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aop older adults > aop older adults final q and a > Flashcards

aop older adults final q and a Flashcards

1
Q

In-patient acute rehabilitation is suitable for patients who:
a) Require only 1 hour of therapy per day.
b) Are medically stable and can handle 3 hours of therapy.
c) Can only tolerate minimal therapy.
d) Are not medically stable.

A

b) Are medically stable and can handle 3 hours of therapy.

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2
Q

Subacute rehabilitation differs from long-term care primarily in:
a) The philosophy of care and the role of occupational therapists.
b) The type of patients admitted.
c) The length of the rehabilitation process.
d) The absence of occupational therapy services.

A

a) The philosophy of care and the role of occupational therapists.

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3
Q

Which of the following settings provides care for medically complex patients who may be ventilator-dependent?
a) Acute rehabilitation
b) Subacute rehabilitation
c) Long-term acute care
d) Assisted living

A

c) Long-term acute care

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4
Q

In a skilled nursing facility, the main goal for short-term patients is to:
a) Maintain quality of life.
b) Function safely and effectively in valued tasks.
c) Return to the community.
d) None of the above.

A

c) Return to the community.

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5
Q

Which aspect is part of the evaluation process in subacute rehabilitation and long-term care?
a) Medical work-up only
b) Evaluating home for modifications
c) Training CNA to interpret assessments
d) None of the above

A

b) Evaluating home for modifications

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6
Q

Which model is used in skilled nursing facilities to address medical needs?
a) Biomedical model
b) Biopsychosocial model
c) Cognitive-behavioral model
d) Medical model

A

b) Biopsychosocial model

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7
Q

The Resident Assessment Protocol (RAPS) is used to evaluate which of the following areas?
a) ADL function
b) Cognitive loss/dementia
c) Psychosocial well-being
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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8
Q

The Patient-Driven Payment Model (PDPM) in LTC focuses on:
a) The number of patients seen.
b) Therapy minutes clocked.
c) Patient characteristics and functional levels.
d) Cost of care provided.

A

c) Patient characteristics and functional levels.

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to positive cognitive health?
a) Increased physical activity
b) Social interaction
c) Substance use
d) Intellectual pursuits

A

c) Substance use

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10
Q

Which type of memory remains largely intact with age?
a) Episodic memory
b) Prospective memory
c) Semantic memory
d) Short-term memory

A

c) Semantic memory

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11
Q

t/f n-patient acute rehabilitation is suitable for patients who are medically stable and can handle 3 hours of therapy.

A

true

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12
Q

t/f Subacute rehabilitation has the same philosophy of care as long-term care.

A

False

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13
Q

t/f Patients in long-term acute care are typically ventilator-dependent or have multi-system complications.

A

True

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14
Q

t/f Assisted living and independent living settings provide no rehabilitation services.

A

False

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15
Q

t/f The biopsychosocial model is used in skilled nursing facilities to address residents’ needs.

A

True

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16
Q

t/f The goal of short-term care in a skilled nursing facility is to maintain the quality of life, not necessarily to return the patient to the community.

A

False

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17
Q

t/f In long-term care, occupational therapy evaluations consider home environment, social supports, and prior functioning.

A

True

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18
Q

t/f COTAs can interpret assessment results independently.

A

false

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19
Q

t/f The Patient-Driven Payment Model in LTC bases reimbursement rates on therapy minutes clocked.

A

False

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20
Q

t/f Semantic memory, which involves factual knowledge, generally remains intact with age.

A

true

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21
Q

Primary healthcare initiatives refer to:
a) Integrated accessible healthcare services by clinicians accountable for addressing a large majority of healthcare needs.
b) Only in-patient care services.
c) Emergency medical services.
d) Outpatient surgical services.

A

a) Integrated accessible healthcare services by clinicians accountable for addressing a large majority of healthcare needs.

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22
Q

Primary care within primary health care focuses on:
a) Population-level functions only.
b) Health care services, including health promotions, illness and injury prevention, and diagnosis and treatment.
c) Only preventive care.
d) Non-medical interventions.

A

b) Health care services, including health promotions, illness and injury prevention, and diagnosis and treatment.

