Antipsychotic Drugs Flashcards

1
Q
42 yo pt treated with antipsychotic medication to manage schizo. Which agent is associated with skeletal muscle rigidity, tremor at rest, flat facies, uncontrollable restlessness, and spastic toritcollis?
A. Haloperidol 
B. Clozapine
C. Olanzapine
D. Chlorpromazine
E. Ziprasidone
F. Quetiapine
A

A. Haloperidol

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2
Q
36 yo F schizo for several years. Currently on fluphenazine and experiencing amenorrhea and galactorrhea. Which agent would be more appropriate with lowest risk of current adverse effects? Which second gen agent would not be appropriate and would have near-equal risk of current effects?
A. Aripiprazole
B. Haloperidol
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Risperidone
E. paliperidone
A

A. Aripiprazole

D. Risperidone

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3
Q
35 yo homeless M taking chlorpromazine for many years to control his schizo. Experiencing blurred vision, dry mouth, mydriasis, nausea, urinary retention, and constipation. Effects caused by blockade of which receptor?
A. alpha adrenergic
B. Dopamine
C. Nicotinic
D. Serotonin
E. muscarinic
A

E. muscarinic

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4
Q
Pt with history of schizo is transported to emergency department by ambulance after repeated episodes of fainting. May be attributed to severe drug-induced orthostatic hypotension associated with one of her meds and thought to be due to alpha adrenergic blockade. WHat med would be most likely cause?
A. Risperidone
B. Thioridazine
C. Aripiprazole
D. Haloperidol
E. Ziprasidone
F. Fluphenazine
A

B. Thioridazine

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5
Q
22 yo M student BMI 49 diagnosed with schizo. Which second gen agent would be most appropriate as first line therapy and have lowest impact on BMI?
A. Quetiapine
B. Olanzapine
C. Clozapine
D. Chlorpromazine
E. Ziprasidone
F. Risperidone
A

E. Ziprasidone

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6
Q

Name the first generation (conventional, typical) antipsychotic agents

A
Chlorpromazine
Fluphenazine
Haloperidol
Thioridazine
Thiothiexene
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7
Q

Name the second generation (novel, atypical) antipsychotic agents

A
Aripiprazole
Clozapine
Olanzapine
Quetiapine
Risperidone
Ziprasidone
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8
Q

What are the indications for antipsychotics?

A

Mental health conditions associated with psychosis (schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder)
Major depressive disorder (unipolar)
Bipolar I disorder; mania or mixed
Bipolar II disorder; depression
Tourette’s disorder
Irritability with autism spectrum disorders
Recurrent suicidal behavior (clozapine)

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9
Q

Describe the dopamine hypothesis

A

Direct/indirect DA-agonists (methamphetamine and cocaine) provoke psychotic reactions in non-schizophrenics and exacerbate symptoms in schizophrenics
Alterations in DA-mediated transmission in schizophrenics (increased DA occupancy of D2 receptor)

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10
Q

Describe the mesolimbic pathway and positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Anatomy: projections from VTA to nucleus accumbens
Phys: motivation, emotions, reward, positive symptoms
Implications: D2 antagonists reduce positive symptoms

Positive symptoms: halluncinations, delusions, disorganized speech/thinking, agitation, abnormal motor behavior

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11
Q

Describe mesocortical pathway: negative and cognitive symptoms

A

Anatomy: projections from VTA to cortex (PFC)
Phys: cognition and executive functions (DLPFC), emotions, and affect (VMPFC)
Implications: hypofunction of mesocortical pathway might be related to cognitive and negative symptoms

Negative symptoms: apathy, abolition, alogia, cognitive deficits (working memory), social withdrawal

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12
Q

Describe nigrostriatal pathway and EPS

A

Anatomy: projections from substantia nigra (pars compacta) to striatum (caudate and putamen)
Phys: stimulation of purposeful movement
Implications: D2 antagonism induces extrapyradimal symptoms (pseudoparkinsonism)

