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106
Q

types of skin cancers

A

basal cell carcinomas; squanous cell carcinomas; melanoma

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107
Q

what are CFCs chemically

A

organic molecules where the H atoms have been completely replaced by F and Cl (completely artificial); very unreactive and chemicall stable and not harmful to humans, so seem like a good idea for aerosols but because they are unreactive, nothing removes them

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108
Q

timeline of the ozone hole over antarctica

A

May: sunset cooling; June: polar vortex; aug/sept/oct: sunrise, ozone hole develops; Nov.: polar vortex break-up
ozone hole appears in august
ozone hole max in september
ozone hole starts to fade in late october/early november

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109
Q

what is the polar vortex and some effects

A

wind circulation around antarctica in the stratosphere
inhibits air exchange with lower latitudes (air is trapped)
air in vortex cools down by thermal radiation
ozone depleted air can not be replensished

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110
Q

what are polar stratospheric clouds - PSCs

A

clouds of ice particles in 15-25 km altitude

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111
Q

what are psc types 1s made of

A

frozen nitric acid on a sulfuric acid core

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112
Q

what are psc type 2s made of

A

ice frozen onto nitric acid cores (frozen onto PSC type 1s)

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113
Q

what do pscs do to the air chemistry

A

convert reservoir to active species by heterogeneous reactions and removal of NO2

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114
Q

what is the molina cycle

A

a catalytic ozone destruction cycle with Cl as the catalyst that becomes important only with high levels of chlorine

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115
Q

name the active and reservoir species of Cl

A 
HCl = Reservoir
ClONO2 = Reservoir
Cl = Active
ClO = Active
116
Q

What is exposure time in reference to pollutants?

A

Amount of time a person is exposed to pollutants

116
Q

What is exposure time in reference to pollutants?

A

Amount of time a person is exposed to pollutants

117
Q

What is acute exposure?

A

Large exposure dose that persists for a short time

118
Q

What is chronic exposure?

A

Small exposure over a long period of time

119
Q

How to calculate dose of pollutant a person recieved

A 
Dose = C x Re x te x f
Concentration
Rate of intake
Time exposed
Fraction of pollutant retained in body
120
Q

What is D50 in terms of pollutant doses

A

A dose where half the population experiences symptoms

121
Q

How many premature deaths is it estimated that indoor air pollution causes?

A

3.3 million

122
Q

What shape is a dose-response curve?

A

Somewhat s shaped

123
Q

What is a binary response curve

A

On/off , when exposed to a certain amount everyone has symtoms and when less than that no one has symtoms

124
Q

What does a linear response mean?

A

No zero risk dose

125
Q

Types of toxicological studies

A

Clinical/lab experiments and epidemiological studies

126
Q

Advantages of toxicological studies

A

Exposure to toxins is controlled and varied and controlled environment for subjects

127
Q

Disadvantages of toxicological studies

A

Small sample and forced to extrapolate
Short experiment period (can’t truly measure chronic effects)
Subjects not usually human

128
Q

What is an epidemiological study?

A

A statistical evaluation of historical records of actual human exposure

129
Q

Advantages of epidemiological studies

A

Large sample size, long term studies of chronic effects

Lab costs/morality issues not an issue

130
Q

Disadvantages of epidemiological studies

A

Lack of control of exposure and environment
Unknown history and behavior of subjects
More subjective

131
Q

4 step risk assessment process

A

Hazard identification
Exposure assessment
Dose response assessment
Risk characterization

132
Q

Main ways air pollutants are taken up

A

Skin, eyes, respiratory system

133
Q

What is the first part of body to be exposed to pollutants

A

Skin and eyes

134
Q

What are the 2 major regions of the respiratory system and what is in each?

A

Upper - nasal passages, larynx, trachea

Lower - bronchiol tubes and alveoli

135
Q

How far do small particles get?

A

Down windpipe/trachea and to brionchial tubes –> bronchioli –> alveoli

136
Q

What are blood poisons

A

Substances that are dangerous when taken up by the circulatory system

137
Q

What are lachrymators

A

Gases such as ozone and sulfur dioxide which can irritate and ultimately damage the respiratory tract – esp alveoli

138
Q

What happens to particles between 10 and 2 micro meters

A

Mainl deposited in mouth/nose/larynx region and 10-80% are retained

139
Q

What happens to particles between 0.1-2 micro meters

A

Deposited in lung and small particles reach the alveoli and about 20% are retained

140
Q

What happens physiologically with CO exposure

A

CO attaches to hemoglobin instead of oxygen and decreases oxygen carrying capacity of blood until the damaged red blood cells die off and new ones replace them

141
Q

What happens upon uptake of SO2

A

Forma H2SO4 which can eat into lung tissue

142
Q

What happens upon uptake of ozone

A

Strong oxidant and can eat into lung tissue but not as bad as SO2

143
Q

Path of pollutants through human respiratory system

A
  1. Turbinates
  2. Larynx
  3. Trachea
  4. Bronchial tubes
  5. Bronchioles
  6. Alveolis
144
Q

When do people die from CO exposure

A

After many hours at 600 ppmv

146
Q

Normal ratios of CO

A

Less than 10 ppmv

147
Q

what does asbestos do when it ages that causes health problems?

A

shreds into fine fibers that get lodged in the lungs

148
Q

why was asbestos used frequently in the past?

A

for brake linings and insulation because heat doesn’t break it down

149
Q

what is asbestosis?

A

the result of scar tissue encapsulating the trapped asbestos particles

150
Q

what is plumbism

A

a lead induced disease leading to paralysis, loss of nerve function, and more

151
Q

what rate do particles fall relative to size?

A

small particles fall slower and large particles fall faster - small particles stay in the air longer

152
Q

why are children in more danger from particulates than adults?

A

they inhale more air per unit bodyweight

153
Q

how do toxic compounds cause death

A

interfere with physiological functions

154
Q

what do mutagens/carcinogens do?

A

cause mutation of dna or introduce tumors, but not all mutations result in a cancerous tumor

155
Q

what do promutagens do?

A

cause indirect effects that form another mutagen in the body

156
Q

how do we find out if a pollutant can cause cancer

A

not by animal toxicological studies because they are too expensive and take too long so we use salmonella bacteria and follow their mutation upon exposure to the pollutant

157
Q

why is radon gas considered a carcinogen?

A

emits radioactive decay

158
Q

carbon 14 dating?

A

carbon 14 slowly loses neutrons and transforms into C-12; the ration of C14/C12 can give age of object (lower ratio = older)

159
Q

types of radioactive decay

A

alpha
beta
gamma

160
Q

alpha decay

A

emits large, high energy alpha particle (He nuclei) that turns it into a progeny species and is easily blocked by paper and clothing

161
Q

beta decay

A

emits a high energy electron which turns it into a new element and is smaller than an alpha particle so it takes reeeally thick clothing to stop it

162
Q

gamma decay

A

emits a high energy photon with a really short wavelength that can penetrate a lot of things

163
Q

what does radon 222 originate from

A

uranium 238

164
Q

half life of uranium 238 and % remaining from earth’s formation

A

4.5 billion yr half life with 50% remaining from formation of earth

165
Q

progeny of uranium 238

A

radon 226

166
Q

progeny of radon 226

A

radon 222

167
Q

half life of radon 222

A

4 days

168
Q

where does radon 222 come from

A

seeps out of ground and contributes to background radiation

169
Q

progeny of radon 222

A

polonium 214, bismuth, and lead isotopes

170
Q

how does radon 222 get into body

A

attaches to particles which can be deposited in lung

171
Q

how does radon get into the home

A

enters from ground through foundation and sometimes is sucked in by pressure changes caused by heating/cooling

172
Q

health effects of radon

A

attached to particles and gets deposited in lungs where it decays further and can destroy lung tissue and cause lung cancer

173
Q

what level of radon indoors is considered unsafe

A

over 4 pico curies per liter

174
Q

types of pollution sources

A

point source, area source, line source

175
Q

point source of pollution

A

localized source that spreads out; e.g. smoke stack or car tailpipe

176
Q

area pollution source

A

source covers a wide area and we just need to see the cluster of point sources aggregate rather than each individual source

177
Q

line source of pollution

A

point sources that move along a line e.g. highway

178
Q

types of transport

A

diffusion, turbulence, convection, advection

179
Q

diffusion (molecular)

A

random movement of gas molecules from a high concentration to lower concentrations that can take hours/days to move several meters

