Anus, Rectum, and Prostate - Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement concerning the anal canal is true?

a. Slants backward toward the sacrum
b. Contains hair and sebaceous glands
c. Approximately 2 cm long in the adult
d. The outlet for the gastrointestinal tract

A

ANS: D

The anal canal is the outlet for the gastrointestinal tract and is approximately 3.8 cm long in the adult. It is lined with a modified skin that does not contain hair or sebaceous glands, and it slants forward toward the umbilicus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which statement concerning the sphincters is correct?

a. The internal sphincter is under voluntary control.
b. The external sphincter is under voluntary control.
c. Both sphincters remain slightly relaxed at all times.
d. The internal sphincter surrounds the external sphincter.

A

ANS: B

The external sphincter not only surrounds the internal sphincter but also has a small section overriding the tip of the internal sphincter at the opening. The external sphincter is under voluntary control. Except for the passing of feces and gas, the sphincters keep the anal canal tightly closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The nurse is performing an examination of the anus and rectum. Which of these statements is correct and important to remember during this examination?

a. The rectum is approximately 8 cm long.
b. The anorectal junction cannot be palpated.
c. Above the anal canal, the rectum turns anteriorly.
d. There are no sensory nerves in the anal canal or rectum.

A

ANS: B

The anal columns are folds of mucosa that extend vertically down from the rectum and end in the anorectal junction. This junction is not palpable but is visible on proctoscopy. The rectum is 12 cm long; just above the anal canal, the rectum dilates and turns posteriorly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What structure secretes a thin, milky alkaline fluid to enhance the viability of sperm?

a. Cowper gland
b. Median sulcus
c. Prostate gland
d. Bulbourethral gland

A

ANS: C

In men, the prostate gland secretes a thin milky alkaline fluid that enhances sperm viability. The Cowper glands (also known as bulbourethral glands) secrete a clear, viscid mucus. The median sulcus is a groove that divides the lobes of the prostate gland and does not secrete fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A 46-year-old man requires an assessment of his sigmoid colon. Which instrument or technique is most appropriate for this examination?

a. Ultrasound
b. Proctoscope
c. Colonoscope
d. Rectal examination with an examining finger

A

ANS: C

The sigmoid colon is 40 cm long, and it is accessible to examination only with a colonoscope. The other responses are not appropriate for an examination of the entire sigmoid colon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The nurse is caring for a newborn infant. Thirty hours after birth, the infant passes a dark green meconium stool. What is the importance of this finding?

a. The stool indicates anal patency.
b. The dark green color indicates occult blood in the stool.
c. Meconium stool can be reflective of distress in the newborn.
d. The newborn should have passed the first stool within 12 hours of birth.

A

ANS: A

The first stool passed by the newborn is dark green meconium and occurs within 24 to 48 hours of birth, indicating anal patency. The other responses are not correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During the assessment of an 18-month-old infant, the mother expresses concern to the nurse about the infant’s inability to toilet train. What would be the best response by the nurse?

a. “Some children are just more difficult to train, so I wouldn’t worry about it yet.”
b. “Have you considered reading any of the books on toilet training? They can be very helpful.”
c. “This could mean that there is a problem with your baby’s development. We’ll watch her closely for the next few months.”
d. “The nerves that allow your baby to have control over the passing of stools are not developed until at least 18 to 24 months of age.”

A

ANS: D

The infant passes stools by reflex. Voluntary control of the external anal sphincter cannot occur until the nerves supplying the area have become fully myelinated, usually around 11/2 to 2 years of age. Toilet training usually starts after the age of 2 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A 60-year-old man has just been told that he has benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). He has a friend who just died from cancer of the prostate and is concerned this will happen to him. How should the nurse respond?

a. “The swelling in your prostate is only temporary and will go away.”
b. “We will treat you with chemotherapy so we can control the cancer.”
c. “It would be very unusual for a man your age to have cancer of the prostate.”
d. “The enlargement of your prostate is caused by hormonal changes, and not

A

ANS: D

The prostate gland commonly starts to enlarge during the middle adult years. BPH is present in 1 in 10 men at the age of 40 years and increases with age. It is believed that the hypertrophy is caused by hormonal imbalance that leads to the proliferation of benign adenomas. The other responses are not appropriate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A 30-year-old woman is visiting the clinic because of “pain in my bottom when I have a bowel movement.” The nurse should assess for which problem?