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13
Q

Describe the tuberoinfundibular pathway and prolactin release

A

Anatomy: hypothalamus (arcuate and periventricular nuclei) to infundibular region (median eminence)
Phys: DA is released into portal circulation connecting median eminence with anterior pituitary gland. DA tonically inhibits prolactin release.
Implications: D2 antagonism increases prolactin levels

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14
Q

Describe the MOA of first gen antipsychotics

A

FGAs primarily block dopamine type2 (D2) postsynaptic receptors (D2»5HT2)

Also block one or more other receptors (primarily inducing SEs)
Muscarinic receptors
Histamine receptors (H1)
Alpha-adrenergic receptors (a1)
D2 receptors in nigrostriatal (movements) and tuberoinfundibular (prolactin) pathways

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15
Q

Describe the muscarinic, alpha-adrenergic, histamine, and other effects of FGA’s

A

Muscarinic (anti-cholinergic): dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, blurred vision, sedation
Alpha-adrenergic: orthostatic hypotension, dizziness/syncope
Histamine: sedation
Other: risk of QTc prolongation and seizure activity

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16
Q

Describe the dopamine effects of FGAs

A

Hyperprolactinemia (tuberoinfundibular pathway): amenorrhea/galactorrhea/gynecomastia/decreased libido

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)/Tardive dyskineisia (TD) (nigrostriatal pathway)
Acute dystonia/akathisia/dyskinesia/Parkinsonism-like
**Treatments
-anticholinergic agents: diphenhydramine, benztropine, trihexyphenidyl
-non-anticholinergic: amantadine (antiviral)
-propranolol/clonazepam for akathisia

17
Q

Describe low potency vs high potency agents based on D2 potency/receptor occupancy of FGAs

A

Low potency:
More sedation, hypotension, and seizure-threshold reduction
Agents: chlorpromazine, thioridazine

High potency:
More movement (EPS) and endocrine effects (prolactin)
Agents: fluphenazine, haloperidol, thiothixene
18
Q

What are limits to dopamine hypothesis?

A

Does not account for all cognitive deficits/negative symptoms associated with schizophrenia (related to decreased DA signaling in prefrontal cortex)
Does not fully explain role of 5HT2 (LSD, 5HT agonist)
Does not fully explain role of NMDA/glutamate (PCP/ketamine, antagonist)

19
Q

Describe MOA of second generation antipsychotics (SGAs)

A

Block dopamine type2 (D2) postsynaptic receptors and 5HT2A

Stronger 5HT2a blocker&raquo_space; D2

20
Q

Describe the SGA dual 5HT2a/D2 theory

A

5HT2a antagonism increases DA transmission in nigrostriatal pathway
May contribute to improved negative and cognitive symptoms via increased DA release in PFC
Reduced EP SE’s

SGAs may rapidly dissociate more from D2 receptors (reduced EP SE’s)
Some SGAs are D2 partial agonists (aripiprazole)
Some SGAs are 5HT1A full agonist (ziprasidone) or partial agonists (aripiprazole and clozapine)
Some also block one or more other DA receptor and have greater propensity to be agonist/antagonist on one or more other 5HT receptors

21
Q

Describe side effects of SGAs

A

Common:
Weight gain
Metabolic effects (hyperglycemia/insulin resistance, hyperlipidemia)

Rare:
QTc prolongation/ECG changes: negative inotropic actions (greater risk for women, elderly, and those on antiarrhtymics)
Stroke: greater risk in elderly with dementia (increase all-cause mortality with all antipsychotics (class warning))
22
Q

Which FGAs and SGAs have the most and least risk for weight gain and diabetes?

A

SGAs higher risk > FGAs

FGA:
Most: chlorpromazine (most), thioridazine, thiothixene
Least: fluphenazine, haloperidol

SGA:
Most: Olanzapine
Least: Aripiprazole, ziprasidone

23
Q

Which FGAs and SGAs have the most and least risk for hypercholesterolemia?

A

SGAs higher risk > FGAs

FGAs:
Most: chlorpromazine
Least: fluphenazine, haloperidol

SGAs:
Most: Olanzapine (most), quetiapine
Least: aripiprazole, ziprasidone

24
Q

Which FGAs and SGAs have the most and least risk for EPS/tardive dyskinesia?

A

FGAs higher risk > SGAs

FGAs:
Most: fluphenazine, haloperidol, thiothixene
Least: chlorpromazine, thioridazine

25
Which FGAs and SGAs have the most and least risk for prolactin secretion?
FGAs higher risk > SGAs FGAs Most: fluphenazine, haloperidol, thioridazine Least: chlorpromazine, thiothixene SGAs Most: Risperidone Least: aripiprazole(least), olanzapine, quetiapine, ziprasidone
26
Which FGAs and SGAs have the most and least risk for sedation?
FGAs Most: chlorpromazine, thioridazine Least: fluphenazine, thiothixene SGAs Most: olanzapine, quetiapine Least: aripiprazole, risperidone, ziprasodone
27
Which FGAs and SGAs have the most and least risk for anticholinergic SEs?
FGAs more risk > SGAs FGAs More: thioridazine (most), chlorpromazine Least: fluphenazine, haloperidol, thiothixene SGAs More: Olanzapine, quetiapine Least: aripiprazole, ziprasidone, risperidone
28
Which FGAs and SGAs have the most and least risk for orthostatic hypotension?
SGAs more > FGAs FGAs More: thioridazine (most), chlorpromazine Least: fluphenazine, haloperidol, thiothixene SGAs More: quetiapine Least; aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, ziprasidone
29
Which FGAs and SGAs have the most and least risk for QT prolongation?
FGAs More: thioridazine Least: chlorpromazine, haloperidol, thiothixene SGAs More: ziprasidone Least: aripiprazole, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone
30
Which SGA causes rare but sever SE of agranulocytosis?
Clozapine (1-2%) Monitor WBC REMS program
31
What SGAs causes drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)? Describe
Olanzapine Very rare, potentially life threatening drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction Includes skin eruption, hematologic abnormalities (eosinophilia, atypical lymphocytosis), lymphadenopathy, and internal organ involvement (liver, kidney, lung) Long latency (2-8 weeks) between drug exposure and disease onset Prolonged course with frequent relapses despite D/Cing culprit drug Frequent association with reactivation of latent human herpes virus infection
32
Describe neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
Rare but potentially fatal, severe Parkinson's-like movement disorder with widespread muscle contraction Mesocortical effects: altered mental status Nigrostriatal effects: muscle rigidity, increased muscle metabolism, rhabdomyolysis Hypothalamic effects: hyperthermia Autonomic dysfunction: dehydration Treatment: dantrolene (malignant hyperthermia) Ryanodine receptor Ca2+ channel being open causes muscle contraction Dantrolene occupies receptor, so it is closed. Peripheral muscle relaxation.
33
For antipsychotic monitoring, what baseline items?
Serum glucose, lipids, BMI, BP, waist circumference, personal/family histories of metabolic and CV disease
34
Which agents are more commonly recommended and used as first-line, initial therapy?
Atypical agents (SGAs)
35
What are therapeutic pearls of treatment?
Favorable prognosis seen in shorter duration and less severe symptoms of disease prior to diagnosis/treatment. Strong, positive pre-illness functionality **Adherence is critical! Non-adherence can be managed with long-acting injectable agents (LAIAs) (every 2-12 wks): haloperidol decanoate, fluphenazine decanoate, risperidone, olanzapine, aripiprazole lauroxil, paliperidone palmitate Minimum 2-3 wks therapy necessary for response evaluation (remission may take months) Acute high doses not universally beneficial in providing more rapid response Adjunctive pharmacotherapies useful for multiple comorbidities Non-pharmacotherapy adjunctive treatments beneficial Combo antipsychotic not universally supported by literature but necessary clinically (combo for comorbidities: psychotic depression (olanzapine/fluoxetine), mania with psychotic features (lithium, anticonvulsant) **Multidrug resistant disease: clozapine **Psychotic with anti-suicidal thoughts/behaviors: clozapine