Antiretrovirals, Anthelmintic, and Antiprotozoal Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What common endings are for NRTIs?

A

-vir, -dine, or -sine are typically in the NRTI name

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2
Q

When are NRTIs indicated?

A

HIV infection, both early onset and advanced. To lower the transmission of HIV from mother to fetus. It is the 1st line of antiretrovirals to help with HIV

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3
Q

What class of drugs is the 1st line of therapy for HIV?

A

Antiretrovirals: NRTIs

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4
Q

What are some nursing considerations for patients receiving NRTIs?

A
  1. Assess patients for any allergies or any contraindications/cautions (renal/hepatic impairment, any drugs/herbs that may decrease efficacy, pregnancy/lactation), or any symptoms of opportunistic infections
  2. Assess level of orientation and reflexes
  3. Examine the skin and measure vitals
  4. Evaluate hepatic and renal function tests
  5. Check CBC with differential to monitor bone marrow and helper T cell count
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5
Q

What are some education points for a patient on NRTIs?

A
  1. The drug is not a CURE for AIDs/HIV.
  2. Notify PCP of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, malaise, fever or any other infections.
  3. Notify PCP is skin or sclera become yellow, urine becomes dark, and stool is light colored. Lack of appetite for several days.
  4. HIV can be transferred to others and proper precautions should be followed
  5. Follow up visits are a MUST; blood counts should be done every 2 weeks
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6
Q

What is the prototype drug for NRTIs?

A

Zidovudine (Retrovir)

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7
Q

What drug class does Retrovir belong to?

A

It is the brand name for Zidovudine and it belongs to NRTIs (Antiretroviral)

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8
Q

What drug class does Zidovudine belong to?

A

Antiretroviral: NRTIs

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9
Q

What are some drug interactions to consider for NRTIs? ( Prototype: Zidovudine)

A
  1. If zidovudine is combined with cyclosporine, it can cause severe drowsiness and lethargy
  2. Rifampin and ritonavir can decrease zidovudine levels
  3. Methadone, probenecid, and valproic acid can increase zidovudine levels.
  4. Alcohol may increase blood levels
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10
Q

What are some cautions/contraindications for NRTIs?

A
  1. Tenofovivir, zidovudine, and emtricitabine should be cautioned in hepatic dysfunction or severe renal impairment
  2. Caution zidovudine in any bone marrow suppression because it can aggravate it.
  3. HIV patients shouldn’t breastfeed
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11
Q

Pharmacokinetics for Zidovudine?

A

Available PO and IV.
Peak level: 30 to 75 mins
Metabolized in the liver and excreted in urine
Half-life: 1 hour

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12
Q

What is an important fact to remember about NRTIs?

A

They are often prescribed in pairs for combination therapy

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13
Q

What is the therapeutic effect for NRTIs?

A

It slows the progression of HIV. It increases the CD4 cell counts and decreases viral load.

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14
Q

What does NRTI stand for?

A

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

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15
Q

True or False: NRTIs are used to treat HIV.

A

True

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16
Q

Fill in the blank: NRTIs work by inhibiting the activity of __________.

A

reverse transcriptase

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17
Q

Which of the following is a common NRTI? A) Ritonavir B) Zidovudine C) Efavirenz

A

B) Zidovudine

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18
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action for NRTIs?

A

They mimic the structure of nucleotides and get incorporated into viral DNA, leading to chain termination.

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19
Q

Name one side effect commonly associated with NRTIs.

A

Lactic acidosis

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20
Q

True or False: NRTIs can be used in combination with other classes of antiretrovirals.

A

True

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21
Q

Which NRTI is known as AZT?

A

Zidovudine

22
Q

Short answer: What is the significance of the ‘nucleoside’ in NRTI?

A

It refers to the drug’s structure, which is similar to natural nucleosides used in DNA synthesis.

23
Q

What is the primary use of anthelmintic agents?

A

To treat infections caused by parasitic worms.

24
Q

Which two anthelmintic agents are widely studied?

A

Mebendazole and ivermectin.

25
True or False: Mebendazole is effective against both roundworms and flatworms.
True.
26
What is the mechanism of action of mebendazole?
It inhibits the synthesis of microtubules in parasitic worms.
27
Fill in the blank: Ivermectin is particularly effective against _____ parasites.
helminthic.
28
Which anthelmintic agent is known for its safety profile in children?
Mebendazole.
29
What is the common dosage form of ivermectin?
Oral tablet.
30
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a side effect of ivermectin? A) Dizziness B) Rash C) Nausea D) Hair loss
D) Hair loss.
31
What type of infections is mebendazole primarily used to treat?
Nematode infections.
32
True or False: Ivermectin can be used to treat river blindness.
True.
33
What is the recommended duration of treatment with mebendazole for common infections?
One to three days, depending on the infection.
34
Fill in the blank: Ivermectin works by binding to _____ channels in the parasites.
chloride.
35
What is one of the main advantages of using ivermectin over other anthelmintics?
It has a broad spectrum of activity against multiple types of parasites.
36
Multiple Choice: Which of the following conditions is treated with mebendazole? A) Ascariasis B) Malaria C) Tuberculosis D) Fungal infections
A) Ascariasis.
37
What should be monitored in patients receiving ivermectin treatment?
Potential neurological side effects.
38
What is the primary use of chloroquine?
Chloroquine is primarily used to prevent and treat malaria.
39
True or False: Hydroxychloroquine is a derivative of chloroquine.
True
40
Fill in the blank: Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine are classified as ________ agents.
antiprotozoal
41
Which of the following is a common side effect of chloroquine? A) Nausea B) Hair growth C) Weight gain
A) Nausea
42
What additional condition is hydroxychloroquine used to treat besides malaria?
Rheumatoid arthritis and lupus erythematosus.
43
Multiple choice: What is the mechanism of action for chloroquine? A) Inhibits protein synthesis B) Interferes with heme detoxification C) Disrupts DNA replication
B) Interferes with heme detoxification
44
What is the recommended dosage of hydroxychloroquine for malaria prophylaxis?
The typical dosage is 400 mg once a week.
45
True or False: Chloroquine can be used to treat COVID-19.
False (as of current guidelines).
46
What is one serious side effect associated with long-term use of hydroxychloroquine?
Retinal toxicity.
47
Fill in the blank: Hydroxychloroquine is often considered to have a better safety profile than _________.
chloroquine
48
What should be monitored in patients taking hydroxychloroquine long-term?
Ophthalmologic exams for retinal damage.
49
Multiple choice: Which of the following conditions is NOT treated with hydroxychloroquine? A) Malaria B) Lupus C) Hypertension
C) Hypertension
50
What is the main difference between chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine?
Hydroxychloroquine has an additional hydroxyl group, which may offer better tolerability.
51
True or False: Chloroquine is effective against all strains of malaria.
False (it is not effective against chloroquine-resistant strains).
52
What is the mechanism of resistance seen in some malaria parasites against chloroquine?
Mutations in the PfCRT gene that affect drug accumulation.