a. Pinworms
b. Hemorrhoids
c. Colon cancer
d. Fecal incontinence

A

ANS: B

Having painful bowel movements, known as dyschezia, may be attributable to a local condition (hemorrhoid or fissure) or constipation. Pinworms cause acute pain, itching, and a papular rash. Colon cancer often presents with occult blood in the stool. Fecal incontinence is leaking of solid or liquid stool involuntarily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A patient who is visiting the clinic reports having “stomach pains for 2 weeks” and describes his stools as being “soft and black” for approximately the last 10 days. He denies taking any medications. What do these symptoms suggest?

a. Excessive fat caused by malabsorption
b. Absent bile pigment from liver problems
c. Increased iron intake, resulting from a change in diet
d. Occult blood, resulting from gastrointestinal bleeding

A

ANS: D

Black stools may be tarry as a result of occult blood (melena) from gastrointestinal bleeding or nontarry from ingestion of iron medications (not diet). Excessive fat causes the stool to become frothy. The absence of bile pigment causes clay-colored stools.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

After completing an assessment of a 60-year-old white male with a family history of colon cancer, the nurse discusses with him early detection measures for colon cancer. What should the nurse include in the instructions?

a. Annual proctoscopy
b. Annual PSA blood test
c. Colonoscopy every 10 years
d. Fecal occult blood test every 6 months

A

ANS: C

Early detection measures for colon cancer include an annual fecal occult blood test after age 50 years (after age 45 for African Americans), a colonoscopy every 10 years after age 50, and a PSA blood test annually for men over 50 years old (45 years for
African Americans).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The mother of a 5-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has noticed her daughter “scratching at her bottom a lot the last few days.” During the assessment, the nurse finds redness and raised skin in the anal area. What does this finding likely indicate?

a. Pinworms
b. Chickenpox
c. Constipation
d. Bacterial infection

A

ANS: A

In children, pinworms are a common cause of intense itching and irritated anal skin. The other options are not correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The nurse is examining only the rectal area of a woman and should place the woman in what position?

a. Prone
b. Lithotomy
c. Left lateral decubitus
d. Bending over the table while standing

A

ANS: C

The left lateral decubitus position is used when examining only the rectal area. If the genitalia are also going to be examined, the nurse should place the female patient in the lithotomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

While performing an assessment of the perianal area of a patient, the nurse notices that the pigmentation of the anus is darker than the surrounding skin, the anal opening is closed, and a skin sac that is shiny and blue is noted. The patient mentioned that he has had pain with bowel movements and has occasionally noted some spots of blood. What does this assessment and history most likely indicate?

a. Anal fistula
b. Pilonidal cyst
c. Rectal prolapse
d. Thrombosed hemorrhoid

A

ANS: D

The anus normally looks moist and hairless, with coarse folded skin that is more pigmented than the perianal skin, and the anal opening is tightly closed. The shiny blue skin sac indicates a thrombosed hemorrhoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The nurse is preparing to palpate the rectum and should use which of these techniques?

a. Flex the finger, and slowly insert it toward the umbilicus.
b. Insert an extended index finger at a right angle to the anus.
c. First instruct the patient that this procedure will be painful.
d. Place the finger directly into the anus to overcome the tight sphincter.

A

ANS: A

The nurse should gently place the pad of the index finger against the anal verge. The nurse will feel the sphincter tighten and then relax. As it relaxes, the nurse should flex the tip of the finger and slowly insert it into the anal canal in a direction toward the umbilicus. The nurse should never approach the anus at right angles with the index finger extended; doing so would cause pain. The nurse should instruct the patient that palpation is not painful but may feel like needing to move the bowels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

While performing a rectal examination, the nurse notices a firm, irregularly shaped mass. What should the nurse do next?

a. Continue with the examination, and document the finding in the chart.
b. Instruct the patient to return for a repeat assessment in 1 month.
c. Tell the patient that a mass was felt, but it is nothing to worry about.
d. Report the finding, and refer the patient to a specialist for further examination.

A

ANS: D

A firm or hard mass with an irregular shape or rolled edges may signify carcinoma. Any mass that is discovered should be promptly reported for further examination. The other responses are not correct.

17
Q

During an assessment of the newborn, the nurse expects to see which finding when the anal area is slightly stroked?

a. Jerking of the legs
b. Flexion of the knees
c. Quick contraction of the sphincter
d. Relaxation of the external sphincter

A

ANS: C

To assess sphincter tone, the nurse should check the anal reflex by gently stroking the anal area and noticing a quick contraction of the sphincter. The other responses are not correct.