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a model of care in primary healthcare?
a) Clinic
b) Acute rehabilitation
c) Self-management
d) Case Management

A

b) Acute rehabilitation

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24
Q

The role of occupational therapy (OT) in working with older adults with chronic diseases includes all EXCEPT:
a) Self-management training
b) Pain management
c) Emergency medical care
d) Driving and community mobility

A

c) Emergency medical care

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25
Q

Which of the following strategies can be used by OT in medication management?
a) Pill counts
b) Patient diaries
c) Electronic medication monitors
d) All of the above

A

b) Patient diaries

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26
Q

Technology can enhance health management tasks by all the following EXCEPT:
a) Telehealth
b) Vital sign monitoring
c) In-person consultations only
d) Pain management

A

c) In-person consultations only

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27
Q

Effective teaching strategies for community-based settings include:
a) Use of contrast and bullet points/lists
b) Avoiding visual aids
c) Using complex tables and charts
d) Relying solely on oral communication

A

a) Use of contrast and bullet points/lists

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28
Q

The Hill-Burton Act was designed to address:
a) The design of federally funded hospitals.
b) Employment rights of healthcare workers.
c) School accessibility for disabled children.
d) Digital accessibility.

A

a) The design of federally funded hospitals.

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29
Q

Which home safety assessment tool is most common and assesses the client’s ability to carry out functional activities?
a) COUGAR Home Safety Assessment
b) SAFER-HOME V3
c) HOME FAST
d) Westmead Home Safety Assessment (WeHSA)

A

b) SAFER-HOME V3

30
Q

universal design principles include all the following EXCEPT:
a) Equitable Use
b) Design for only one individual
c) Flexible Use
d) Low physical effort

A

b) Design for only one individual

31
Q

t/f Primary care is a component within primary health care that includes health promotion, illness, and injury prevention.

A

true

32
Q

t/f Shared care is NOT a model of care in primary healthcare.

A

False

33
Q

t/f The role of rehabilitation in primary care settings includes community education and inter/intraprofessional opportunities.

A

true

34
Q

OTs do not play a role in medication management for older adults.

A

False

35
Q

t/f Social supports like pharmacists, family, and friends can improve medication adherence.

A

True

36
Q

t/f Telehealth can be used for chronic disease management and fall detection.

A

true

37
Q

t/f Older adults as lifelong learners can benefit from strategies like health literacy and social connectedness.

A

true

38
Q

t/f Shouting is an effective strategy for communicating with older adults who have hearing considerations.

A

false

39
Q

t/f Environmental modifications for older adults should consider factors like adequate lighting and accessibility concerns.

A

true

40
Q

t/f Universal design only benefits people with disabilities.

A

false

41
Q

Which assessment tool is part of the Multi-context Assessment Bundle for Fall Injury Prevention?
a) MAHC 10 Fall Risk Assessment
b) Barthel Index
c) Berg Balance Scale
d) COPM

A

a) MAHC 10 Fall Risk Assessment

42
Q

The OT Care plan for fall prevention should be:
a) Generalized and non-specific.
b) Based on best practices and specific to the individual’s risk factors.
c) Focused only on the patient’s medical history.
d) Focused only on the home environment.

A

b) Based on best practices and specific to the individual’s risk factors.

43
Q

Which of the following is NOT a person factor in medication management?
a) Health literacy
b) Motivation and self-efficacy
c) Lighting
d) Fine motor skills

A

c) Lighting

44
Q

For managing occupational performance in patients with chronic diseases, which assessment tool can be used?
a) COPM
b) TUG
c) PHQ-9
d) FIM

A

a) COPM

45
Q

Which intervention is NOT typically included in improving the occupation of caregiving?
a) Adaptive equipment
b) Cognitive strategies
c) Wound care
d) Proper body mechanics

A

c) Wound care

46
Q

Homebound status for home health care requires:
a) Assistance from another person or a two-handed walking device to leave home.
b) Daily visits from healthcare providers.
c) The ability to leave home frequently and for extended periods.
d) No limitations on mobility.

A

a) Assistance from another person or a two-handed walking device to leave home.

