Anxiety Disorders Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

*Under the DSM-5 criteria, how might a patient with Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) present?

A

Excessive anxiety and worries >6m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

*Under the DSM-5 criteria, how might a patient with Panic disorder (PD) present?

A

Anticipatory anxiety of recurrent panic attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

*Under the DSM-5 criteria, how might a patient with Social anxiety disorder (SAD) present?

A

Fear of being scrutinized or humiliated in public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

*Under the DSM-5 criteria, how might a patient with Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) present?

A

Obsessional thoughts/impulses that causes anxiety

+/- compulsive behaviors to relieve anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

*Under the DSM-5 criteria, how might a patient with Acute stress disorder (ASD)/ Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) present?

A

Re-experiencing, persistent avoidance, negative cognitions and ↑ arousal after exposure to trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some medical illnesses that can contribute to symptoms similar to anxiety disorders?

A

Cardiovascular diseases
Hypothyroidism
Electrolyte imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some drugs associated with anxiety symptoms?

A

Herbs, Antidepressants, illicit substances and Anti-hypertensives
(HAIA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Before diagnosing anxiety disorders, it is important to exclude: __

A

Medical disorders, drug induced causes or Other mental disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In Social anxiety disorder (SAD), what is one key specifier we must make during diagnosis?

A

Specify if the fear is performance only i.e. restricted to speaking/performing in public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In PTSD, what are key specifiers we must make during diagnosis?

A
  1. Dissociative symptoms

2. Delayed expression (if full diagnostic criteria not met until 6 or months post-event)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

*What is the difference between ASD and PSTD?

A

ASD pts usually recover within 3days - 1month (< 1 month) after trauma while symptoms persisting >1 month suggest PTSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the expected timeline of therapy for anxiety disorder patients in general?

A

Adequate trial + Good response –> at least 1 year of treatment before gradual tapering of medications
*Some may require lifelong tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the expected timeline of therapy for OCD patients?

A

Adequate trial + Good response –> at least 1-2 years of treatment before gradual tapering of medications
*Some may require lifelong tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Benzodiazepines (BZDs) should not be used in which anxiety disorder?

A

PTSD

  • associated w poorer outcomes
  • increased fear responses in pt who experience trauma and may delay recovery from said trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Role of adjunct short course (2-3wk) of BZDs or hydroxyzine in anxiety disorders?

A

Temporary relief of acute anxiety i.e. when starting antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which patient group should not receive Pregabalin or BZDs for anxiety?

A

Patients with concomitant alcohol/substance abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

*What are the pharmacological treatment options for GAD?

A

1st line: SSRI, SNRI, Pregabalin
2nd line: Mirtazapine, Imipramine
(SSP MI)
Note: MOH guidelines do not state place in therapy for pregabalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

*What are the non-pharmacological treatment options for GAD?

A
1st line: CBT (cognitive behavioral therapy)
-Supportive/Dynamic Psychotherapy
-Meditation
-Relaxation exercise
(CSMR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

*What are the pharmacological treatment options for Panic Disorder?

A

1st line: SSRI or Venlafaxine
2nd line: Imipramine, Clomipramine
(SVIC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

*What are the non-pharmacological treatment options for Panic Disorder?

A

CBT (cognitive behavioral therapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

*What are the pharmacological treatment options for SAD?

A

1st line: SSRI or Venlafaxine
2nd line: Moclobemide
(SVM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

*What are the non-pharmacological treatment options for SAD?

A

1st line: CBT (cognitive behavioral therapy)

Social skills training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

*What are the pharmacological treatment options for OCD?

A
1st line: SSRI
2nd line: Clomipramine
3rd line: Venlafaxine
(SCV)
Note: rare case of SNRI not being 1st line in anxiety disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

*What are the non-pharmacological treatment options for OCD?

A

1st line: CBT (cognitive behavioral therapy)
-DBT (Dialectical Behavior Therapy)
-Surgery
(CDS)

25
*What are the pharmacological treatment options for PTSD?
1st line: SSRI or SNRI 2nd line: Mirtazapine 3rd line: Amitriptyline, Imipramine (SSMAI)
26
*What are the non-pharmacological treatment options for PTSD?
1st line: CBT (cognitive behavioral therapy) -Exposure therapy -Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) (CEE)
27
What should be done if patients fail 1st line pharmacotherapy?
Refer to specialist for further assessment and management
28
When can anxiety disorder patients expect benefit if they are on antidepressants? Early effects: __ Improvements: __ full response: __
Early effects: after 2-4 wks Improvements: generally 4-6wks full response: may take 3 months
29
What can anxiety disorder patients expect when newly started on antidepressants?
Transient jitteriness expected in first 1-2 w of starting
30
What are general principles of pharmacotherapy when treating patients with anxiety disorder?
1. Start low, go slow | 2. Titrate up
31
What is the difference between usage of antidepressants in anxiety disorders vs depression?
Effective maintenance doses of AD for anxiety disorders tends to be on the higher end of dose range - e.g. fluoxetine 60-80mg/day, sertraline 150-200mg/day
32
``` What kind of side effects do TCAs exhibit? Amitriptyline → Nortriptyline Imipramine → Desipramine Dothiepin (Dosulepin) Clomipramine ```
1. α-adrenergic blockade: CVS (tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, heart block) 2. Antihistaminic: sedation/ weight gain 3. Anticholinergic: dry mouth /constipation /blurred vision / urinary retention 4. Serotonergic: sexual dysfunction
33
How do MAOIs i.e. Moclobemide work?
Reversible inhibition of MAO-A | Increase: NE, dopamine, 5-HT
34
What kind of side effects/interactions do MAOIs exhibit? | Moclobemide
``` Postural hypotension Restlessness and insomnia Cheese reaction Serotonin syndrome (PRCS) ```
35
When can anxiety disorder patients expect benefit when taking BZDs?
30 - 60minutes
36
What are the BZDs of choice for anxiety?
Alprazolam Bromazepam Diazepam Lorazepam
37
Dose of Lorazepam for short course PRN?
PO 1-3mg/day (in 2-3 divided doses) | Max: 6mg/day
38
What are the BZDs of choice for panic disorder?
Clonazepam/Alprazolam
39
Dose of Alprazolam for short course PRN?
Initially PO 0.25-0.5g BD-TDS | Max: 4-6mg/day
40
Dose of Diazepam for short course PRN?
PO 2-10mg BD-QDS
41
Dose of Clonazepam for short course PRN?
Initially PO 0.5mg BD | Max: 4mg/day
42
Dose of Bromazepam for short course PRN?
PO 1.5-3g up to TDS
43
Most BZDs that undergo hepatic oxidation are metabolized by __ except for __.
1. CYP3A4 | 2. Lorazepam
44
*Key counselling pointers for BZDs?
1. Drowsiness, avoid operating vehicles (tolerance expected) 2. Avoid alcohol 3. Withdrawals if abrupt discontinuation after long term use 4. Sx relief only (DAWS)
45
If a patient has been on BZDs long term, how should BZDs be discontinued without causing withdrawal symptoms?
gradual dose reduction of 25% q weekly till half of | original dose --> then reduce by 1/8th q 4-7days
46
Propranolol is contraindicated in __.
patients with asthma (may cause bronchospasm)
47
Propranolol dose for anxiety is 10-20mg (initially). It should be taken __.
30-60min prior to anxiety provoking situation
48
Smoking is an example of a potent __ inducer/inhibitor.
1A2 inducer
49
Fluvoxamine is an example of a potent __ inducer/inhibitor.
1A2 inhibitor
50
Rifampicin is an example of a potent __ inducer/inhibitor.
2C19 and 3A4 inducer
51
Fluoxetine is an example of a potent __ inducer/inhibitor.
2D6 inhibitor
52
Paroxetine is an example of a potent __ inducer/inhibitor.
2D6 inhibitor
53
Bupropion is an example of a potent __ inducer/inhibitor.
2D6 inhibitor
54
Phenytoin is an example of a potent __ inducer/inhibitor.
3A4 inducer
55
Carbamazepine is an example of a potent __ inducer/inhibitor.
3A4 inducer
56
Nefazodone is an example of a potent __ inducer/inhibitor.
3A4 inhibitor
57
Serotonin syndrome commonly presents as a triad of __.
1. Mental status changes 2. Autonomic hyperactivity 3. Neuromuscular abnormalities (MAN)
58
*Key monitoring strategy for anxiety patients is __ and __.
1. keeping a symptom diary | 2. Monitor for ADRs of pharmacotherapy
59
The use of opioids and __ may cause profound CNS depression, possibly leading to death.
BZDs