180
Q

turbulent diffusion

A

random macroscopic swirls of air that move much faster than molecular diffusion

181
Q

relation between pollutant residence time and distance traveled

A

longer residence time means the farther the pollutant con potentially travel

182
Q

what is brownian motion

A

random direction changes resulting from collision

183
Q

what is a turbulent eddy

A

random swirls of air from millimeters to many meters in diameter

184
Q

advection, what it is and the pace

A

horizontal transport - wind spreads pollution at typical wind speeds, 10-20 km/hr and max of 400 km/hr

185
Q

convection transport

A

vertical transport - warm air rises, cold air sinks and can transport pollutants to heights where winds are stronger

186
Q

if density of gas parcel is greater than the density of the air it’s in…

A

the parcel is heavier and will sink because there is a negative buoyancy force

187
Q

if density of gas parcel is less than the density of the air it’s in…

A

air parcel has less weight than the air so it rises; positive buoyancy force

188
Q

if density of gas parcel is equal to the density of the air it’s in…

A

the parcel weighs the same as the air it’s displacing and vertical forces are in balance so it floats and is at neutral buoyancy

189
Q

law of buoyancy

A

an object inside a fluid will rise as long as its density is smaller than the density of the fluid and vice versa

190
Q

ideal gas law

A

P = kb x n x t (kb equals Boltzmann constant and n equals concentration)

191
Q

boyles law and relationship to each other and density

A

p1v1 = p2v2 inverse to each other; pressure and desnity are directly proportional

192
Q

charles law and relationship to each other and to density

A

t1/v1 = t2/v2 directly proportional to each other and inversely proportional to density

193
Q

adiabatic expansion/compression

A

without loss or gain of heat; mechanical work takes or gives energy to air molecules, thus changing the temp without adding or losing heat

194
Q

adiabatic expansion

A

gas cools down

195
Q

adiabatic compression

A

gas heats up

196
Q

why does air cool as it goes upwards

A

caused by a drop in pressure which causes the air to expand and the air molecules to have to provide the work for the expansion, taking energy away from the parcel

197
Q

when does adiabatic expansion stop

A

until the pressure inside and outside are equal

198
Q

dry adiabatic lapse rate (symbol and value)

A

drop 10c per 1 km altitude increase (uppercase gamma)

199
Q

saturated adiabatic lapse rate (100% humidity)

A

drop 5c per 1 km increase

200
Q

environmental lapse rate

A

lowercase gamma, can be anything because its the real atmosphere; called a sounding

201
Q

what to call the adiabatic lapse rate line on the graph

A

adiabat

202
Q

describe the santa ana wind process

A

air parcel start at high elevations in the desert and high pressure system forces the air from the dessert to the coast line over the mountains where it descends to sea level and has a net decrease in altitude and thus undergoes adiabatic compression where it gains temperature

203
Q

how does an air parcel leave the ground in the first place

A

hot ground heats the air nearby where it becomes less dense and rises

204
Q

what happens if the environmental lapse rate and the air parcels lapse rate converge

A

the parcel stops rising when the temps are equal

205
Q

what happens if the environmental lapse rate and the air parcels lapse rate diverge

A

the parcel maintains a high temp and continue to rise

206
Q

stable atmosphere

A

the system resists the disturbance and returns to its original condition

207
Q

unstable atmosphere

A

system accelerates away from its original condition

208
Q

neutral atmosphere

A

system neither returns to nor accelerates away from original condition and instead establishes a new state of equilibrium

209
Q

what lapse rates make for neutral stability

A

the adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rates are equal

210
Q

what lapse rates make for unstable atmospheric stability

A

environmental lapse rate is greater than the adiabatic lapse rate

211
Q

what lapse rates make for unstable atmospheric stability

A

environmental lapse rate is less than the adiabatic lapse rate

212
Q

what is a temperature inversion and what does one do for stability?

A

when the temperature in the atmosphere increases with increasing altitude and are extremely stable

213
Q

inversion types [3]

A

marine
radiation
subsidence

214
Q

marine inversion (advection inversion)

A

cold air from over water floats in along a sea breeze and slides underneath the warmer coastal air (stable); common in spring and summer

215
Q

radiation inversion

A

forms at night when ground cools by radiating IR and the air cools by conduction, but the air aloft does not cool as quickly; tend to be shallow and dissipate with sunrise

216
Q

subsidence inversion

A

sinking air aloft compresses adiabatically and forms warm air over cooler air and is associated with high pressure systems

217
Q

why are inversions important

A

suppress convection and inhibit vertical movement of air and pollutants; acts like a lid

218
Q

chimney plume types

A

fanning, looping, cone shaped, fumigation, lofting

219
Q

fanning plume

A

occurs when the environmental lapse rate is less than the adiabatic lapse rate (stable atmosphere) which suppresses vertical convection so plume is flat and spreads out and plume stays away from the ground

220
Q

looping plume

A

occurs when the environmental lapse rate is greater than the adiabatic lapse rate (unstable atmosphere) so natural turbulence sends off individual parcels upwards and downwards

221
Q

cone-shaped plume

A

environmental lapse rate = adiabatic lapse rate (neutral atmosphere) and spreads upwards and downwards equally

222
Q

fumigation plume (inversion above stack)

A

pollution does not mix above inversion base and plume is pushed to ground and creates worst air quality

223
Q

lofting plume (inversion at or below top of stack)

A

plume stays above inversion and creates good ground air quality

224
Q

what is acid rain

A

when rain or fog drops absorb anthropogenic pollutants such as SO2 NO2 and turn into sulfuric and nitric acid respectively

225
Q

what does london smog come from

A

coal fires heating homes and factories combined with fog

226
Q

3 things that played a major role in the formation of london smog

A

low inversions, emissions of SO2 and soot, and fog

227
Q

what is an acid?

A

molecules that dissociate into negative ions and H+ ions in water e.g. vinegar and lemon juice

228
Q

what is a base?

A

compounds that dissociate into positive ions and OH- ions in water; taste bitter, e.g. baking soda

229
Q

equilibrium concentration of water

A

[H+] = [OH-] = 1E-7 mol/liter

230
Q

what is a buffer?

A

a solution where H+ or OH- ions that are added will be removed, thus resisting a change in pH (weak acid and it’s base, or weak base and it’s acid)

231
Q

what are free radicals

A

molecules with a free electron and are chemically very reactive

232
Q

formation of sulfuric acid in the gas phase

A

SO2 + OH + O2 + H2O –>… mechanism… –> H2SO4 + HO2

233
Q

sulfuric acid formation in water

A

gas gets dissolluted into water and then gets hydrated SO2 aq –> H2SO3
H2SO3 –> 2H+ + HO4 + H2O

234
Q

natural sources and sinks of sulfur

A

sources: volcanoes and emissions from the land and oceans
sink: rainout into soil and ocean

235
Q

how have humans contributed to sulfur emissions

A

by burning coal and oil

236
Q

nitric acid formation in the gas phase

A

NO2 + OH –> HNO3

HNO3g –> HNO3 aq –> H+ + NO3-

237
Q

where do NO and NO2 come from naturally

A

lightning and soil

238
Q

where do NO and NO2 come from now?

A

combustion

239
Q

sources of NOx in US

A

on road vehicles, construction machines, electrical generators

240
Q

where are the highest levels of NOx found?

A

urban centrals

241
Q

bases in the atmosphere

A

ammonia from cattle waste and landfills and lime

242
Q

what is wet deposition

A

acids and other gases are taken up by water droplets which are deposited when acidic clouds come in contact with mountains or fog on the ground with plants

243
Q

what is dry deposition

A

acids and other molecules taken up by surfaces

244
Q

acid rains effects

A

damages forests; lake acidification or alteration of ecosystems; destruction of art or infrastructure; human health effects

245
Q

how to combat acid rain

A

scrubbers to reduce emissions and low sulfur fuels and alternative energy sources

246
Q

how to most effectively implement emission reductions

A

cap and trade system

247
Q

most effective smog reducer in LA

A

catalytic converters on cars

248
Q

pollutants that characterize LA smog

A

primary pollutants - NO/NO2, CO, hydrocarbons

secondary - ozone/particulates, NOx

249
Q

what is a primary pollutant

A

pollutant that is directly emitted

250
Q

what is a secondary pollutant

A

pollutant that is formed chemically from exposure of primaries to sunlight or other sources

251
Q

temps with most smog in LA vs London

A

LA - warm

London - cool

252
Q

inversions that enhance pollution in LA vs London

A

LA - subsidence and marine

london - radiation

253
Q

time of pollutant peak in LA vs London

A

London - morning

LA - afternoon

254
Q

what emits carbon monoxide

A

combustion processes under oxygen poor conditions like fat burning engine

255
Q

residence time of CO

A

days-weeks

256
Q

sources of NOx

A

lighting, biomass burning, soil bacteria, fossil fuel combustion (dominant)

257
Q

residence time of NOx

A

1-3 days

258
Q

sources of hydrocarbons

A

plants, solvents, fuel fumes, unburned fuel

259
Q

sources of particles in LA smog

A

direct emissions from things like diesel exhaust and smoke stacks

260
Q

how to measure visisbility

A

L of visibility (km) = 1000 / TSP

261
Q

how does inversion height in LA vary throughout the day

A

lower at night and morning and higher in the afternoon due to solar surface heating

262
Q

how does inversion height in La vary by season

A

lower in winter because of cooler temperatures and higher in the summer because of higher temperatures

263
Q

land-sea breeze day/night

A

by day the cool ocean air gets blown onshore and heats up and rises so more ocean air comes to the coast but at night the land air moves to the ocean because the land cools faster

264
Q

what are the national primary ambient air standards

A

levels of air quality which the EPA judges are necesarry with an adequate margin of safety to protect public health

265
Q

national secondary ambient air standards

A

levels of air quality which the epa judges are necessary to protect the public welfare from any known or anticipated adverse effects of a pollutant

266
Q

why so difficult to combat smog in LA?

A

the ridge down the middle of the graph of NOx vs HC emissions and ozone

267
Q

strategies to reduce smog in LA

A

move industry/power plants out of the basin
regulate and control industrial emissions
regular compliance controls of emitters
prescribing lower emission standards for cars

268
Q

challenges for the future of LA smog

A

urban sprawl and increasing populations

269
Q

percent of time spent indoors

A

87% (even in good weather)

270
Q

where do indoor air pollutants come from?

A

infiltration from outdoors (negligible); insulation/radon seepage; combustion sources; building materials and furnishings; household cleaners; personal care products; heating/cooling systems

271
Q

where does formaldehyde come from?

A

latex paint/new carpet; outgassed from objects with resins or plastics (dye stabilizer); engineered wood products; foam insulation (banned); combustion (cigarettes); textiles; glues and foams

272
Q

standard health effects of formaldehyde in a newly constructed home?

A

cerebral cortex affected

273
Q

why do people smoke

A

nicotine - stimulant and depressant - calmer yet more alert - addictive

274
Q

health effects of smoking

A

CO reduces blood oxygen level; carcinogenic; premature aging

275
Q

mainstream smoke

A

smoke that comes directly from the cigarette (tobacco burns hot so theres less CO being actually inhaled)

276
Q

sidestream smoke

A

smoke that comes from smoldering between puffs; burns at a lower temp so more CO and other pollutants

277
Q

environmental tobacco smoke (ETS)

A

diluted side stream smoke, exhaled mainstream smoke; low concentration but not negligible

278
Q

tobacco smoke constituents

A

tar, nicotine, CO; formaldehyde; phenols; toluene

279
Q

health effects of tobacco smoke in the mouth/nose/throat

A

cancer in mouth, tongue, sinus, larynx; loss of taste and smell

280
Q

health effects of pulmonary tract

A

lung cancer, coughing, asthma attacks

281
Q

health effects on cardiovascular tract

A

restricted blood supply to internal organs => coronary, pulmonary heart disease, congestive heart failure, strokes

282
Q

ingredients of “vapes”

A

heated mixture of polyethylene glycol (glycerin) and nicotine plus flavoring

283
Q

what can one do about indoor air pollution

A

control sources and emissions, improve ventilation, air cleaners

284
Q

where is indoor air pollution most commonly a problem and why

A

3rd world countries because of open fires burning indoors with poor ventilation

285
Q

how to mitigate radon

A

sub-slab suction; seal foundation cracks

286
Q

problems with air cleaners

A

hard to distinguish between good air and bad air; expensive; may not work for a long time; may not be able to filter out everything

287
Q

how many rooms does a filter need to be able to pass through

A

6 times the volume of the room

AOS 2 (1 decks)

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