Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology 2 Final Dr. Balqees Ikhmais > Antipsychotics > Flashcards

Antipsychotics Flashcards

1
Q

Define schizophrenia.

A

A mental disorder caused by an inherent dysfunction of the brain that manifests in:
- Delusions.
- Hallucinations (mostly auditory).
- Disturbed thinking and speech patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage of the population has schizophrenia?

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which age group is most likely to develop schizophrenia?

A

Schizophrenia usually affects people during late adolesence or early adulthood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the prevalence of schizophrenia by gender?

A

Equal prevalence in men and women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Do genetics play a part in developing schizophrenia?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which area of the brain is associated with schizophrenia?

A

Schizophrenia is thought to occur as a result of a dysfunction of the mesolimbic and mesocortical dopaminergic neuronal pathways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  1. Hallucinations.
  2. Bizarre delusions.
  3. Disorganized thought.
  4. Perception disturbances.
  5. Inappropriate emotions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  1. Blunted emotions.
  2. Anhedonia.
  3. Lack of feeling.
  4. Social withdrawal.
  5. Lacking insight.
  6. Suicidal ideations.
  7. Social withdrawal.
  8. Paucity of speech.
  9. Diminished affect.
  10. Loss of drive.
  11. Impaired personal hygiene.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the cognitive manifestations of schizophrenia?

A

Disturbance in forming new memories and learning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which aspect of schizophrenia does the dopamine hypothesis cover?

A

The positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the dopamine hypothesis?

A

Hyperactivity of dopamine D2 receptor neurotransmission in the mesocortical neuronal pathway contributes to the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, whereas negative and cognitive symptoms of the disorder can be attributed to the hypofunctionality of dopamine D1 receptor neurotransmission in the prefrontal cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How was the dopamine hypothesis created?

A

Repeated administration of stimulants like amphetamines and cocaine (which enhance central dopaminergic neurotransmission) can cause a psychosis that resembles the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

Low doses of amphetamine can induce a psychotic reaction in schizophrenics in remission.

Stress, a major predisposing factor in schizophrenia, can produce a psychotic state in recovered amphetamine addicts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Is stress a major predisposing factor in schizophrenia?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which neurotransmitter is thought to cause the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Serotonin hyperactivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What other names are given to antipsychotics?

A

Neuroleptics.
Major tranquilizers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Do antipsychotics cure?

A

They do not cure the disease and don’t eliminate the chronic thinking patterns, they just eliminate the schizophrenic symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic and/or serotonergic neurotransmission, thereby decreasing the intensity of hallucinations and delusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the general structure of antipsychotics?

A

Antipsychotics are present as several diverse heterocyclic structures with marked different potencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How are antipsychotic drugs divided?

A
  • First-generation agents.
  • Second generation agents.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are first-generation antipsychotics further divided?

A
  • Low potency first-generation antipsychotics.
  • High potency first-generation antipsychotics.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Does the classification of antipsychotics relate to their clinical efficacy?

A

No! Rather, it specifies the affinity for the dopamine D2 receptor, which in turn, may influence the adverse effect profile of antipsychotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List first-generation antipsychotics (low potency).

A
  • Chlorpromazine.
  • Prochlorperazine.
  • Thioridazine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List first-generation antipsychotics (high potency).

A
  • Fluphenazine.
  • Haloperidol.
  • Pimozide.
  • Thiothixene.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

List second-generation antipsychotics.

A
  • Aripiprazole.
  • Clozapine.
  • Olanzapine.
  • Quetiapine.
  • Risperidone.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of first-generation antipsychotics?

A

Blocking D2 dopamine receptors competitively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What side effect/disorder is most associated with first-generation antipsychotics?

A

Movement disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which drug is more likely to cause movement disorders, haloperidol or chlorpromazine?

A

Haloperidol, as it binds tightly to dopaminergic receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Are any first-generation antipsychotics clinically more effective than others?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is another term for second-generation antipsychotics?

A

Atypical antipsychotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics have fewer of what kind of symptoms?

A

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of side effects are higher with second-generation antipsychotics?

A

Metabolic side effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Name three metabolic side effects associated with second-generation antipsychotics.

A
  • Diabetes.
  • Hypocholesteremia.
  • Weight gain.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why are second-generation agents commonly selected over first-generation antipsychotics?

A

To minimize movement disorders associated with first-generation antipsychotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What guides drug selection for antipsychotic patients besides minimizing side effects?

A
  • Patient response.
  • Comorbid conditions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Should second-generation drugs be considered interchangeable?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Why should second-generation drugs not be considered interchangeable?

A

Different patient responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How many types of dopamine receptors are there?

A

Five.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which dopamine receptors excite neurons?

A

D1, D5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which dopamine receptors inhibit neurons?