18
Q

A 13-year-old girl is visiting the clinic for a sports physical examination. The nurse should remember to include which of these tests in the examination?

a. Valsalva maneuver
b. Testing for occult blood
c. Internal palpation of the anus
d. Inspection of the perianal area

A

ANS: D

The perianal region of the school-aged child and adolescent should be inspected during the examination of the genitalia. Internal
palpation is not routinely performed at this age. Testing for occult blood and performing the Valsalva maneuver are also not necessary.

19
Q

During an assessment of a 20-year-old man, the nurse finds a small palpable lesion with a tuft of hair located directly over the
coccyx. What does this finding indicate?

a. Carcinoma
b. Rectal polyp
c. Pruritus ani
d. Pilonidal cyst

A

ANS: D

A pilonidal cyst or sinus is a hair-containing cyst or sinus located in the midline over the coccyx or lower sacrum. It often opens as a dimple with a visible tuft of hair and, possibly, an erythematous halo. Carcinoma, or a malignant neoplasm, in the colon or rectum is typically asymptomatic. Rectal polyps are protruding growths from the rectal mucous membrane and are fairly common. They are difficult to palpate and found on examination with a scope. Pruritus ani is intense itching and burning in the perineum and has
several causes such as soaps, fecal soiling or hemorrhoids, sexually transmitted infections, and pinworm manifestations in children.

20
Q

A 70-year-old man is visiting the clinic for difficulty in passing urine. In the health history, he indicates that he has to urinate frequently, especially at night. He has burning when he urinates and has noticed pain in his back. Considering this history, what might the nurse expect to find during the physical assessment?

a. Asymmetric, hard, and fixed prostate gland
b. Occult blood and perianal pain to palpation
c. Symmetrically enlarged, soft prostate gland
d. Soft nodule protruding from the rectal mucosa

A

ANS: A

Subjective symptoms of carcinoma of the prostate include frequency, nocturia, hematuria, weak stream, hesitancy, pain or burning
on urination, and continuous pain in lower back, pelvis, and thighs. Objective symptoms of carcinoma of the prostate include a malignant neoplasm that often starts as a single hard nodule on the posterior surface, producing asymmetry and a change in consistency. As it invades normal tissue, multiple hard nodules appear, or the entire gland feels stone hard and fixed.

21
Q

A 40-year-old black man is in the office for his annual physical examination. Which statement regarding the PSA blood test is true?

a. Should be performed at age 50 years.
b. Should be performed with this visit.
c. Should be performed at age 45 years.
d. Is only necessary if a family history of prostate cancer exists.

A

ANS: C

According to the American Cancer Society, the PSA blood test should be performed annually for black men beginning at age 45 years and annually for all other men over age 50 years.

22
Q

A 62-year-old man is experiencing fever, chills, malaise, urinary frequency, and urgency. He also reports urethral discharge and a dull aching pain in the perineal and rectal area. These symptoms are most consistent with which condition?

a. BPH
b. Polyps
c. Prostatitis
d. Carcinoma of the prostate

A

ANS: C

The common presenting symptoms of prostatitis are fever, chills, malaise, and urinary frequency and urgency. The individual may also have dysuria, urethral discharge, and a dull aching pain in the perineal and rectal area. The signs and symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) include urinary frequency, urgency, hesitancy, straining to urinate, weak stream, intermittent stream, sensation of incomplete emptying, and nocturia. The prostate surface feels smooth, rubbery, or firm (like the consistency of the nose), with the median sulcus obliterated. A rectal polyp is a protruding growth from the rectal mucous membrane and is fairly common. Rectal polyps are difficult to palpate and are found on examination with a scope. The signs and symptoms of carcinoma of the prostate include frequency, nocturia, hematuria, weak stream, hesitancy, pain or burning on urination, and continuous pain in lower back, pelvis, and thighs. It often starts as a single hard nodule on the posterior surface of the prostate and as it invades normal tissue, multiple hard nodules appear, or the entire gland feels stone-hard and fixed and the median sulcus obliterated.

23
Q

During a group discussion on men’s health, what group should the nurse inform them has the highest incidence of prostate cancer?

a. Blacks
b. Hispanics
c. Asian Americans
d. American Indians

A

ANS: A

The risk for prostate cancer is 74% higher in African-American and African-Caribbean men. Reasons are not known but may be r/t inherited genetic factors

24
Q

While palpating the prostate gland through the rectum, which finding would the nurse recognize as abnormal?

a. Heart shaped
b. Palpable central groove
c. Tenderness to palpation
d. Elastic and rubbery consistency

A

ANS: C

The normal prostate gland should feel smooth, elastic, and rubbery; slightly movable; heart-shaped with a palpable central groove; and not be tender to palpation.

25
Q

The nurse notices that a patient has had a pale, yellow, greasy stool, or steatorrhea. What is the cause of this finding?

a. Occult bleeding
b. Absent bile pigment
c. Increased fat content
d. Ingestion of bismuth preparations

A

ANS: C

Steatorrhea (pale, yellow, greasy stool) is caused by increased fat content in the stools, as in malabsorption syndrome. Occult bleeding and ingestion of bismuth products cause a black stool, and absent bile pigment causes a gray-tan stool.

26
Q

During the health history of a patient who reports chronic constipation, the patient asks the nurse about foods to eat to avoid constipation. What should the nurse include as an example of an appropriate food?

a. Yogurt
b. Broccoli
c. Ground beef
d. Iceberg lettuce

A

ANS: B

Patients with constipation should be encouraged to eat foods high in fiber. High-fiber foods are either soluble type (e.g., beans, prunes, barley, broccoli) or insoluble type (e.g., cereals, wheat germ). The other examples are not considered high-fiber foods.

27
Q

While assessing a hospitalized patient who is jaundiced, the nurse notices that the patient has been incontinent of stool. The stool is loose and gray-tan in color. What does this finding indicate?

a. Occult blood
b. Inflammation
c. Absent bile pigment
d. Ingestion of iron preparations

A

ANS: C

The presence of gray-tan stool indicates the absence of bile pigment, which can occur with obstructive jaundice. The ingestion of iron preparations and the presence of occult blood turn the stools to a black color. Jellylike mucus shreds mixed in the stool would indicate inflammation.

28
Q

During a digital examination of the rectum, the nurse notices that the patient has hard feces in the rectum. The patient complains of feeling “full,” has a distended abdomen, and states that she has not had a bowel movement “for several days.” The nurse suspects which condition?

a. Rectal polyp
b. Rectal abscess
c. Fecal impaction
d. Fecal incontinence

A

ANS: C

A fecal impaction is a collection of hard, desiccated feces in the rectum. The obstruction often results from decreased bowel motility, in which more water is reabsorbed from the stool. Rectal polyps are protruding growths from the rectal mucous membrane. They are usually asymptomatic and are fairly common. A rectal abscess starts from an infected anorectal gland and the infection channels through the perianal tissues to form a fistula (connection between the infected gland and the outside perineum). Symptoms include persistent pain and swelling and may drain purulent or serosanguineous matter. Fecal incontinence is the leaking of solid or liquid stool involuntarily.

29
Q

As the nurse is taking the health history, the patient states, “It really hurts back there, and sometimes it itches, too. I have even seen blood on the tissue when I have a bowel movement. Is there something there?” The nurse should expect to see which of these upon examination of the anus?

a. Rectal prolapse
b. Internal hemorrhoid
c. External hemorrhoid that has resolved
d. External hemorrhoid that is thrombosed

A

ANS: D

These symptoms are consistent with an external hemorrhoid. An external hemorrhoid, when thrombosed, contains clotted blood and becomes a painful, swollen, shiny blue mass that itches and bleeds with defecation. When the external hemorrhoid resolves, it leaves a flabby, painless skin sac around the anal orifice. An internal hemorrhoid is not palpable but may appear as a red mucosal mass when the person performs a Valsalva maneuver. A rectal prolapse appears as a moist, red doughnut with radiating lines.

30
Q

The nurse is performing a digital examination of a patient’s prostate gland and notices that a normal prostate gland includes which of the following characteristics? (Select all that apply.)

a. Fixed mobility
b. Boggy with a soft consistency
c. 1 cm protrusion into the rectum
d. Flat shape with no palpable groove
e. Heart-shaped with a palpable central groove
f. Smooth surface, elastic, and rubbery consistency

A

ANS: C, E, F

The size of a normal prostate gland should be 2.5 cm long by 4 cm wide and should not protrude more than 1 cm into the rectum. The prostate should be heart-shaped, with a palpable central groove, a smooth surface, and elastic with a rubbery consistency. Abnormal findings include a flat shape with no palpable groove, boggy with a soft consistency, and fixed mobility.