47
Q

What is the typical duration for intermittent care in home health services?
a) 15 minutes
b) 40 minutes to 2 hours
c) 3 to 4 hours
d) Full-day care

A

b) 40 minutes to 2 hours

48
Q

Which organization certifies home health agencies for Medicare/Medicaid reimbursement?
a) CMS
b) The Joint Commission
c) AOTA
d) AMA

A

b) The Joint Commission

49
Q

t/f The MAHC 10 Fall Risk Assessment is an ecological tool that considers comorbidities, vision, cognition, and other factors.

A

true

50
Q

t/f OT interventions for fall prevention should only focus on the physical environment and ignore caregiver engagement.

A

false

51
Q

t/f Medication management in home health care should consider both person and environmental factors, such as lighting and social support.

A

true

52
Q

t/f The COPM is used to assess occupational performance in patients with chronic diseases.

A

true

53
Q

t/f Homebound status requires that the individual can easily leave home for frequent, long trips.

A

false

54
Q

t/f Home health care documentation must show an ongoing skilled need for licensed OT services to be eligible for billing.

A

true

55
Q

t/f The Joint Commission certifies home health agencies every 5 years to provide services reimbursed by Medicare/Medicaid.

A

False (Certification occurs every 3 years)

56
Q

t/f Emotional regulation strategies like positive imagery and self-talk can be part of OT interventions for managing chronic disease.

A

true

57
Q

What is a common symptom of macular degeneration?
a) Blurry vision and central field loss
b) Peripheral vision loss
c) Cloudy vision and color perception changes
d) Increased sensitivity to glare

A

a) Blurry vision and central field loss

58
Q

Which eye condition is the leading cause of legal blindness among people aged 20-74?
a) Glaucoma
b) Cataracts
c) Diabetic retinopathy
d) Macular degeneration

A

c) Diabetic retinopathy

59
Q

Which of the following services does Lighthouse Guild NOT offer?
a) Low vision optometry
b) Vocational rehab services
c) Inpatient surgery
d) Tele-support groups

A

c) Inpatient surgery

60
Q

Which of the following statements is true about legal blindness?
a) It is defined by a visual acuity of 20/40 or less with best correction.
b) It is defined by a visual acuity of 20/200 with best correction or a visual field of less than 20 degrees.
c) It is defined by complete loss of vision.
d) It is the same as low vision.

A

b) It is defined by a visual acuity of 20/200 with best correction or a visual field of less than 20 degrees.

61
Q

What type of assessment is important for understanding the impact of low vision on daily activities?
a) Low Vision Evaluation
b) Functional Independence Measure (FIM)
c) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
d) Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)

A

a) Low Vision Evaluation

62
Q

Which intervention is NOT typically used in low vision rehabilitation?
a) Magnifying glass
b) Smart canes
c) Chemotherapy
d) Colored lens glasses

A

c) Chemotherapy

63
Q

n the context of neurocognitive disorders, which stage of dementia is characterized by significant personality and behavior changes, incontinence, and difficulty with speech?
a) Stage 4
b) Stage 5
c) Stage 6
d) Stage 7

A

d) Stage 7

64
Q

Which therapy involves validating the perceived reality and emotional experience of the individual with dementia?
a) Validation therapy
b) Reminiscence therapy
c) Music therapy
d) Pet therapy

A

a) Validation therapy

65
Q

t/f Glaucoma is 90% preventable but is often diagnosed only when damage is severe and irreversible.

A

true

66
Q

t/f Diabetic retinopathy can affect both central and peripheral vision, increase glare sensitivity, and reduce color vision.

A

true

67
Q

t/f A person with low vision cannot accomplish visual tasks even with corrective lenses.

A

False (They can accomplish tasks with visual strategies/aids)

68
Q

t/f Rehabilitation for daily activities in low vision includes using magnifiers, smart canes, and navigation systems.

A

true

69
Q

t/f The Colenbrander 1-meter chart is used to assess visual acuity for distances greater than 1 meter.

A

False (It assesses visual acuity at a 1-meter distance)

70
Q

t/f Peripheral field loss can cause mobility issues and is commonly associated with glaucoma and optic nerve disease.

A

True

71
Q

t/f in Reisberg’s Stage 5 of dementia, individuals typically require moderate assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs).

A

False (Stage 5 involves some assistance, while Stage 6 involves moderate assistance)

72
Q

t/f Music therapy for individuals with dementia aims to promote well-being, foster sociability, and reduce anxiety.

A

true

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