A

D2, D3, D4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which type of receptor do neuroleptic drugs bind to in the brain?

A

Dopamine receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do all 1st generation and most 2nd generation antipsychotics block?

A

Dopamine receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Blocking which dopamine receptors in the mesolimbic system leads to clinical efficacy with antipsychotic drugs usage?

A

D2 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which drug is 100 times more potent towards the D2 receptor than chlorpromazine?

A

Haloperidol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which atypical antipsychotic has a higher affinity for D4 and lower for D2?

A

Clozapine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What drugs antagonize the actions of antipsychotic drugs?

A
  • Levodopa.
  • Bromocriptine.
  • Amphetamines.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of receptor-blocking activity other than dopamine receptors is involved in the mechanism of action for most 2nd generation antipsychotics?

A

Serotonin receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which specific serotonin receptors are particularly inhibited by most 2nd generation antipsychotics?

A

5-HT2A receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which receptors does Clozapine have a high affinity for?

A

D1, D4, 5-HT2, muscarinic, α-adrenergic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Is Clozapine a strong or weak dopamine D2-receptor antagonist?

A

Weak.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which receptors does Risperidone primarily block?

A

5-HT2A > D2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Aripiprazole is a partial agonist at which receptors?

A

D2, 5-HT1A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Aripiprazole is a blocker of which receptor?

A

5-HT2A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which receptors does Quetiapine block?

A

D2, 5-HT2A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the mechanism of action for antipsychotic drugs?

A

Blockade at dopamine and/or serotonin receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What symptoms do antipsychotic drugs reduce?

A

Hallucinations, delusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

To a lesser extent, what negative symptoms do antipsychotic drugs reduce?

A

Blunted affect, anhedonia, apathy, impaired attention, cognitive impairment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How long do antipsychotic effects usually take to occur?

A

Several days to weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the therapeutic effects of antipsychotic drugs related to?

A

Secondary changes in the corticostriatal pathway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which second-generation agent ameliorates negative symptoms of schizophrenia to some extent?

A

Clozapine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What effect do all antipsychotic drugs have on physical movement and anxiety?

A
  • Calming effect.
  • Reduce spontaneous movement.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How do antipsychotics compare to CNS depressants like barbiturates in terms of intellectual functioning?

A

Do not depress as much.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is minimal with antipsychotic use compared to CNS depressants?

A

Motor coordination difficulties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are extrapyramidal effects caused by antipsychotics?

A

Dystonias, Parkinson-like symptoms, akathisia, tardive dyskinesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

Involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, neck, trunk, and limbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What probably causes unwanted movement symptoms in antipsychotic use?

A

Blocking dopamine receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which generation of antipsychotics exhibits a lower incidence of these symptoms?

A

Second-generation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which antipsychotic drugs do NOT have antiemetic effects?

A

Aripiprazole, thioridazine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How do antipsychotics exert antiemetic effects?

A

Blocking D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are common anticholinergic effects of antipsychotics?

A

Blurred vision, dry mouth, confusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which antipsychotic increases salivation instead of causing dry mouth?

A

Clozapine.

70
Q

What effect do antipsychotics have on gastrointestinal and urinary tract smooth muscle?

A

Inhibition.

71
Q

What can inhibition of gastrointestinal and urinary tract smooth muscle lead to?

A

Constipation, urinary retention.

72
Q

Name four antipsychotics with notable anticholinergic effects.

A

Thioridazine, chlorpromazine, clozapine, olanzapine.

73
Q

What causes orthostatic hypotension and light-headedness in antipsychotic use?

A

Blockade of alpha receptor.

74
Q

What condition is produced by altering temperature-regulating mechanisms?

A

Poikilothermia.

75
Q

What causes an increase in prolactin release in antipsychotic use?

A

Blockade of D2 receptor in the pituitary gland.

76
Q

What effect do antagonists of the histamine receptor have?

A

Sedation.

77
Q

Name three antipsychotics that act as histamine receptor antagonists causing sedation.

A

Chlorpromazine, olanzapine, clozapine.

78
Q

What is a common sexual side effect of antipsychotic drugs?

A

Sexual dysfunction.

79
Q

Do all patients respond to antipsychotic treatment for schizophrenia?

A

No.

80
Q

Is complete normalization of behavior commonly achieved with antipsychotics?

A

No.

81
Q

What symptoms do first-generation antipsychotics more effectively alleviate?

A

Positive symptoms.

82
Q

What symptoms do second-generation antipsychotics more effectively alleviate, although not consistently?

A

Negative symptoms.

83
Q

For which patients are second-generation antipsychotics particularly useful?

A

Patients resistant to first-generation.

84
Q

Which antipsychotic is reserved for patients who do not respond to other neuroleptics?

A

Clozapine.

85
Q

Why is clozapine reserved for certain patients?

A

Associated with blood dyscrasia.

86
Q

Which antipsychotic is most commonly used for severe drug-induced nausea?

A

Prochlorperazine.

87
Q

What should be used to treat nausea arising from motion?

A

Sedatives, antihistamines, anticholinergics.

88
Q

Name an anticholinergic used to treat motion-induced nausea.

A

Scopolamine.

89
Q

In what combination are antipsychotics used for chronic pain with severe anxiety?

A

Alongside narcotic analgesics.

90
Q

Which antipsychotic is used to treat intractable hiccups?

A

Chlorpromazine.

91
Q

What is promethazine used to treat, and why?

A

Pruritis, antihistamine effect.

92
Q

Which two antipsychotics are used for motor and phonic tics of Tourette disorder?

A

Pimozide, haloperidol.

93
Q

Which antipsychotics are used for disruptive behavior and irritability secondary to autism?

A

Risperidone, aripiprazole.

94
Q

How is the absorption of antipsychotics described?

A

Variable absorption.

95
Q

Can antipsychotics readily pass into the brain?

A

Yes.

96
Q

What is the volume of distribution for antipsychotics?

A

Large.

97
Q

What is the duration of action for long-acting injectable (LAI) formulations of antipsychotics?

A

2 to 4 weeks.

98
Q

For what type of patients are LAI formulations often used?

A

Noncompliant patients.

99
Q

What are the benefits of LAI formulations of antipsychotics?

A

Lower extrapyramidal symptoms, little physical dependence.

100
Q

Do adverse effects of antipsychotics occur in all patients?

A

Yes.

101
Q

In what percentage of patients are adverse effects of antipsychotics significant?

A

80%.

102
Q

Despite the array of side effects, what is high in antipsychotics?

A

Therapeutic index.

103
Q

What normally balances the inhibitory effects of dopaminergic neurons?

A

Excitatory actions of cholinergic neurons.

104
Q

What happens when dopamine receptors are blocked?

A

Relative excess of cholinergic influence.

105
Q

What results from a relative excess of cholinergic influence?

A

Extrapyramidal motor effects.

106
Q

What determines the risk of appearance of movement disorders in antipsychotic use?

A

Time and dose dependency.

107
Q

What is dystonia and how soon can it appear?

A

Movement disorder with repetitive muscle movements; few hours to days.

108
Q

What is akathisia and how soon can it appear?

A

Inability to remain seated due to motor restlessness; days to weeks.

109
Q

What are Parkinson-like symptoms and how soon can they appear?

A

Bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor; weeks to months.

110
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia and how soon can it appear?

A

Involuntary uncontrolled movements, especially of the mouth, tongue, and trunk; months to years.

111
Q

What is the effect of blocking cholinergic activity on extrapyramidal effects?

A

Minimizing effect.

112
Q

Which anticholinergic drug can minimize extrapyramidal effects?

A

Benztropine.

113
Q

Why do clozapine and risperidone have a lower potential for causing extrapyramidal symptoms?

A

5-HT2A antagonizing effect.

114
Q

Which atypical antipsychotic is used as a first-line treatment?

A

Risperidone.

115
Q

For which patients is clozapine reserved?

A

Patients refractory/unresponsive to traditional therapy.

116
Q

What serious side effect is associated with clozapine?

A

Bone marrow suppression.

117
Q

Why should white blood cell count be monitored in patients taking clozapine?

A

Risk of agranulocytosis.

118
Q

When does tardive dyskinesia typically occur with neuroleptic drugs?

A

After long-time treatment.

119
Q

What are the involuntary movements associated with tardive dyskinesia?

A

Bilateral and facial jaw movements, “fly-catching” motions of the tongue.

120
Q

What effect can a prolonged drug holiday have on tardive dyskinesia symptoms?

A

Symptoms may diminish in months (reversible toxicity).

121
Q

Is tardive dyskinesia always reversible?

A

No, it can be irreversible.

122
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia a response to?

A

Compensatory response to long neuroleptic treatment.

123
Q

What increases in the brain as a compensatory response leading to tardive dyskinesia?

A

Number of dopamine receptors.

124
Q

What becomes supersensitive in tardive dyskinesia?

A

Neurons.

125
Q

What results from the overpowered cholinergic input in tardive dyskinesia?

A

Excess movement.

126
Q

What is the potential severity of antipsychotic malignant syndrome?

A

Potentially fatal.

127
Q

Name three symptoms of antipsychotic malignant syndrome.

A

Muscle rigidity, fever, altered mental status.

128
Q

What happens to blood pressure in antipsychotic malignant syndrome?

A

Unstable blood pressure.

129
Q

What is myoglobinemia and what causes it in antipsychotic malignant syndrome?

A

Muscle damage releasing myoglobin into the blood.

130
Q

What must be done with the drug in the case of antipsychotic malignant syndrome?

A

Drug must be discontinued.

131
Q

Name two treatments that may be helpful for antipsychotic malignant syndrome.

A

Dantrolene, bromocriptine.

132
Q

What effect causes drowsiness with antipsychotic drugs?

A

Antihistamine effect.

133
Q

Name a cognitive side effect of antipsychotic drugs.

A

Confusion.

134
Q

What causes dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and loss of accommodation with antipsychotic drugs?

A

Antimuscarinic activity.

135
Q

What causes lowered blood pressure and orthostatic hypotension with antipsychotic drugs?

A

Alpha adrenergic blockade.

136
Q

Name five reproductive or hormonal side effects of antipsychotic drugs.

A

Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, gynecomastia, infertility, impotence.

137
Q

What is a common side effect of antipsychotic drugs that can result in noncompliance?

A

Weight gain.

138
Q

hat metabolic effects can antipsychotic drugs have?

A

Increased blood glucose (DM) and triglyceride levels.

139
Q

What can acute agitation accompanying withdrawal from alcohol or other drugs be aggravated by?

A

Antipsychotics.

140
Q

How do antipsychotics affect the seizure threshold?

A

Lower it.

141
Q

In which patients should antipsychotics be used cautiously?

A

Patients with seizure disorders.

142
Q

What serious condition is associated with clozapine?

A

Agranulocytosis.

143
Q

What is recommended for patients with two or more psychotic episodes?

A

Maintenance therapy for at least 5 years.

144
Q

How do higher doses of antipsychotics affect relapse rates?

A

Lower relapse.

145
Q

Which generation of antipsychotics is associated with lower relapse rates?

A

Second-generation.

146
Q

What potential side effects are associated with chlorpromazine?

A

EPS, weight gain, orthostasis, sedation, anti-muscarinic effects.

147
Q

What is the potential for EPS in oral formulation of fluphenazine?

A

High potential.

148
Q

What side effects have low potential in fluphenazine’s oral formulation?

A

Weight gain, sedation, orthostasis, anti-muscarinic effects.

149
Q

How often is LAI formulation of fluphenazine administered?

A

Every 2-3 weeks.

150
Q

What are the side effect potentials for haloperidol?

A

High potential for EPS; low potential for weight gain, sedation, orthostasis, anti-muscarinic effects.

151
Q

How often is LAI formulation of haloperidol administered?

A

Every 4 weeks.

152
Q

What potential side effects are associated with aripiprazole?

A

Low potential for EPS, weight gain, sedation, anti-muscarinic effects.

153
Q

What disorders is aripiprazole approved to treat?

A

Bipolar disorder, autistic disorder in children, major depression (adjunctive).

154
Q

What potential side effects are associated with asenapine?

A

Low potential for EPS, weight gain, sedation, orthostasis.

155
Q

What disorder is asenapine approved to treat?

A

Bipolar disorder.

156
Q

What are the risks associated with clozapine?

A

Very low potential for EPS, high risk for blood dyscrasias, seizures, myocarditis, sialorrhea, weight gain, anti-muscarinic effects, orthostasis, sedation.

157
Q

What potential side effects are associated with olanzapine?

A

Low potential for EPS, weight gain, sedation, orthostasis.

158
Q

What disorders is olanzapine approved to treat?

A

Bipolar disorder.

159
Q

How often is the LAI formulation of olanzapine administered?

A

Every 2-4 weeks.

160
Q

What potential side effects are associated with paliperidone?

A

Low to moderate potential for EPS, weight gain, sedation.

161
Q

What disorders is paliperidone approved to treat?

A

Schizo-affective disorder.

162
Q

How often is the LAI formulation of paliperidone administered?

A

Every 4 weeks.

163
Q

What potential side effects are associated with quetiapine?

A

Low potential for EPS, moderate potential for weight gain, orthostasis, sedation.

164
Q

What disorders is quetiapine approved to treat?

A

Bipolar disorder, major depression (adjunctive).

165
Q

What potential side effects are associated with risperidone?

A

Low to moderate potential for EPS, weight gain, orthostasis, sedation.

166
Q

What disorders is risperidone approved to treat?

A

Bipolar disorder, autistic disorder in children.

167
Q

How often is the LAI formulation of risperidone administered?

A

Every 2 weeks.

168
Q

What potential side effects are associated with ziprasidone?

A

Low potential for extrapyramidal effects, minimal weight gain.

169
Q

What condition contraindicates the use of ziprasidone?

A

Cardiac arrhythmias.

170
Q

What is dystonia?

A

Sustained muscle contractions.

171
Q

What are Parkinson-like symptoms?

A

Motor restlessness.

Pharmacology 2 Final Dr. Balqees Ikhmais (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions